EAST CENTRAL RAILWAY Railway Recruitment Cell Group-D recruitment

Railway Recruitment Cell/Patna invites applications from citizens of India and such other candidates declared eligible by the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India to fill up the Group-D posts 2226 in East Central Railway.

MINIMUM EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION:
Candidates should possess the qualification of 10th Pass or ITI / Centre of Excellence (COE) or equivalent. Candidates appearing at and/or awaiting results of the final examinations of 10th/ITI/COE or equivalent on the date of application are not eligible to apply. Educational Qualification must be from Recognized Institutions/Boards, otherwise candidature will be cancelled.

AGE LIMIT: 
The normal age (in completed years) for the recruitment is 18-33 years reckoned as on 01.01.2013.

MODE OF SELECTION: 
Written Test followed by Physical Efficiency Test (PET) of candidates found successful in written Test, Document Verification and Medical Examination. There will not be any Viva-voce. Entire proceeding of PET shall be video graphed.

Candidates who fulfill the eligibility conditions will be called for a Written Test. A separate call letter indicating date, time and venue will be sent to all the eligible candidates

Written Examination: Written Examination consists of objective type multiple choice ( 4 options) question paper based on 10th class standard to assess the general knowledge/awareness/mathematics /reasoning etc.

The question paper will be printed in Hindi, English, Urdu and Maithili.

Negative Marking: There will be negative marking for marking wrong answers. 1/3 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.

Opening Date for Submission of application : 11.08.2012
Closing Date for submission of application : 10.10.2012 upto 18.00 Hrs.
Closing Date for Only residents of Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshadweep Islands –25.10.2012 upto 18.00 Hrs.

For more details CLICK HERE

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT CELL, EAST COAST RAILWAY GROUP-D RECRUITMENT

Employment Notice for recruitment of staff in Pay Band-1 of Rs.5200-20200 having Grade Pay of Rs.1800/- in East Coast Railway

Applications are invited from the Citizens of India and from such other persons declared eligible by Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India for filling up posts in Pay Band-1 of Rs.5200-20200 having Grade Pay of Rs.1800/- in the Divisions and Workshop of East Coast Railway. Application in prescribed format in A-4 size may be sent by ordinary post addressed to the “Assistant Personnel Officer(Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell, East Coast Railway Headquarters, Office of the Chief Personnel Officer, 2nd Floor, South Block, Rail Sadan, PO-Mancheswar, Bhubaneswar, Orissa - 751017” upto 17.00 hrs. on the closing date 24.09.2012.  Alternatively, application can also be dropped into the Application Drop Box available at the Railway Recruitment Cell, East Coast Railway Headquarters, 2nd Floor, Rail Sadan, PO-Mancheswar, Bhubaneswar, Orissa - 751017 upto 17.00 hrs. on the closing date. 

Number and category of posts for which recruitment is to be conducted are indicated below: 

Category of post	Medical Standard	UR	SC	ST	OBC	Total	OH	VH	HH
Helper-II	Bee One	202	60	30	108	400	5	5	5
Total		202	60	30	108	400	5	5	5

Note: (i) Out of the total – 400 Helper-II vacancies, 15 vacancies are earmarked for Persons with Disabilities (PWD) with the break-up of (a) OH=5 (3 for OL and 2 for OL or BL); (b) VH=5 (for LV); (c) HH=5.

(ii) The vacancies notified will be subject to revision. No consequential damage/loss or refund of fee will be made to the applicant on this account.

(iii) There is no quota for ex-servicemen in the above vacancies. 

MINIMUM EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION: Candidates must have passed 10^th standard or ITI or equivalent from a recognized educational institution or Board. Candidate should possess requisite academic qualification on the date of submission of application. Those who are appearing at and/or awaiting results of final examination are not eligible. 

AGE LIMITS, including RELAXATION PROVISIONS:

(i) The age limit will be minimum 18 years and maximum 33 years, and will be reckoned as on 01.01.2013.

Click Here to view 2012 Group D Notification  

Click Here to view 2012 Group D Application Form

RRC NORTH ZONE GROUP-D EXAM 2012 SOLVED PAPER

RRC Group D posts examination will held from 6 May, 2012

The Railway Board has announced the date of Group – D recruitment examination, which will be conducted zonal level is schedule to be held from May 6th to  June 24, 2012.

The Railway Board has decided that same date the examination will be held at the zonal level, based on which the candidates name will be called in alphabetically order.  More than 6 million candidates have applied for Group D posts.

RRB BHUBANESHWAR GROUP ‘D’ EXAM SOLVED PAPER

RRB BHUBANESHWAR GROUP ‘D’ EXAM

(Held on 30.09.2007) 

 

1. Recently, the Mittal group acquired the steel company________.

(1) Arcellor

(2) Chorus

(3) Posco

(4) Jindal

2. Where is the headquarters of UNESCO located ?

(1) Paris

(2) Oslo

(3) Rome

(4) Istanbul

3. Which of the following locations is known for missile test?

(1) Chandiput

(2) Pokharan

(3) Shri Harikota

(4) Sunderban

4. When the rate of interest is decreased to 12.5% p.a. from 13% there is a loss of Rs. 104 in the annual income. What is the principal?

(1) Rs. 20800

(2) Rs. 21200

(3) Rs. 22400

(4) Rs. 23200

5. The Kalinga battle was fought near which of the following places ?

(1) Barabati

(2) Balasore

(3) Dhouli (4) Udaygiri

6. Which least number when added to 2000 makes it exactly divisible by 19?

(1) 7

(2) 11

(3) 14

(4) 17

7. Which kind of energy is there in a stretched rubber band?

(1) Kinetic

(2) Magnetic

(3) Potential

(4) Constant

8. Which of the following places is known for path figurine painting ?

(1) Painting

(2) Raghurajpur

(3) Pipili

(4) Jajpur

9. A car covers the 13 rd of its total distance at 60 kmph. next 13 rd at 30kmph and the

remaining distance at 10 kmph, then what is the average speed of the whole journey?

(1) 33 kmph

(2) 25 kmph

(3) 20 kmph

(4) 15 kmph

10. Who is the present captain of Indian National Hockey team?

(1) Dhanraj Pillai

(2) Probodh Tirki

(3) Gaganjit Singh

(4) Dilip Tirki

11. Who built the famous Jagannath temple ?

(1) Ashoka

(2) Kharvel

(3) Jajati Keshari

(4) Chola Gangdev

12. What will be the compound interest on a sum of Rs. 6000 for 2 years at the rate of 12% per annum ?

(1) Rs. 1526

(2) Rs. 1772

(3) Rs. 1886

(4) Rs. 2072

13. Indicating towards a picture Rita tells her daughter. ‘He is the only son of my mother’s mother." How is Rita related to that man?

(1) Sister

(2) Nephew / Niece

(3) Aunt / Maternal mother (

4) Mother

14. Hindustan Zinc plant is located at

(1) Engule

(2) Udaipur

(3) Kakinanda (4) Vishakhapatnam

15. Which is the longest river of India ?

(1) Godavari

(2) Krishna

(3) Sindhu

(4) Ganges

16. At which of the following places was located an important village of old Kalinga?

(1) Puri (2) Baripada

(3) Tosali (4) Kyonjhar

17. Who was awarded first with Prime Minister prize for significant work in public administration?

(1) Y.V. Reddy

(2) Bimal Jalan

(3) N. Gopalaswamy

(4) Rajiv Chawla

18. Which part of the body is affected by Pneumonia ?

(1) Brain (

2) Heart

(3) Lungs (4) Kidney

19. The average weight of A,B and C is 70 kg but the average weight of A and B is 90 kg. What is the weight oC?

(1) 30 kg.

(2) 35 kg

(3) 40 kg.

(4) 45 kg.

20. Which river originates from Orissa and merges with Godavari?

(1) Brahmani

(2) Rushikulya

(3) Nagawali

(4) Indravati

21. The Chilka lake is famous for

(1) White Whale

(2) White Shark

(3) White Dolphin

(4) White Prawn

22. Light, radiowaves and X-rays are______ waves.

(1) Electro magnetic

(2) Nuclear

(3) Magnetic resonance

(4) Seismic

23. Which of the following is a red planet ?

(1) Jupiter (2) Mars

(3) Mercury (4) Sun

24. The ratio of A and B is 5:7. The value of A is 185, then B is equal to

(1) 129

(2) 239

(3) 259

(4) 379

25. The headquarters of World Health Organization is located at

(1) Geneva

(2) Paris

(3) Berlin

(4) Washington

26. In Orissa, Mig is built at

(1) Cuttak

(2) Sambalpur

(3) Berhampur

(4) Sunaveda

27. Which of the following is the first college of Orissa?

(1) Orissa Veterinary College

(2) Revanshaw College

(3) Wurla Engineering College

(4) Government Arts College

28. Which of the following is a Hockey player?

(1) Dilip Tirki

(2) V.V.S. Lakshman

(3) W.Bhutia

(4) Pravin Thipse

29. The square root of 24649 is

(1) 127

(2) 137

(3) 157

(4) 247

30. Which of the following is a chief kharif crop in Orissa ?

(1) Jawar

(2) Bajara

(3) Rice

(4) Wheat

31. Eager : interest : : Sharp : ?

(1) Desire

(2) Height

(3) Smile

(4) Intelligence

32. The ratio of 50 ml and 2 litres is

(1) 1 : 20

(2) 1 : 25

(3) 1 : 40

(4) 1 : 80

33. Who wrote ‘My Experiments with Truth’?

(1) Jawaharlal Nehru

(2) Rabindranath Tagore

(3) M.K. Gandhi

(4) Jai Prakash Narayan

34. The deficiency of vitamin ‘C’ causes

(1) Paralysis

(2) Scurvey

(3) T.B.

(4) Jaundice

35. What will come in place of the question mark in the following number series?

16 ,21, 7, 13, 18, 6, 19, ?, ?

(1) 22 and 6

(2) 24 and 8

(3) 22 and 8

(4) 24 and 6

36. If one side of a square is decreased by 5% its area decreases by

(1) 6.75%

(2) 9.75%

(3) 12.50%

(4) 25%

37. Which of the following states is the most densely covered by forests ?

(1) Orissa

(2) Madhya Pradesh

(3) Assam

(4) Arunachal Pradesh

38. Who among the following was awarded with Nodel Prize in Physics ?

(1) J.C. Bose

(2) Hargobind Khurana

(3) S. Chandra Shekhar

(4) Amartya Sen

39. The ‘ Gateway of India’ is situated in

(1) Delhi (2) Mumbai

(3) Chennai (4) Kolkata

40. Sultan Azlan Sah Hockey Tournament 2007 was won by

(1) India (2) Pakistan

(3) South Korea (4) Australia

41. Winter crop season is known in India as

(1) Rabi (2) Winter

(3) Kharif (4) Poddu

42. 3 49 1 2 1 of ? 7 10 7 7 + + − =

(1) 15 (2) 12

(3) 13 (4)121

43. Which Indian player has taken the highest number of wickets in Test Cricket ?

(1) B.S. Bedi (2) Kapil Dev

(3) Sri Nath (4) Anil Kumble

44. The population of a city is 70000. it increases at 10% in the first year and at 20% in the following year. What will be the population after 2 years ?

(1) 77000 (2) 84000

(3) 92400 (4) 104000

45. Which river flows in India through Tibbet ?

(1) Ravi (2) Beas

(3) Brahmaputra (4) Ganges

46. The decimal equivalent of 7 gm of a kilogram is

(1) 0.7 (2) 0.07

(3) 0.007 (4) 0.0007

47. Hyderabad was earlier known as

(1) Bhagyanagar (2) Nizamabad

(3) Secunderabad (4) Golconda

48. Kullu Valley is situated in

(1) Punjab (2) Himachal Pradesh

(3) Kashmir (4) Uttarakhand

49. Muchkund power project is situated in the state of

(1) Andhra Pradesh (2) Orissa

(3) Gujarat (4) Karnataka

50. Which mountain range divides India into north and south ?

(1) Nilgiris (2) Satpura

(3) Vidhyas (4) Aravali

51. The telegraphic code was invented by

(1) S.F.B. Morse (2) Arcwright

(3) Thomas Addison (4) G.Marconi

52. In a sum of Rs. 11.70, the coins of one rupee, 50 paise and 5 paise and 5 paise are in the ratio 3: 5 :7. Find the number of 50 paise coins.

(1) 6 (2) 10

(3) 14 (4) 20

53. Which place is famous for Jain caves ?

(1) Eilora (2) Khandgiri

(3) Kapilash (4) Sarnath

54. The first successful synchronous satellite of India is

(1) SLV (2) APPLE

(3) ROHINI (4) INSAT

55. Find the missing number in the following matrix.

2	5	?
10	5	50
5	4	20

(1) 10 (2) 15

(3) 20 (4) 25

56. Which of the following places is famous for thermal power plant ?

(1) Hirakud (2) Manipal

(3) Polavaram (4) Talcher

57. Indira Gandhi Zoological park is located in

(1) Vishakhapatnam (2) Gyderabad

(3) Puri (4) Bhubaneshwar

58. The universal blood donor is

(1) Group ‘A’ (2) Group ‘B’

(3) Group ‘AB’ (4) Group ‘O’

59. Which state is the biggest producer of cotton ?

(1) Kerala (2) Karnataka

(3) Andhra Pradesh (4) Maharashtra

60. The VIBGYOR spectrum is related to

(1) Light (2) Sound

(3) Motion (4) Energy

61. Who invented telephone ?

(1) Graham Bell (2) K.G. Gillete

(3) Wright brothers (4) E. Torricelli

62. A man sells an article for Rs. 3550 and loses 19%. The cost price of the article is

(1) Rs. 4283 (2) Rs. 4350

(3) Rs. 4383 (4) Rs. 4450

63. The largest number which divides 411.752 and 1031 leaving remainder 8 in each case, is

(1) 8 (2) 11

(3) 21 (4) 31

64. The pilotless aircraft developed by DRDO whichis targeted, is

(1) Tejas (2) Vijay

(3) Lakshya (4) Varun

65. The first Indian woman justice of Supreme Court of India is

(1) Kiran Bedi (2) Brinda Karat

(3) Fatima Bibi (4) Mohini Giri

66. The instrument used to measure the intensity of earthquake is

(1) Dynamometer (2) Seismograph

(3) Fathometer (4) Magnetometer

67. The LCM of 2457,,,39612andis

(1) 118 (2) 136

(3) 359 (4) 1403

68. The first train in India was inaugurated in

(1) 1753 (2) 1784

(3) 1853 (4) 1857

69. The calculating machine was invented by

(1) Pascal (2) Bill Gates

(3) Issac Newton (4) Goodyear

70. A man travels for 4 hours. The half of the journey is covered by bus at 40 kmph and the remaining at 30 kmph by scooter. What distance did he cover?

(1) 17.5 km (2) 37.14 km

(3) 137.14 km (4) 117.5 km

71. Who is the chairman of National Human Rights Commission in India?

(1) S.Rajendra Babu (2) V.N. Kaul

(3) U.S. Mishra (4) R.C. Lahouti

72. The urban population is most in

(1) Tamil Nadu (2) West Bengal

(3) Karnataka (4) Maharashtra

73. Who wrote ‘Abhigyan Shakuntalam’?

(1) Charak (2) Harisen

(3) Bann Bhatta (4) Kalidas

74. A man buys 8 mangoes for Rs. 9 and sells them at 9 mangoes for Rs. 8. his gain or loss per cent is

(1) 10.18% loss (2) 10.18% gain

(3) 20.98% loss (4) 20.98% gain

75. Which is understood best for conducting electricity?

(1) Radiators (2) Conductors

(3) Vectors (4) Regulators

76. The other name of evergreen forests is

(1) Deciduous forests (2) Tropical forests

(3) Alpine forests (4) None of these

77. 7, 8, 10, 13, 17, ?

(1) 18 (2) 20

(3) 22 (4) 24

78. Lignite is found in abundance in

(1) Orissa (2) Andhra Pradesh

(3) Tamil Nadu (4) Karnataka

79. The western seacoast in India is known as

(1) Coromandal (2) Malabar

(3) Palk Strait (4) Konkan

80. The river called China’s sorrow is

(1) Yang te (2) Hwang Ho

(3) Three Gorges (4) Shinago

81. Fraction 32 is equivalent to what per cent?

(1) 55% (2) 75%

(3) 150% (4) 175%

82. On January 26, 1950, India became

(1) Independent (2) Democratic

(3) Republic (4) Non-aligned

83. A car moves at 120 kmph, the distance covered by it in 15 minutes, is

(1) 20 km (2) 30 km

(3) 40 km (4) 50 km

84. Who invented the cholera vaccine?

(1) Joseph Lister (2) Louis Pasteur

(3) Edward Jenner (4) Roger Beacon

85. The smallest fraction in the following is

(1) 79 (2) 59

(3) 89 (4) 57

86. The two nuclear explosions took place in

(1) Kutch (2) Andaman

(3) Pokharan (4) Sunderban

87. In a group, the grandfather and his wife, father, mother, their three sons and their wives and two daughters of each son are included. The number of women in the group is

(1) 11 (2) 13

(3) 15 (4) 17

88. A cricketer scored at an average of 52 runs in 8 matches. The average of first 5 matches was 50, the average of the last 3 matches is

(1) 51.5 (2) 52.3

(3) 53.5 (4) 55.3

89. The missile fired from ground to air is

(1) Agni (2) Trishul

(3) Naag (4) Prithvi

90. The Railway Coach factory is situated in

(1) Varanast (2) Kapurthala

(3) Chittaranjan (4) Perambur

91. If a bus covers 135 km in 3 hours. The time taken to cover 200 km at the same speed is

(1) 3.22 hrs (2) 3.44 hrs

(3) 4.22 hrs (4) 4.44 hrs

92. The vegetation has life. Who researched on it?

(1) Hargobind Khurana (2) Hippocratus

(3) Edward Jenner (4) J.C. Bose

93. Which is an ice fed river?

(1) Ganges (2) Mahanadi

(3) Tapti (4) Godavari

94. The largest among the following

(1) 719 (2) 1216

(3) 1117 (4) 1318

95. The Runn of Kutch is known for

(1) Lion (2) Tigers

(3) Herbivores (4) Wild ass

96. The first commercial noncivilian aircraft is

(1) Tejas (2) Saras

(3) Indian (4) Volan

97. For contribution in the field of trade. Padma Bhushan, 2007 was awarded to

(1) LN Mittal (2) S.B. Mittal

(3) Ratan Tata (4) Azim Premji

98. The HCF of 12984, and is10864

(1) 182 (2) 380

(3) 3320 (4) 482

99. The first Indian to get Nobel Prize is

(1) Rabindra Nath Tagore (2) C.V. Raman

(3) J.C. Bose (4) Subhash Chandra Bose

100. Which latest satellite of INSAT series was launched in 2007?

(1) INSAT – 2B (2) INSAT-2C

(3) INSAT-3D (4) INSAT-4B

101. If difference between the ages of X and Y is 12 years and the ratio of their ages is 3 : 7, they what is the age of Y ?

(1) 4 years (2) 7 years

(3) 11 years (4) 21 years

102. 6.7 + 9(8-(2.6+1.5) + 12) = ?

(1) 13.6 (2) 31.6

(3) 143.1 (4) 149.8

103. The highest prize in literature of Indian government is

(1) Literature Prize (2) Lalit Kala Puraskar

(3) Dada Saheb Phalke Puraskar (4) Jnanpith Puraskar

104. The area of a circle whose radius is 3.5 cm. is

(1) 12.5 cm^{2 (2) 22.5 cm2}

(2) 28.5 cm2 (4) 38.5 cm2

105. A sum of Rs. 6300 was lent at 5% rate of interest for 9 years. The simple interest

will be

(1) Rs. 1840 (2) Rs. 1942

(3) Rs. 2742 (4) Rs. 2835

106. In the following the Belghar wild- life sanctuary is known for

(1) Crocodile (2) Elephants

(3) Tigers (4) None of these

107. International Gandhi Prize 2006 was given to

(1) Kofi Annan (2) Desmond Tutu

(3) Yohi Sasakava (4) Sunderial Bahuguna

108. The player of tournament of World Cup Cricket 2007 was

(1) Graeme Smith (2) Muttaih Muralitharan

(3) Rahul Dravid (4) Gelnn McGrath

109. If the compound interest on a certain sum for 2 years at the rate of 10% p.a. is Rs. 630, the sum is

(1) Rs. 1000 (2) Rs. 2000

(3) Rs. 3000 (4) Rs. 4000

110. The largest gland in human body to secrete bile is

(1) Gall bladder (2) Liver

(3) Skin (4) Pancreas

111. The deepest lake of Asia is

(1) Rengali (2) Pulicut

(3) Chilka (4) Baikal

112. Chalk : Lime : : Coal : ?

(1) Carbon (2) Fire

(3) Oven (4) Chimney

113. Oriss is a chief producer of

(1) Wheat (2) Cotton

(3) Pulse (4) Jute

114. Which of the following is known for Bali journey?

(1) Cuttak (2) Paradip

(3) Gopalpur (4) Jajpur

115. In how many years will the simple interest on Rs. 6900 at the rate of 4% per annum be Rs. 2484?

(1) 4 years (2) 7 years

(3) 9 years (4) 12 years

116. In Forbes list, the richest man in the world is

(1) L.N. Mittal (2) Bill Gates

(3) Queen Elizabeth (4) George Bush

117. Jayadev belonged to

(1) Kakinada (2) Machhalipatnam

(3) Vijaywada (4) Puri

118. The study of heredity is called

(1) Anatomy (2) Cytology

(3) Psychology (4) Genetics

119. The last matches of Afro- Asian cricket championship were held in

(1) India (2) Pakistan

(3) South Africa (4) Kenya

120. Who is the first Indian spaceman?

(1) Homi Bhabha (2) Rakesh Sharma

(3) Kalpana Chawla (4) Sunita Williams

121. Which city hosted the Arab league conference?

(1) Dubai (2) Muscat

(3) Riyadh (4) Doha

122. If STORMY is coded as QVMTKA, then WINTER will be coded as

(1) UGLRCO (2) UKLVCT

(3) XKNVDT (4) XKLCVO

123. Barabat fort is situated at

(1) Cuttak (2) Khurda

(3) Warangal (4) Ahmedabad

124. The Commonwealth Games- 2010 will be held in

(1) Colombo (2) Canberra

(3) New Delhi (4) Dhaka

125. The dimensions of a rectangular hall are 5m x 4m x 3m. A window occupies an area of 4m^{2 . Without window the area of walls is}

(1) 50m2 (2) 54m2

(3) 56m2 (4) 60m2

126. The nature of carbon dioxide is

(1) Inflammable (2) Smellless

(3) Yellowish (4) Sour

127. The largest store of bauxite has been found in the district of

(1) Nellore (2) Engule

(3) Vishakhapattnam (4) Tulcher

128. X starts for his office and walks 500m straight and turns left and walks 300m. he again turns left and walks 500m. he then turns right to walk 900m. How far is he from his office?

(1) 1000 m (2) 1000 m

(3) 1200 m (4) 1300 m

129. Which of the following is a non-metallic element?

(1) Mercury (2) Manganese

(3) Carbon (4) Gold

130. In respect of territorial area, the state of Andhra Pradesh is placed at

(1) Third (2) Fourth

(3) Fifth (4) Sixth

131. The recently discovered earthlike planet has been named ______ by the European scientists.

(1) NW 581C (2) EU 581C

(3) PL 581C (4) GL 581C

132. Karnam Malleswari is related to

(1) Weightlifting (2) Wrestling

(3) Shotput (4) Long jump 1 4

133. 300 men can do a work in 16 days. To do of the work in 15 days the number of men required is

(1) 80 (2) 75

(3) 60 (4) 45

134. The south- west monsoon starts during

(1) May- June (2) June- July

(3) July – August (4) August- September

135. The chairman of the Planning Commission in India is

(1) Dr. Manmohan Singh (2) Arjun Singh

(3) P. Chidambaram (4) Pranab Mukherjee

136. Salarjung museum is located in

(1) Hyderabad (2) Delhi

(3) Kolkata (4) Ahmedabad

137. The chief foodgrain crop of Andhra Pradesh is

(1) Ragi (2) Jowar

(3) Wheat (4) Rice

138. If DEADLY is coded as GHDGOB, then MOTIVE will be coded as

(1) OQVKXG (2) NPUJWF

(3) PRWLYH (4) QSXMZI

139. If A : B = 2 :1 and B :C = 6 : 5, then A : B : C =?

(1) 2 : 6 : 5 (2) 2 : 7 : 5

(3) 4 :10 : 7 (4) 12 : 6 : 5

140. The state with lowest area is

(1) Lakshadwip (2) Pudicherry

(3) Goa (4) Delhi

141. 47 kmph is equivalent to

(1) 10.03 m/s (2) 11.04 m/s

(3) 13.05 m/s (4) 14.06 m/s

142. Rocket is launched from

(1) Balasore (2) Sri Harikota

(3) Trombay (4) Siachen

143. Who is the President of Afghanistan?

(1) Pervez Musharraf (2) Hamid Karzai

(3) M. Ahmedinejad (4) M. Abbaas

144. The first novelist of Orissa is

(1) Faqir Mohan Senapti (2) Gopinath Mohanty

(3) Anant Patnaik (4) Manoj Das

145. A trader marks his goods at 20% higher than the cost price and then allows a discount of 10%. His gain per cent is

(1) 8% (2) 10%

(3) 12% (4) 14%

146. The outermost layer of earth’s atmosphere is

(1) Troposphere (2) Lithosphere

(3) Mesosphere (4) lonosphere

147. X, Y and Z can complete a work in 7, 14 and 28 days respectively. They together can complete the work in

(1) 4 days (2) 8 days

(3) 12 days (4) 16 days

148. A 140m long train is moving at 70 kmph. It will cross a man running at 4 kmph in the same direction of train in

(1) 4.63 seconds (2) 5.63 seconds

(3) 6.63 seconds (4) 7.63 seconds

149. 25m is what per cent of 7.5 km?

(1) 33% (2) 3.3%

(3) 0.33% (4) 0.03%

150. A tap can fill a tank in 8 minutes and an other tap can empty the tank in 16 minutes. If both the taps are opened together, the tank will be filled in

(1) 8 minutes (2) 16 minutes

(3) 20 minutes (4) 24 minutes 

ANSWERS

1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (3)
6. (3) 7. (3) 8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (4)
11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (2) 15. (3)
16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (4)
21. (4) 22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (3) 25. (1)
26. (4) 27. (2) 28. (1) 29. (3) 30. (3)
31. (4) 32. (3) 33. (3) 34. (2) 35. (2)
36. (2) 37. (4) 38. (3) 39. (2) 40. (4)
41. (1) 42. (3) 43. (4) 44. (3) 45. (3)
46. (3) 47. (1) 48. (2) 49. (2) 50. (3)
51. (1) 52. (2) 53. (2) 54. (2) 55. (1)
56. (4) 57. (4) 58. (4) 59. (4) 60. (1)
61. (1) 62. (3) 63. (4) 64. (3) 65. (3)
66. (2) 67. (4) 68. (3) 69. (1) 70. (3)
71. (1) 72. (4) 73. (4) 74. (3) 75. (2)
76. (2) 77. (3) 78. (3) 79. (4) 80. (2)
81. (3) 82. (3) 83. (2) 84. (3) 85. (2)
86. (3) 87. (1) 88. (4) 89. (2) 90. (4)
91. (4) 92. (4) 93. (1) 94. (2) 95. (4)
96. (1) 97. (2) 98. (3) 99. (1) 100. (4)
101. (4) 102. (4) 103. (4) 104. (4) 105. (4)
106. (2) 107. (3) 108. (4) 109. (3) 110. (2)
111. (4) 112. (1) 113. (4) 114. (4) 115. (3)
116. (2) 117. (4) 118. (4) 119. (4) 120. (2)
121. (3) 122. (2) 123. (1) 124. (3) 125. (1)
126. (4) 127. (1) 128. (3) 129. (3) 130. (3)
131. (4) 132. (1) 133. (1) 134. (1) 135. (1)
136. (1) 137. (4) 138. (3) 139. (4) 140. (1)
141. (3) 142. (2) 143. (2) 144. (2) 145. (1)
146. (4) 147. (1) 148. (4) 149. (3) 150. (1)

RRC GROUP-D MODEL QUESTIONS

1. The number of ways of expressing 175 as the product of two whole number is-
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

2. A man first sold 2/3 rd of his total quantity of rice and 100 kg. again he sold ½ of the remaining quantity and 100kg. if the total remaining quantity of the stock is 150kg. then what was the original stock of rice?
A. 2100 kg
B. 1800kg
C. 2400kg
D. 2000kg
3. In a box the number of rupees, half rupees and quarter rupees are in the ratio 3:4:5 and the total value of coins is Rs 100. Find the nimber of each kind of coin respectively-
A. 48,64,80
B. 48,60,70
C. 55,78,90
D. 44,68,80
4. In a series of equally increasing number the 1st one is 51 and the 7th one is 81. Find the intermediate numbers-
A. 56,61,66,71,76
B. 58,63,68,73,78
C. 54,59,63,67,71
D. 59,65,69,75,77
5. If 80 persons can finish the work within 16 days by working 6 hours a day then how many hours per day should 64 persons work to complete that very job within 15 days?
A. 7 hrs
B. 8 hrs
C. 6 hrs
D. 5 hrs
6. 0.1% of Rs 5000 is Rs………….
A. 50
B. 500
C. 5
D. 10
7. There is a rebate of 15% if electric bills are paid in time. A man got a rebate of Rs 54 by paying the bills in time. What was his electric bill in rupees?
A. 300
B. 350
C. 360.
D. 380
8. A train travels at a speed of 30 km per hr for 12 minutes and then for the next 8 minutes at a speed of 45 km per hour. What is the average speed of the journey?
A. 40km/hr
B. 36km/hr
C. 43km/hr
D. 46km/hr
9. Of six consecutive numbers the sum of first three is 27. What is the sum of next three?
A. 30
B. 40
C. 36
D. 45
10. Find the value of  (9+3)/3*2-(7-3*2)
A. 1
B. 7
C. 4
D. 0

11. Find the greatest number of 5 digits which is divisible by 7, 11, 13-
A. 99900
B. 99099
C. 99909
D. 99990

12. The present age of father is 34 years more than that of his son. Twelve years ago father’s age was 18 times the age of his son. What is the present age of the son in years?
A. 16
B. 14
C. 12
D. 18
13. On a certain day temperature and pressure of air increase. The the speed of sound in air-
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains same
D. At first increases and then decreases
14. What is rectified spirits?
A. A 1:2 mixture of water and ethyl alcohol
B. A mixture of 90% ethyl alcohol and 10% water
C. A mixture of 95% ethyl alcohol and 5 % water
D. A 2:1 mixture of water and ethyl alcohol
15. ‘Bihu’ is the festival of-
A. Manipur
B. Mizoram
C. Asom
D. Nagaland
16. NACO is an organisation dealing with-
A. Cancer
B. Child health care
C. AIDS
D. None of the above
17. With which game is the ‘double fault’ associated?
A. Lawn tennis
B. Football
C. Cricket
D. Hockey
18. The capital of Uttarpradesh is-
A. Allahabad
B. Benaras
C. Patna
D. Lucknow
19. The director of the film ‘ Netaji the forgotten Hero ‘ is-
A. Rituparna ghosh
B. Shyam Bengal
C. Mani ratnam
D. Aprna sen
20. By ‘Jhum’ is meant-
A. A folk dance
B. A type of farming
C. A tribe
D. A river basin

Answers :

1.B
2.B
3.A
4.A
5.B
6.C
7.C
8.B
9.C
10.B
11.B
12.B
13.A
14.C
15.C
16.C
17.A
18.D
19.B
20.B

RRC CHENNAI GROUP-D RECRUITMENT

RRC SOUTH EAST CENTRAL RAILWAY GROUP-D RECRUITMENT

Government of India
Ministry of Railways

South East Central Railway (SRCR)
Railway Recruitment Cell, Annex Building, General Manager’s office, Bilaspur – 495004 (Chhattisgarh)

Railway Recruitment Cell/ Bilaspur invites applications from citizens of India and such other candidates declared eligible by the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India to fill up the following posts in Pay Band-1 of Rs. 5200-20200 with Grade Pay of Rs. 1800/-

1. Porter : 456 posts
2. Helper-II (S&T, Mechanical Electrical & Civil Engineering) : 1542 posts
3. Helper-II (Stores & Workshops) : 220 posts
4. Trackman : 3145 posts
5. Safaiwala : 245 posts
6. Hamal : 113 posts
7. Peon/ Chowkidar : 77 posts

Age : 18-33 years as on 01/01/2011. Relaxation in age as per rules.

Qualification : Candidates should possess the qualification of 10th Pass or ITI or equivalent . Candidates appearing at and/or awaiting results of the final examinations of 10th/ITI or equivalent

Application Fee : Rs.40/- payable in a form of crossed Demand Draft from State Bank of India or from any other Nationalized Bank or crossed Indian Postal Order drawn in favour of Assistant Personnel Officer, Railway Recruitment Cell, South East Central Railway, Bilaspur - 495004, Chhattisgarh.

How to Apply : The filled in application form along with the required documents should be addressed to the Assistant Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell, Annex Building, General Manager’s office, South East Central Railway, Bilaspur– 495004, (Chhattisgarh State) on or before 14/02/2011.

Please visit http://www.secr.indianrailways.gov.in/secr/writereaddata/M000494.htm for details and application format.

RRC North Eastern Railway Group-D Recruitment

Government of India
Ministry of Railways

North Eastern Railway (NER)
Railway Recruitment Cell, CCM Annexe Building, Railway Road No. 14, Gorakhpur (UP) - 273012

Some Posts are exclusive reserved for PH candidates

Railway Recruitment Cell/ Allahabad invites applications from citizens of India and such other candidates declared eligible by the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India to fill up the following posts in Pay Band-1 of Rs. 5200-20200 with Grade Pay of Rs. 1800/-

1. Helper Khalasi : 128 posts
2. Coupling Khalais / L-C Porter/ Box Porter/ Khalasi / Shuntman : 572 posts
3. Gateman/ Helper - Trollyman : 34 posts
4. Hamal/ Khalasi : 1188 posts
5. Trackman/ Gangman : 1953 posts
6. Helper-II/ Peon/ Khalasi/ Helper : 687 poss
7. Safaiwala : 146 posts

Age : 18-33 years as on 01/01/2011. Relaxation in age as per rules.

Qualification : Candidates should possess the qualification of 10th Pass or ITI or equivalent .


Application Fee : Rs. 40/- payable in a form of crossed Demand Draft from State Bank of India or from any other Nationalized Bank or crossed Indian Postal Order drawn in favour of Asstt. Personnel Officer (Recruitment), RRC, N .E.Railway payable at Gorakhpur. (SC/ST/PH candidaes are exempted)


How to Apply : The filled in application form along with the required documents should be addressed to the on or before 12/02/2011.

Deputy Chief Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell, North Eastern Railway Headquarters, CCM’s Annexre Building, Railway Road No.14, Gorakkhpur, Uttar Pradesh -273012

Please click on the Recruitment section at http://www.ner.indianrailways.gov.in/ for details and application format.

RRC North Central Railway Group-D Recruitment

Government of India
Ministry of Railways

North Central Railway (NCR)
Railway Recruitment Cell, Civil Lines, Allahabad - 211001

Some Posts are exclusive reserved for PH candidates

Railway Recruitment Cell/ Allahabad invites applications from citizens of India and such other candidates declared eligible by the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India to fill up the following posts in Pay Band-1 of Rs. 5200-20200 with Grade Pay of Rs. 1800/-

1. Assistan Pointsman/ Gateman/ Porter/ Box Porter : 347 posts
2. Helper-II (Mech./ Elec.) : 121 posts
3. Helper-II (Signa & Telecom/ Elec./Civil/ CPOH/ Mech.) : 2287 posts
4. Helper-II (Elec. General) : 71 posts
5. Trackman : 1256 posts
6. Parcel Porter/ Safaiwala : 508 poss
7. Peon/ Office Khalasi : 102 posts

Age : 18-33 years as on 01/01/2011. Relaxation in age as per rules.

Qualification : Candidates should possess the qualification of 10th Pass or ITI or equivalent .


Application Fee : Rs.40/- payable in a form of crossed Demand Draft from State Bank of India or from any other Nationalized Bank or crossed Indian Postal Order drawn in favour of Assistant Personnel Officer, Railway Recruitment Cell, North Central Railway, Allahabad. (SC/ST/PH candidaes are exempted)



How to Apply : The filled in application form along with the required documents should be addressed to the Assistant Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell, North Central Railway, Nawab Yousuf Road, Civil Lines, Allahabad - 211001 on or before 18/02/2011.

Please visit http://www.ncr.indianrailways.gov.in/ncr/departments/Personal/recruitment.jsp for details and application format.

RRC Central Railway Group-D Recruitment

Government of India
Ministry of Railways
Central Railway (CR)
Railway Recruitment Cell, Chief Project Manager (Conv.)’s Office, 1st Floor, P.D. Mello Road, Wadi Bunder, Mumbai - 400010


Railway Recruitment Cell/ Central Railway, Mumbai invites applications from citizens of India and such other candidates declared eligible by the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India to fill up the following posts in Pay Band-1 of Rs. 5200-20200 with Grade Pay of Rs. 1800/-

• Trackman/ Porter/ Hamal/ Khalasis/ Safaiwalas/ Assistant Pointsman : 2022 posts, Age : 18-33 years as on 01/01/2011. Relaxation in age as per rules.

Qualification : Candidates should possess the qualification of 10th Pass or ITI or equivalent . Candidates appearing at and/or awaiting results of the final examinations of 10th/ITI or equivalent

Application Fee : Rs.40/- payable in a form of crossed Demand Draft from State Bank of India or from any other Nationalized Bank or crossed Indian Postal Order drawn in favour of Assistant Personnel Officer, Railway Recruitment Cell, Central Railway, Mumbai – 500071.


How to Apply : The filled in application form along with the required documents should be addressed to the Assistant Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell, , Central Railway, Chief Project Manager (Conv.)’s Office, 1st Floor, P.D.Mello Road, Wadi Bunder, Mumbai - 400010 on or before 15/02/2011. (Last date is 02/03/2011 for the candidates of far-flung areas)

Please view http://www.cr.indianrailways.gov.in/cr/cr/hq/administration/NotificationwithESM.doc for details and application format.

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT CELL, NORTH EASTERN RAILWAY GROUP-D RECRUITMENT

Railway Recruitment Cell RRC NER Recruitment 2010 Group D Posts North Eastern Railway Recruitment 2010 Notification 2010 Group D Jobs
RAILWAY RECRUITMENT CELL,

NORTH EASTERN RAILWAY

CCM Annexe Building, Railway Road No. 14.,

Gorakhpur (U.P.) - 273012

Emloyment Notice for filling up of Group 'D' Posts in North Eastern Railway and DLW/Varanasi

Employment Notice No: NER/RRC/D/2/2010

Date of issue 15.12.2010

Closing Date 12.02.2011

Closing Time 18.00 Hrs

Postal Address-Deputy Chief Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell, North Eastern Railway Headquarters, CCM’s Annexre Building, Railway Road No.14, Gorakkhpur, Uttar Pradesh- 273012.www.nerailway.gov.in

EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION:- Minimum 10th pass or ITI or equivalent. Those candidates who are appearing in and/or awaiting results of final examination of class 10th are not eligible. Academic qualification must be from recognized Educational Institution/Board, otherwise candidature will be rejected.

AGE LIMIT INCLUDING RELAXATION PROVISIONS:- 4.1 For all the above vacancies, the age limit will be 18 to 33 years and will be reckoned as on 01.01.2011. 4.2 The upper age limit will be relalxed as under, subject to the production of requisite certificates. (i) FIVE years for SC/ST and by THREE years for OBC candidatesin possession of valid certificates issued by appropriate authority as per Annexure- II. (ii) By Ten years (15 years for SC/STs and 13 years for OBCs) for persons with disability in possession of valid disability certificate issued by medical board duly constituted by the central or state government. (iii) Casual labourers or substitutes, if any, who have put in a minimum of THREE Years service will be given age relaxation to the extent of length of service rendered by them, subject to the age limit not exceeding 40,43 & 45years in case of General,OBC and SC/ ST candidates, respectively. (iv) In case of staff of Quasi Administrative Offices of Railway Organization such as Railway Canteens, Railway Institutes and Railway Cooperative societies who have put in 3 years service, relaxation of age will be given to the extent of service rendered by them subject to a maximum of 05 years and upper age limit of 35 yerars. (v) Widows and Divorced women who have judicially separated from their husbands and not remarried, will be given relaxation in age up to 35, 38 and 40 years in case of General, OBC and SC/ST candidates respectively. (vi) Relaxation of FIVE years will be given to the candidates who had ordinarily been domiciled in the Kashmir Division of the State of Jammu and Kashmir during the period from the Ist day of Jan, 80 to the 31st of December, 89, subject to production of a residential certificate from the appropriate authority of the State of Jammu and Kashmir. (vii) No age rellalxation is allowed to SC/ST/OBC candidates applying against unreserved posts.

For Application Form Download and complete details visit notification here

NORTHERN RAILWAY RAILWAY RECRUITMENT CELL GROUP-D NOTIFICATION DETAILS

FOR NORTHERN RAILWAY RAILWAY RECRUITMENT CELL GROUP-D NOTIFICATION DETAILS CLICK HERE

RRC EAST COAST RAILWAY GROUP-D RECRUITMENT

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT CELL, EAST COAST RAILWAY Office of the Chief Personnel Officer, 2nd Floor, South Block, ECoR Sadan, Samant Vihar, PO-Mancheswar, Bhubaneswar, Orissa - 751017. Employment Notice No. ECoR /RRC/D/2010
Date of issue: 17.12.2010 Closing Date: 17.02.2011, Closing Time: 17.00 Hrs.
(For residents of Andaman, Nicobar & Lakshadweep: Closing Date: 04.03.2011 Closing Time: 17.00 Hrs.)
Employment Notice for recruitment of staff in Pay Band-1 of Rs.5200-20200 having Grade Pay of
Rs.1800/- in East Coast Railway
IMPORTANT
Candidates to note that all the zonal railways are likely to issue separate notifications for recruitment to the posts. The Physical Efficiency Test (PET) will be held by all the railways during the same period
simultaneously. Similarly, the Written Examination for those who qualify in the PET will be held on
the same day simultaneously by all the zonal railways. Candidates should keep this in mind before
applying in response to any particular notification.
Detailed Notification
Applications are invited from the Citizens of India and from such other persons declared eligible by Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India for filling up posts in Pay Band-1 of Rs.5200-20200 having Grade Pay of Rs.1800/- in the Divisions and Workshop of East Coast Railway. Application in prescribed format in A-4 size may be sent by ordinary post addressed to the “Deputy Chief Personnel Officer(Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell, East Coast Railway Headquarters, Office of the Chief Personnel Officer, 2nd Floor, South Block, ECoR Sadan, Samant Vihar, PO-Mancheswar, Bhubaneswar, Orissa - 751017” upto 17.00 hrs. on the closing date 17.02.2011. Alternatively, application can also be dropped into the Application Drop Box available at the Railway Recruitment Cell, East Coast Railway Headquarters, 2nd Floor, South Block, ECoR Sadan, Samant Vihar, PO-Mancheswar, Bhubaneswar, Orissa - 751017 upto 17.00 hrs. on the closing date. The envelopes containing the application should be clearly superscribed “Application for recruitment against E. N. No.ECoR /RRC/D/2010”. Applications received after closing date and time
will not be entertained. For candidates belonging to Andaman & Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep, the last date for receiving application by post will be 04.03.2011. They should also mention on the bottom-left portion of the envelope their complete ‘from-address’ so that it is possible to receive their applications by ordinary post.Note: (i) Out of the total – 492 Helper-II vacancies, 152 vacancies are earmarked for Persons with
Disabilities (PWD) with the break-up of (a) VH-50 (Suitable for LV); (b) HH-51 (Suitable for HH); (c)
OH-51 (Suitable for OA, OL, BL, OAL).
(ii) The number of vacancies notified is provisional and liable to be increased or decreased by the competent authority. No consequential damage/loss or refund of fee will be made to the applicant on this account.
(iii) A candidate should submit only one application form, even if he / she intends to be considered for more than one or all categories of notified vacant posts.
(iv) There is no quota for ex-servicemen in the above vacancies.
(v) ABBREVIATIONS: RRC – Railway Recruitment Cell; SRE – Serving Railway Employees; ECoR – East Coast Railway; PET – Physical Efficiency Test; UR – Unreserved; SC – Scheduled Caste; ST – Scheduled Tribe; OBC – Other Backward Classes; VH – Visually Handicapped; HH – Hearing Handicapped; OH – Orthopaedically Handicapped. LV - Low Vision; OA – One Arm; OL – One Leg; BL – Both Legs; OAL – One Arm & One Leg.

3. MINIMUM EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION: Candidates must have passed 10th standard or ITI or equivalent from a recognized educational institution or Board. Candidate should possess requisite academic qualification on the date of submission of application. Those who are appearing at and/or awaiting results of final examination are not eligible.
4. AGE LIMITS, including RELAXATION PROVISIONS:
(i) The age limit will be minimum 18 years and maximum 33 years, and will be reckoned as on 01.01.2011.
(ii) The upper age limit will be relaxed as under subject to the production of requisite certificates in the
formats given in Annexures-I & II required for respective relaxations: [a] by FIVE Years for SC/ST and by THREE years for OBC candidates. [b] ‘Serving’ railway staff/casual labourers or substitutes with a minimum of 3 years of such service will be given age relaxation to the extent of length of service rendered by them, subject to the upper age limit not exceeding 40, 43, 45 years in case of General, OBC, SC/ST candidates respectively. [c] In case of staff of Quasi Administrative Offices of Railway Organisation such as Railway Canteens, Railway Institutes and Railway Cooperative societies who have put in 3 years service, relaxation of upper age will be given to the extent of service rendered by them subject to a maximum of 5 years subject to the upper age limit not exceeding 35 years. [d] For widows and divorced Women who are ‘judicially separated’ from their husband and not remarried, will be given relaxation in upper age limit up to 35, 38 and 40 in case of General, OBC and SC/ST candidates respectively. [e] For candidates who had ordinarily been
domiciled in the Kashmir Division of the State of Jammu and Kashmir during the period from the 1
st day of Jan. 1980 to the 31 st day of Dec. 1989, will be given relaxation in upper age limit by 5 years, subject to production of a residential certificate from the competent authority of the state of Jammu and Kashmir.
5. LIST OF AUTHORITIES EMPOWERED TO ISSUE CERTIFICATES OF VERIFICATION FOR
SC/ST/OBC STATUS:
(i) District magistrate / Additional district magistrate / District collector / Deputy Commisioner / Deputy Collector / First Class Stipendary Magistrate / City Magistrate / Sub-Divisional Magistrate / Taluka Magistrate / Executive Magistrate / Extra Assistant Commissioner (not below the rank of First Class Stipendary Magistrate).
(ii) Chief Presidency Magistrate / Additional Presidency Magistrate / Presidency Magistrate.
(iii) Revenue Officers not below the rank of Tehsildar.
(iv) Sub Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and/or his family originally resides.
(v) Administrator / Secretary to Administrator / Development Officer (Lakshadweep Islands)
6. PROOF OF AGE: The 10th standard or ITI or equivalent board certificate issued by a recognised Board / institution where the date of birth is mentioned.
7. SERVING EMPLOYEES: A candidate serving under the government or Public Sector
Enterprise/Undertaking, including Railways, may apply directly to RRC/ECoR with a “No Objection
Certificate” and a ‘Certificate of Service Details’ from the employer concerned.
8. EXAMINATION FEE:
(i) UR and OBC candidates should submit application fee for an amount of Rs.40/- in the form of Demand Draft / Pay Order from any Nationalized Bank, or crossed Indian Postal Order from any Post Office (issued on or after the date of this notification) drawn in favour of “Dy.Chief Personnel Officer(Recruitment), East Coast
Railway, Bhubaneswar” payable at Bhubaneswar. (i) Validity of Bank Draft / Pay Order / IPO should be for a minimum of six months.
(ii) Application received in cash /cheque / Central Recruitment Fee Stamps and Money Orders will not be accepted, and will render the application as rejected and amount forfeited.
(iii) Pay Orders/Bank Drafts/IPOs issued before the date of issue of this Employment Notice and after closing date will not be accepted and the application will be treated as rejected and amount forfeited.
(iv) The candidates are advised to write their name and postal address on the backside of the original Bank Draft / Pay Order / IPO and enclose it on the top of the application form.
(v) The details of Pay Orders/Bank Drafts/IPO for the examination fee should be written in the application form. Examination fee is not refundable under any circumstances including applications rejected.
(vi) SC/ST, ex-servicemen, physically challenged, women, minority candidates (Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists & Zorastrians [Parsis]) and candidates belonging to economically backward classes (whose family income is less than Rs.50,000/- per annum) need not pay this fee.
The following authorities are authorized to issue income certificate (in the office / letterhead) for the purpose of identifying economically backward classes:-
(a) District Magistrate or any other Revenue Officer upto the level of Tehsildar;
(b) Sitting Member of Parliament of Lok Sabha for persons of their own constituency;
(c) BPL Card or any other certificate issued by Central Government under a recognised poverty alleviation programme or Izzat MST issued by Railways;
(d) Union Minister may also recommend to any persons from anywhere in the country; (e) Sitting Member of Parliament of Rajya Sabha for persons of the district in which these MPs normally reside.
(vii) Minority candidates (Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists & Zorastrians [Parsis]), who claim waiver of examination fee, should furnish “self declaration” in the format given at Annexure-III along with the application. At the time of document verification, such candidates will be required to furnish “minority communities declaration” affidavit on non-judicial stamp paper that he/she belongs to any of the above minority community. If the affidavit is not produced during document verification, the candidature will be rejected.
9. SELECTION PROCEDURE:
(i) Selection will consist of Physical Efficiency Test (PET) and Written Examination. Only those who found fit in the PET will have to appear for a Written Examination. The Written examination can be attempted in languages English, Hindi and Urdu, Telugu and Oriya. There will be no interview. Final empanelment of the candidates for the required number of vacancies will be strictly on merit position obtained in the written examination duly following the community reservation rules for earmarked quotas specified in this notification and their passing the Medical Examination of the prescribed standard and document / certificate verification.
(ii) For PH candidates, there is no Physical Efficiency Test but they have to appear in Written Test along with other candidates. Only those who suffer from not less than 40% of relevant disability will be considered as PH candidates. They have to submit PH certificate issued by a competent authority i.e. a medical Board duly constituted by Central or State Government consisting of at least three members out of which at least one shall be a specialist in the particular field for assessing Locomotor / Cerebral/Visual/Hearing disability as the case may be.
(iii) RRC/ECoR reserves the right to conduct second stage written examination if required.
(iv) The marks obtained in the Written Exam will determine the ‘merit order’ of the candidates, whereas PET is of ‘qualifying’ in nature.
(v) Date, time and place of PET and Written Examination will be fixed based on administrative feasibility. No request for any change in time, date and centre of examination will be entertained on any account.
(vi) Physical Efficiency Test Standards: The candidate should be able to perform following
physical tasks: [a] for Male Candidates: Should be able to run for a distance of 1500 meters in 6
minutes in one chance. [b] for Female Candidates: Should be able to run for a distance of 400 meters in 3 minutes in one chance.
(vii) Written Exam Syllabus: Question paper for the written test shall be generally in conformity with the educational standard of 10th Class, consisting of multiple choice objective type questions, mainly aimed to assess general knowledge / general awareness / mathematics / general science / reasoning etc. Question paper shall be printed in five languages: Hindi, English, Urdu, Oriya and Telugu only.
Note: RRC/ECoR and Railway administration will not be liable / responsible for any loss / injury / damage, whether direct or consequential, suffered / incurred by any candidate during the selection, including PET. Candidates are advised to appear in PET in their own interest, therefore, to ensure that they are physically and otherwise fit to undertake the selection and observe due care to avoid injury / damage / loss to either themselves or others during the process of selection.
(viii) Medical Examination: The candidates in the zone of consideration after Written Examination will be subjected to Medical Examination of prescribed medical standard, and only those who qualify in the medical examination will be considered for empanelment subject to fulfillment of other condictions.
(ix) Date and venue of Physical Efficiency Test, Written examination, Medical Examination and Document Verification will be intimated by RRC/ECoR to eligible candidates by post. The RRC/ECoR at its discretion may hold additional written examination and/or Physical Efficiency Test or re-examination or cancel part or whole of the written examination and/or Physical Efficiency Test as the situation may warrant. Request for postponement of the Physical Efficiency Test, Written examination, Medical Examination and Document Verification and change of center/venue will not be entertained under any circumstances.
(x) The inclusion of a candidate in the select panel published by RRC/ECoR does not confer any right to the candidate for actual appointment by the concerned appointing authority. Final appointment will be subject to such selected candidate being found suitable after antecedent verification etc. by the appointing authority as per rules.
(xi) RRC/ECoR shall not be held responsible for any situation arising in case of any certificate / declaration submitted by the candidate being found false after verification at the time of actual appointment or later by the concerned authority.