RRB SOLVED PREVIOUS PAPER

1. A parabolic curve introduced between straight and a circular curve or between two branches of a compound curve for ease, comfort and safety of movement of trains on curve is called:
(a) Spur curve (b) Transition curve
(c) Summit curve (d) Valley curve
Ans : B
2. The staggered rails joints are usually provided on:
(a) Bridge (b) Curves (c) Branching (d) Tangents
Ans : B
3. The track capacity can be increased by:
(a) Faster movement of trains on the track
(b) By using more powerful engines
(c) All the above
(d) None of the above
Ans : C
4. The railway station at which a track line meets a main line is called:
(a) terminal station (b) flag station
(c) way side station (d) junction station
Ans : D
5. The limiting value of super elevation of board gauge in Indian Railways is:
(a) 16.50 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 10 cm
Ans : A
6. The chart used for recording the condition of track is known as:
(a) Rolling chart (b) Track chart
(c) Hallade chart (d) Vibro chart
Ans: C
7. The most common system of signaling in India is the …… system.
(a) automatic block (b) section clear system
(c) absolute block (d) pilot guard system
Ans : C
8. The feeder gauge …. is commonly used for feeding raw materials to big Government manufacturing concerns as well as to private factories such as steel plants, oil refineries, sugar factories etc.
(a) 0.6096 m (b) 0.792 m (c) 1m (d) 1.676 m
Ans : A
9. Which one of the following bolts is not used in rail track:
(a) Fang bolt (b) Eye bolt (c) Rag bolt (d) Fish bolt
Ans : B
10. The gradient which requires one or more additional locomotive for hauling the load over the gradient is called:
(a) Up-gradient (b) Pusher gradient
(c) Steep gradient (d) Momentum gradient
Ans : B
11. Points and crossings are provided for change of ….on permanent ways.
(a) gauge (b) direction and gradient
(c) direction (d) gradient
Ans : C
12. In locomotive ‘hunting’ is:
(a) Movement of locomotive in vertical plane perpendicular to its movement along the track
(b) Sinuous path taken by engine as against the alignment of the track
(c) Motion after brakes have been applied
(d) Combination of A and B above
Ans : D
13. The rails which get battered due to action of wheels over the end of the rails are called:
(a) Hogged rails (b) Roaring rails
(c) Creep rails (d) Bucking rails
Ans : A
14. In broad gauge, the clear horizontal distance between the inner faces of two parallel rails forming the track is:
(a) 1 m (b) 1.676 m (c) 0.6096 m (d) 0.792 m
Ans : B
15. As per Indian standard, the recommended width of ballast section at foot level of rails for broad gauge tracks should be:
(a) 4.38 m (b) 3.35 m (c) 1.83 m (d) 2.25 m
Ans : B
16. The minimum length of a passenger platform for broad gauge railway should not be less than:
(a) 305 m (b) 183 m (c) 495 m (d) 250 m
Ans : A
17. Generally the shape of fish plate is:
(a) elliptical (b) bone shaped (c) circular (d) rectangular
Ans : B
18. For wooden sleepers, size of the ballast should be:
(a) 2.54 cm (b) 10.16 cm (c) 3.8 cm (d) 5.1 cm
Ans : C
69. The length of track under the control of a Ganger is:
(a) 10 to 15 Km (b) 5 to 6 KM
(c) 3 to 5 KM (d) 1 to 2 KM
Ans : B
20. The maximum rising gradient which is provided keeping the power of locomotive in view, is called
(a) Momentum gradient (b) Pusher gradient
(c) Down gradient (d) Ruling gradient
Ans : D
21. The latest system of signaling introduced is:
(a) C.T.C. system (b) pilot guard system
(c) section clear system (d) automatic block system
Ans : A
22. Detonating signals are used:
(a) for noisy engines
(b) during foggy and cloudy weather
(c) for deaf drivers
(d) not now, were in use in nineteenth century only
Ans : B
23. The number of fish bolts used for joining the rails with the help of fish plates, is generally:
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 6
Ans : A
24. The Railways provided underground at a depth of about 18 m or more are called:
(a) Mono railway (b) Underground railway
(c) Railway (d) Tube railway
Ans : D
25. The art of providing an outward slope of …. to the treads of wheels of rolling stock is known as coning of wheels.
(a) 1 in 30 (b) 1 in 10 (c) 1 in 4 (d) 1 in 20
Ans : D
26. The process of connecting a track length by an electric circuit is known as track circuiting and the sleepers which are suitable for it are:
(a) cast iron sleepers (b) steel sleepers
(c) wooden sleepers (d) all above are suitable
Ans : C
27. The movable tapered end of the tongue rail is known as:
(a) heel of switch (b) toe of switch
(c) stretcher bar (d) throw of switch
Ans : B
28. The yard where trains and other loads are received, sorted out, trains formed and dispatched onwards are known as:
(a) locomotive yard (b) goods yard
(c) marshalling yard (d) station yard
Ans : C
29. Wider gauge permits:
(a) sleeper gradients (b) low axle load
(c) higher operating speeds (d) sharp curves
Ans : C
30. Which one of the following is expected to have shorter life?
(a) Steam engine (b) Diesel engine
(c) Electric engine (d) Shunting engine
And : B
31. The movable end of the tapered rail, by means of which the flanged wheels of the train are diverted from one track to another is known as:
(a) Toe (b) Stud (c) Heel (d) Flare
Ans : A
32. The creep in rails is measured in:
(a) cm/kg (b) cm (c) Kg/cm (d) kg cm
Ans : B
33. When a rail loses its weight by 5%, it should be renewed and the old one can be used on unimportant tracks, but the rails which have lost their weight by more than …., should not be used on any track under any circumstances.
(a) 8% (b) 33.3% (c) 10% (d) 20%
Ans : C
34. In railways, super elevation is provided to:
(a) facilitate drainage
(b) counteract the centrifugal push
(c) counteract the centripetal pull
(d) have all the effects mentioned above
Ans : B
35. The additional track connected to main line at both of its ends is called:
(a) running line (b) loop line
(c) main line (d) none are correct
Ans : B
36. The rails which help in channelising the wheels in their proper routes are known as:
(a) Guard rails (b) Wing rails? (c) Check rails (d) Lead rails
Ans : B
37. The shape of wheels of rolling stock is:
(a) Tapered with flange on outside
(b) Parallel with flange on inside
(c) Tapered with flange on inside
(d) Parallel with flange on outside
Ans : C
38. The maximum gradient for broad gauge in station yards in Indian Railways is:
(a) 1 in 100 (b) 1 in 1000 (c) 1in 200 (d) 1 in 400
Ans : D
39. The force which resists the forward movement and speed of train is called:
(a) Track modulus (b) Hauling resistance
(c) friction (d) Tractive resistance
Ans : D
4. The tractive resistance of the route in railways as compared to roadways will be:
(a) same (b) more (c) low (d) not comparable
Ans : C
41. Sand is used as ballast incase of:
(a) steel sleepers
(b) wooden sleepers
(c) reinforced concrete sleepers
(d) cast iron sleepers
Ans : D
42. Arm type fixed signals, fitted on a vertical post fixed at the side of a track, are called:
(a) Warner signals (b) Starter signals
(c) Semaphore signals (d) Cab signals
Ans : C
43. The Railway provided just below the ground level are called:
(a) Tube railway (b) Underground railway
(c) Mono railway (d) Railway
Ans : B
44. When a railway line crosses a valley, a ridge like structure consisting of a series of piers, piles or trestles on which steel girders are placed and which is constructed usually for small spans is known as:
(a) Bridge (b) Tunnel (c) Viaduct (d) Aqueduct
Ans : C
45. Creeping of rails will be reduced by using:
(a) Bearing plates (b) Spikes (c) Chairs (d) Anchors
Ans : D
46. The railway track from which a train is to be diverted is called:
(a) branch track (b) points and crossing
(c) main or through track (d) all above
Ans : C
47. An expansion gap of …. is usually kept between the adjoining rail ends to allow for expansion of rail, due to variation in temperature.
(a) 1 to 3 mm (b) 10 to 15 mm
(c) 6 to 8 mm (d) 3 to 5 mm
Ans : C
48. Generally the weight/metre of the rails used in broad gauge is:
(a) 55 kg (b) 45 kg (c) 35 kg (d) 65 kg
Ans : A
49. A dynamometer car is used for:
(a) Tourists (b) Dinning facilities
(c) Inspection of administrative officers
(d) Recording the condition of track
Ans : D
50. Which of the following is not a part of rail engine?
(a) Tender (b) Stream turbine (c) Boiler (d) Fire box
Ans : B

RRB ASM SOLVED PAPER 2009

1. The Buland Darwaja is related to
(1) Shershah

(2) Babur

(3) Akbar

(4) Jehangir

Ans. (3)

2. The Military Games were held in Hyderabad from October 17, 2007 to October 27, 2007.Which country won the highest number of medals?

(1) China

(2) Russia

(3) India

(4) Japan

Ans. (2)

3. The Railways gets the maximum income from

(1) Goods freight

(2) Passenger’s fares

(3) Advertisement

(4) None of these

Ans. (1)

4. What is sound?

(1) Energy

(2) Heat

(3) Magnet

(4) Ray

Ans. (1)

5. The chief source of heat energy is

(1) Sun light

(2) Biogas

(3) Electricity

(4) Natural gas

Ans. (1)

6. The Aravalli hills are located in

(1) Madhya Pradesh

(2) Rajasthan

(3) Assam

(4) Jharkhand

Ans. (2)

7. A plant can be disease resistant due to

(1) Pesticides

(2) Virus

(3) Fungi

(4) Bacteria

Ans. (1)

8. Which of the following Chief Ministers served for the longest tenure?

(1) Lalu Prasad

(2) Jyoti Basu

(3) Ms. Mayawati

(4) M. Karunanidhi

Ans. (2)

9. Which of the following straits separates Europe from Africa?

(1) Berring

(2) Dobar

(3) Gibralter

(4) Mulucca

Ans. (3)

10. The UN Climate Change conference was organized in Bali from December 3, 2007 to December 14, 2007 for 12 days in which 1000 people participated .Bali is situated in

(1) Indonesia

(2) Malaysia

(3) Morocco

(4) China

Ans. (1)

11. The description of caste system is found in

(1) Rig Veda

(2) Sam Veda

(3) Yajurva Veda

(4) Atharva Veda

Ans. (1)

12. Who is called the Akbar of Kashmir?

(1) Janulabeddin

(2) Sikandar

(3) Queen Didda

(4) Emperor Sangram Singh

Ans. (1)

13. The Border Road Organization comes under

(1) Defense

(2) Urban Development

(3) Corporate sector

(4) Private sector

Ans. (1)

14. Which of the following corporations was started first by the Government of India?

(1) Damodar Valley Corporation

(2) National Thermal Power Corporation

(3) National Hydel Power Corporation

(4) All the above

Ans. (1)

15. Which of the following is not a part of three gems of the Buddhism?

(1) Buddha

(2) Sangha

(3) Dhamma

(4) Ahimsa

Ans. (4)

16. Who was the first Indian to reach Antarctica?

(1) Rakesh Sharma

(2) G.S. Sirohi

(3) B.K. Dutta

(4) K. Karuna Nautial

Ans. (2)

17. A saturated solution at S.T.P. is

(1) Colorless

(2) Green

(3) Red

(4) Red and green

Ans. (1)

18. The pure element in the following is

(1) Glass

(2) Diamond

(3) Lime

(4) Salt

Ans. (2)

19. What is gypsum?

(1) Lime

(2) Bleaching powder

(3) Blue vitriol

(4) Ammonium chloride powder

Ans. (3)

20. Bones of horses of Harappan civilization were found at

(1) Lothal

(2) Harappa

(3) Surkotada

(4) Mohanjodero

Ans. (3)

21. What is Ag-mark?

(1) Technique to increase agricultural productivity

(2) Green Revolution

(3) Test of purity in the production of vegetable oil etc.

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

22. Who has taken the highest number of wickets in Test Cricket?

(11) Muttiah Muralitharan

(2) Shane Warne

(3) Anil Kumble

(4) Shoaib Akhtar

Ans. (1)

23. In 1947, 532 princely states were annexed to India except three. Which of the following was not among the three princely states?

(1) Junagarha

(2) Bhavnagar

(3) Hyderabad

(4) Kashmir

Ans. (4)

24. Which of the following gases is used to prepare Ammonia gas?

(1) Nitrogen and oxygen

(2) Nitrogen and oxide

(3) Nitrogen and hydrogen

(4) Nitrogen and carbon

Ans. (3)

25. In which of the following states of India, per capita income is highest?

(1) Orissa

(2) Assam

(3) Manipur

(4) Kerala

Ans. (4)

26. By import of — the inflation has been caused in India?

(1) Wheat

(2) Rice

(3) Sugar

(4) Petroleum

Ans. (4)

27. The meeting of Commonwealth Nations was held in Uganda on November 25, 2007. Who was elected its General Secretary?

(1) Mahesh Sharma

(2) Kamlesh Sharma

(3) Bimalesh Sharma

(4) Kailash Sharma

Ans. (2)

28. In which country the Hindu temples were razed to the ground in

December, 2007?

(1) Indonesia

(2) Malaysia

(3) Mauritius

(4) Afghanistan

Ans. (2)


Directions (29 — 33) : Read the following passage carefully and then answer the following questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage by choosing the best answer to each question out of given four options.

On hearing the news of the massacre at Jallianwala Bagh, Udham Singh did not attend his school but took a train to Armritsar and visited the spot. There, he stood for several minutes in a trance, picked up the soil, rubbed it on his forehead and put some in a phial. He fasted that night. According to his family members he placed fresh flowers on the holy dust every morning, drawing inspiration from it. One early morning he went to the river Ravi and pledged that he would Colour its waters with the colour of his blood, to create what he called the freedom’s flood. With this aim in view in 1921, he first landed in Africa. From there he went to America to meet the Indian revolutionaries working for the liberation of the motherland.

In 1923, he landed in England. In 1928, he returned to India in response to an urgent call from Bhagat Singh. When he reached Lahore, he was detained for violation of the Arms Act. He was released after four years rigorous imprisonment. In 1935, he escaped to Germany by giving a slip to the police. From Berlin, he reached Paris and purchased a revolver. He kept it ready for action and managed to reach London again. Opportunity came on March 13, 1940 when Sir Michael O’ Dwyer was to speak at a seminar in the Caxton Hall. As Sir Michael turned to resume his seat after the speech. Udham Singh pulled out his revolver and fired at him, Sir Michael died without a shriek. Udham

Singh was arrested and produced before the court on April 2, 1940. The court passed death sentence on him and he was hanged at Pentonville Prison, London on July 3, 1940.

29. Udham Singh went to America where he

(1) mobilized the Indian citizens for the liberation of the motherland

(2) collected sufficient funds to fight colonialism

(3) met fellow citizens working for the same cause

(4) went sight-seeing

Ans. (3)

30. Where did Udham Singh buy the weapon which was used for killing Sir Michael?

(1) Paris

(2) Lahore

(3) London

(4) Berlin

Ans. (1)

31. Udham Singh shot at Sir Michael O’Dwyer in

(1) Jallianwala Bagh

(2) Armritsar

(3) London

(4) Paris

Ans. (3)

32. When Udham Singh was arrest ed in Lahore, he was charged for

(1) instigating his countrymen against the Englishmen

(2) his links with anti-British forces

(3) concealing his identity and carrying on underground activities

(4) possessing unlicensed arms and ammunition

Ans. (4)

33. Udham Singh returned to India in 1928 mainly because he was:

(1) short of funds to meet his expenses

(2) to produce some arms from Lahore

(3) to escape from the British police

(4) called by a revolutionary in India

Ans. (4)

34. In the following question a word has been spelt in four different ways one of which is correct. Choose the correctly spelt word:

(1) Assemblage

(2) Asemblage

(3) Assemmblage

(4) Accemblage

Ans. (1)

35. In the following sentence, fill in the blank by choosing correct option from the given alternatives

The documents are available ? inspection.

(1) of

(2) about

(3) with

(4) for

Ans. (4)

36. In the following question, choose the Adjective.

(1) Preference

(2) Gifted

(3) Genius

(4) In vain

Ans. (2)

37. Write the synonym of the word ‘Consummate’.

(1) Novice

(2) Ambiguous

(3) Perfect

(4) Imperfect

Ans. (3)

38. Find out, which part of the following sentence has a grammatical or idiomatic error in it.

They have

(1)/held the championship

(2)/ since the past

(3)/ two years.

(4)

Ans. (3)

39. In the following question, a word has been spelt in four different ways, one of which is correct. Choose the correctly spelt word.

(1) demmurage

(2) demurrage

(3) demarrage

(4) demurage

Ans. (2)

40. In the following question, an idiomatic expression and its four possible meanings are given. Find out the correct meaning of the idiomatic expression and choose your correct answer from the given four choices:

Play one’s cards well

(1) A good gambler displaying skills

(2) A magician showing magic of cards

(3) Use means effectively

(4) A game of gamble

Ans. (3)

41. Out of the four alternatives, choose the one that can he substituted for .the given words/ phrase and mark it as your answer.

A cock and bull story

(1) An unbelievable gossip

(2) A children’s fable

(3) A quarrelsome dialogue

(4) A competition between un equal people

Ans. (1)

42. Choose the part of the following sentence containing error and mark it as your answer:

The number of orders(1). /

for that item have(2). /

increased greatly; several of them(3). /

have come from Egypt(4).

Ans. (2)

43. Identify the part of the following sentence containing an error and choose it as your answer.

In America(1)/

Presidential elections(2) /

is held every four years(3)

No error(4)

Ans. (3)

44. In the following sentence, fill in the blank by choosing correct option from the given alternatives:

‘Ram has annoyed his boss. He ? have to leave the job.

(1) might

(2) will

(3) ought to

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

45. In the following question, three words having different meanings of a certain word are given. Select that word from the answer choices marked (1), (2), (3) and (4).

Witness, Observer; Onlooker

(1) spectator

(2) present

(3) biased

(4) careful

Ans. (1)

46. For the following word written in capital letters, four words are listed below as (1),

(2) (3) and (4). Out of these, choose the word nearest in meaning to it as your answer:

VINDICATE

(1) approve

(2) justify

(3) express

(4) exonerate

Ans. (2)

47. In the following sentence, the bold part contains an error. Answer choice (1) repeats the original, other three are 1ifferent. If you think that the original sentence displays the best way of wording the bold part, choose your answer (1): otherwise select the best alternative from the other three choices.

“Parents and teachers are be coming increasingly concerned about protecting children and the drugs which are available to them, and several parent teacher organizations, dedicated to educating children about the dangers of drug addiction, have recently been formed.”

(1) protecting children and the drugs which are available to them

(2) protecting of children and the drugs which are available to them

(3) protecting children from the drugs available to them

(4) protecting children from the drugs availability to them

Ans. (3)

48. From the given four answer choices, select the answer that gives the clearest, most exact sentence, but do not change the meaning Of the bold part of original sentence.

Such people never have and never will be trusted.

(1) never have and never will be trusted

(2) never have and will be trust ed

(3) never have been trusted and never will be trusted

(4) never have and anyone trust them and never will have anyone

Ans. (3)

49. Which one of the following statements is untrue?

(1) The sea-floor is older than the land

(2) The first rocks were formed as a result of the cooling o. molten matter

(3) Sedimentary rocks are also called aqueous rocks because they were formed by

the agency of water

(4) Stalactites and stalagmites are deposits of lime found in caves

Ans. (3)

50. The main hydro electric power potential of the Indus river system lies in India and not in Pakistan because:

(1) the need for hydro-electric power is greater in India than in Pakistan

(2) India has superior technology to develop hydro—electric power

(3) India has a greater labour force to develop hydro electric power

(4) The mountain stages of these rivers lie in India

Ans. (4)

51. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List-I List-II

(a) Cotton 1. Madhya Pradesh

(b) Gram 2.Gujarat

(c) Black Pepper 3. West Bengal

(d) Pine apple 4. Kerala

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 2 1 3 4

(3) 1 2 4 3

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (1)

52. In the production of tidal energy the maximum potential exists at:

(1) Bhavnagar

(2) Digboi

(3) Cochin

(4) Ladakh

Ans. (1)

53. The National Highway system is the responsibility of

(1) State governments

(2) Central governments

(3) Central and State governments

(4) Local body governments

Ans. (3)

54. Supersonic jets cause pollution by thinning of

(1) Sulphur dioxide layer

(2) Carbon dioxide layer

(3) Ozone layer

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

55. Which one of the following is commonly called Edible sponge mushroom’?

(1) Sargassum

(2) Morchella

(3) Agaricus

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

56. Which of the following is not an essential function of the skin in the human body?

(1) protects the internal or of the body

(2) acts as a sensory organ

(3) regulates the temperature of the body

(4) gives shape to the body

Ans. (4)

57. The device used for converting alternating current to direct current is called

(1) Inverter

(2) Rectifier

(3) Transmitter

(4) Transformer

Ans. (2)

58. Water is used in hot water bottles because:

(1) it is easily obtained in pure form

(2) it has high specific heat

(3) it is cheaper and not harmful

(4) it is easy to heat water

Ans. (2)

59. Mention the ray which appears to originate outside the earth.

(1) cosmic ray

(2) the ultra-violet ray

(3) the alpha ray

(4) the beta ray

Ans. (1)

60. A person cannot see objects clearly which are nearer than 75 cms from his eyes. What disease is he suffering from?

(1) Astigmatism

(2) Colour-blindness

(3) Myopia

(4) Hypermetropia

Ans. (4)

61. Oil rises up to wick in a lamp because

(1) oil is volatile

(2) oil is very light

(3) of the surface tension phenomenon

(4) of the diffusion of oil through the wick

Ans. (3)

62. Following Railway Training Institutes have been indicated with the cities where they are located. Find out which is wrongly matched.

(1) Railway Staff College — Vadodara

(2) Indian Railway Institute of Civil Engineering — Pune

(3) Indian Railway Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering —Jamalpur

(4) Indian Railway Institute Signal and Tele Communication Engineering — Mumbai

Ans. (4)

63. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given four options:

List -I List-II

(Zonal Railway) (Head Quarter)

(a) North Central Railway 1. Bilaspur

(b) South-East Central Railway 2. Allahabad

(c) West Central Railway 3. Jabalpur

(d) East Coast Railway 4. Bhubaneshwar

Code.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 3 4

(2) 1 2 3 4

(3) 2 3 4 1

(4) 4 1 3 2

Ans. (1)

64. In Indian Railways Network, approximately how many passenger service vehicles (passenger coaches) are working?

(1) 44,100

(2) 33.000

(3) 49,000

(4) 54,000

Ans. (2)

65. Who is the principal head of the Department of a Station Master in Zonal Railway Head Quarter Office?

(1) Chief Commercial Manager

(2) Chief Safety Officer

(3) Chief Personnel Officer

(4) Chief Operations Manager

Ans. (4)

66. Two new zones named North Western Railway and East Central Railway become functional/ operational from?

(1) October 1, 2002

(2) April 1, 2002

(3) April 1, 2003

(4) October 1, 2003

Ans. (1)

67. In one of the following State, though the Konkan Railway line does not pass through it, yet it has capital share in the K.R. Corporation. Name the State.

(1) Karnataka

(2) Goa

(3) Tamil Nadu

(4) Kerala

Ans. (3)

68. All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the Vice- President of India are decided by the

(1) High Court of a State

(2) Chief Election Commissioner

(3) Supreme Court of India

(4) President of India

Ans. (3)

69. Consider the following functionaries

1. Union Cabinet Secretary

2. Chief Election Commissioner

3. Union Cabinet Ministers

4. Chief Justice of India

Their correct sequence, in the order of precedence is

(1) 3, 4, 2, 1

(2) 4, 3, 1, 2

(3) 4, 3, 2, 1

(4) 3. 4, 1, 2

Ans. (3)

70. The basic structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that

(1) Certain features of the Constitution are so essential to it that they cannot be abrogated

(2) Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged or taken away

(3) The Constitution cannot be amended except in accordance with the procedure prescribed in Article 368

(4) The Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended

Ans. (1)

71. Which of the following enjoys the constitutional status?

1. Finance Commission

2. Planning Commission

3. Zonal Council

4. National Development Council

5. Election Commission

6. University Grants Commission

(1) 1, 3 and 5

(2) l and 5

(3) 1, 2, 5 and 6

(4) 1, 3, 5 and 6

Ans. (2)

72. The ultimate responsibility of taking due action on the comments of the Comptroller and Auditor General vests with

(1) President of India

(2) Supreme Court of India

(3) Parliament of India

(4) National Development Council

Ans. (1)

73. Mohit said to Neelam, “Your only brother’s son is my wife’s brother.” How is Neelam related to the wife of Mohit?

(1) aunt

(2) mother-in-law

(3) sister

(4) cannot be determined

Ans. (1)

74. A tourist drives 10 km towards East and turns to right hand side and takes a drive of another 3 km. He then drives towards West (turning to his right) another 3 km. He then turns to his left and walks another 2 km. Afterwards, he turns to his right and travels 7 km. How far is he from his starting point and in which direction?

(1) 10 km—East

(2) 9 km— North

(3) 8 km— West

(4) 5 km—South

Ans. (4)

75. The question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. Decide the ‘Strong’ and ‘Weak’ arguments and give answer out of four given options ‘1’, ‘2’, ‘3’ and ‘4’

Question:

Should all the professional colleges in India be encouraged to run their own courses without affiliation to any university?

Arguments:

(I) Yes, this is the only way to create more opportunities for those who seek professional training.

(II) No, this will dilute the quality of professional training as all such colleges may not be equipped to conduct such courses.

(1) Only argument I is strong

(2) Only argument II is strong

(3) Both I and II are strong

(4) Neither I nor II is strong

Ans. (2)

76. Statement: “Please do not wait for me; I may be late, start taking lunch as soon as the guests arrive.” — a message from a director of a company to his office managers.-

Assumptions:

I. Keeping guests waiting is not desirable.

II. Lunch may not be ready in time.

Consider the above statement and two assumptions to decide as to which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Choose the correct answer from the given options 1, 2, 3 and 4.

(1) Only assumption I is implicit

(2) Only assumption II is implicit

(3) Both I and II are implicit

(4) Neither I nor II is implicit

Ans. (1)

77. How many Asian countries are there in Common wealth?

(1) 49

(2) 51

(3) 54

(4) 57

Ans. (3)

78. Khan Abdul Gaffer Khan’s which action; performed in favour of Indian independence, but was against the English men?

(1) Formation of Lal-Kurti sena

(2) Assassination of an Englishman

(3) Trade of red shirts

(4) Demand for Pakhtunistan

Ans. (1)

79. On selling an article for Rs. 270 there is a gain of 12.5%. What

is its cost price?

(1) Rs. 240

(2) Rs. 220

(3) Rs. 210

(4) Rs. 250

Ans. (1)

80. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1: 2: 3. The greatest angle will be

(1) 60°

(2) 30°

(3) 90°

(4) 75°

Ans. (3)

81. The compound interest on Rs. 2500 at the rate of 6% p.a. after 2 years will be

(1) Rs. 309

(2) Rs. 318

(3) Rs. 320

(4) None of these

Ans. (1)

82. (999)2 – (998)22=?

(1) 1995

(2) 1998

(3) 1997

(4) 1992

Ans. (3)

83. A man covers a distance of 6 km at the rate 4 kmph and other 4 km at 3 kmph. His average speed is

(1) 9&13/7 kmph

(2) 3&9/17 kmph

(3) 5&9/17 kmph

(4) 3 & 5/9 kmph

Ans. (2)

84. The cost price of an article is Rs. 7840. To gain 7%, the article should be sold at

(1) Rs. 8388.80

(2) Rs. 8000

(3) Rs. 8383.80

(4) Rs. 8833.80

Ans. (1)

85. Two pipes can fill a tank in 10 minutes and 30 minutes respectively and a third pipe can empty the full tank in 20 minutes. If all the three pipes are opened simultaneously, the tank will be

(1) 10 minutes

(2) 8 minutes

(3) 7 minutes

(4) None of these

Ans. (4)

86.(4*4*4+3*3*3)/13 =

(1) 7

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4

Ans. (1)

87. (6.25) 4÷ (6.25)3 =?

(1) 6.25

(2) 6.025

(3) 6.0025

(4) 6.002

Ans. (1)

88. The ratio between the ages of Ram and Mohan is 4:5 and that between Mohan and Anil is 5:6. If sum of the ages of three be 90 years, how old is Mohan?

(1) 24 years

(2) 20 years

(3) 30 years

(4) 25 years

Ans. (3)

89. The per cent of 2 /45 is?

(1) 3&4/9 %

(2) 4&4/9 %

(3) 4 %

(4) 9 %

Ans. (2)

90. If a x=b;b y=c and cz =a , then xyz =?

(1) 1

(2) -1

(3) 2

(4) 2

Ans. (1)

91. Match the name of countries in List-I with years of beginning of railways in List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List -I List—II

(Countries) (Year of beginning of railways)

(a) Britain 1. 1853

(b) America 2. 1829

(c) India 3. 1825

(d) France 4. 1830

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 4 1 3 2

(3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (3)

92. The length of Indian rails is

(1) More than 5000 km

(2) More than 5630 km

(3) More than 6000 km

(4) More than 6531 km

Ans. (4)

93. Match the items of List-I with List-II and select the-correct answer by using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Largest Population) (States)

(a) Jains 1. Nagaland

(b) Buddhas 2. Rajasthan

(c) Christians 3. Maharashtra

(d) Muslims 4. Lakshadwip

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 2 3 1 4

(3) 1 2 4 3

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (2)

94. The capital of the king of Punjab Ranjit Singh was

(1) Lahore

(2) Ludhiana

(3) Mathura

(4) Sri Nagar

Ans. (1)

95. Photosynthesis does not take place in

(1) plants

(2) fungi

(3) bacteria

(4) virus

Ans. (4)

96. In nucleuic protein, Uceriotic chromosomes are alike in

(1) prophase

(2) Metaphase

(3) Anaphase -

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

97. Which type of protein is found in virus?

(1) Lyco protein

(2) Secondary protein

(3) Primary protein

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

98. In ionic solid, the velocity of electricity is

(1) fast

(2) weak

(3) less than solid

(4) less than gas

Ans. (1)

99. The largest phase in cell division is

(1) Liptotin

(2) Zagotin

(3) Pacotin

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

RRB GOODS GUARD EXAM 2011 SOLVED PAPER

GENERAL INTELLIGENCE / REASONING

1. Which of the following is the same as Count, List, Weigh?
(a) Compare
(b) Sequence
(c) Number
(d) Measure
Ans : ( c ) Number
2. Which of the following is the same as Steel, Bronze, Brass ?
(a) Calcite
(b) Methane
(c) Zinc
(d) Coal
Ans : ( c ) Zinc
3. Which of the following is the same as Flood, Fire,Cyclone ?
(a) Damage
(b) Earthquake
(c) Rain
(d) Accident
Ans : ( b ) Earthquake
4. Which of the following is the same as Jute, Cotton,Wool ?
(a) Terylene
(b) Rayon
(c) Silk
(d) Nylon
Ans : ( c ) Silk
5. Which of the following is the same as Liver, Heart,Kidney ?
(a) Lung
(b) Blood
(c) Nose
(d) Urine
Ans : ( a ) Lung
Directions (Qs. 6-10) : Find the odd one out in the following questions :
6. (a) Physics
(b) Chemistry
(c) Biology
(d) Geography
Ans : ( d ) Geography
7. (a) Haldighati
(b) Sarnath
(c) Panipat
(d) Kurukshetra
Ans : ( b ) Sarnath
8. (a) December
(b) July
(c) September
(d) March
Ans : ( c ) September
9. (a) Park
(b) Bus-stand
(c) Dock
(d) Platform
Ans : ( a ) Park
10. (a) Needle
(b) Stick
(c) Thorn
(d) Pin
Ans : ( b ) Stick
11. A man is performing yoga with his head down and legs up. His face is towards the west. In which direction will his left hand be?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
Ans : ( a ) North
12. At 12:30, the hour hand of a clock faces North and the minute-hand faces South. At 1:45, the hour hand will be in which direction?
(a) South-East
(b) South-West
(c) North-East
(d) North-West
Ans : ( c ) North-East
13. In a certain code, MAN is written as SANM and WORD is written as SORDW. In that code, how would SALE be written?
(a) LESAS
(b) SALES
(c) SEALS
(d) LEASS
Ans : ( b ) SALES
14. If in a certain code language, ?123? means ?bright little boy?, ?145?  means ?tall big boy? AND ?637?  means ?beautiful little FLOWER?, then which digit in that language  means ?bright??
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 2
Ans : ( d ) 2
15. Arrange the following in a meaningful sequence :
1. Shoulder 2. Wrist 3. Elbow
4. Palm 5. Finger
(a) 5, 4, 2, 3, 1
(b) 3, 4, 5, 2, 1
(c) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
(d) 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
Ans : ( a ) 5, 4, 2, 3, 1
16. If the 25th of August in a year is Thursday, then the number of Mondays in that month is
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 3
Ans : ( b ) 5
17. ?E? is the son of ?A?. ?D? is the son of ?B?. ?E? is married to ?C? and ?C? is B?s daughter. How is ?D? related to ?E? ?
(a) Brother
(b) Uncle
(c) Father-in-law
(d) Brother-in-law
Ans : ( d ) Brother-in-law
18. A cube, painted yellow on all faces, is cut into 27 small cubes of equal size. How many small cubes are painted on one face only?
(a) 1
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 12
Ans : ( b ) 6
Directions (Qs. 19 & 20) : In Each of these questions, there are two statements followed by two
conclusion numbered I and II. Take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts:
19. Statements :
All poets are readers.
No reader is wise.
Conclusions :
I. No poet is wise.
II. All readers are poets.
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Both the conclusions I and II follows
(d) None of the conclusions follows
Ans : ( a ) Only conclusion I follows
20. Statements :
All stones are diamonds.
Some diamonds are pearls.
Conclusions :
I. Some pearls are stones.
II. All diamonds are pearls.
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Both the conclusions I and II follows
(d) None of the conclusions follows
Ans : ( d ) None of the conclusions follows
Directions (Qs. 21-23) : These questions are based on the following statements :
Raja and Baldev are good in Hockey and Volleyball. Deepak and Raja are good in Hockey and
Baseball. Gurnam and Baldev are good in Cricket and Volleyball. Deepak, Gurnam and Joseph are Good in
Football and Baseball.
21. Who is good in Baseball, Cricket, Volleyball and Football?
(a) Raja
(b) Gurnam
(c) Baldev
(d) Deepak
Ans : ( b ) Gurnam
22. Who is good in Baseball, Volleyball and Hockey?
(a) Raja
(b) Gurnam
(c) Baldev
(d) Deepak
Ans : ( a ) Raja
23. Who is good in Hockey, Cricket and Volleyball?
(a) Raja
(b) Gurnam
(c) Baldev
(d) Deepak
Ans : ( c ) Baldev

RRB GOODS GUARD EXAM 2011 SOLVED PAPER

NUMERICAL ABILITY

1. The difference between the square of any two consecutive integers is equal to
(a) An even number
(b) Difference of two numbers
(c) Product of two numbers
(d) Sum of two numbers
Ans: ( d ) Sum of two numbers
2 What is the greatest possible length of a scale that can be used to measure exactly the following three lengths?
3m; 5m-10 cm; 12m-90 cm
(a) 30 cm
(b) 20 cm
(c) 25 cm
(d) 10 cm
Ans: ( a ) 30 cm
3 The HCF of two numbers is 96 and their LCM is 1296. If one number is 864, then what is the other number?
(a) 72
(b) 64
(c) 144
(d) 11664
Ans: ( c ) 144
4 A drum of water is 3/5 full. When 38 litres are drawn from it, it is just 1/8 full. What is the total capacity of the drum in litres?
(a) 100 litres
(b) 80 litres
(c) 85 litres
(d) 90 litres
Ans: ( b ) 80 litres
5 If the cost of telephone calls in a town is 30 paise per call for the first 100 calls, 25 paise per call for the next 100 calls and 20 paise per call for calls exceeding 200, then how many calls can be made in Rs. 50 ?
(a) 180
(b) 200
(c) 225
(d) 175
Ans: ( a ) 180
6 A reduction of Rs. 2 per kg in the price of sugar enables a man to purchase 4 kg more sugar now in Rs. 16. What was the original price of sugar?
(a) Rs. 16 per kg
(b) Rs. 8 per kg
(c) Rs. 4 per kg
(d) Rs. 2 per kg
Ans: ( c ) Rs. 4 per kg
7 33% marks are required to pass an examination. A candidate who gets 210 marks, fails by 21 marks. What are the total marks for the examination ?
(a) 700
(b) 650
(c) 600
(d) 550
Ans: ( a ) 700
8 The ticket for admission to an exhibition was Rs. 5 and it was later reduced by 20%. As a result, the sale proceeds of tickets increased by 44%. What was the percentage increase in number of visitors?
(a) 50%
(b) 25%
(c) 75%
(d) 80%
Ans: ( d ) 80%
9 The average weight of 8 men is increased by 2 kg when one man of 50 kg is replaced by a new man. What is the weight of the new man?
(a) 58 kg
(b) 68 kg
(c) 60 kg
(d) 66 kg
Ans: ( d ) 66 kg
10. Nine men went to a hotel 8 of them spent Rs. 3 each over their meals and the ninth person spent Rs. 2 more than the average expenditure of all the nine. The total money spent by all of them was
(a) Rs. 26
(b) Rs. 40
(c) Rs. 29.25
(d) Rs. 27.50
Ans: ( c ) Rs. 29.25
11. The sum of the present ages of A, B and C is 90 years. Six years ago, their ages were in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3. What is the present age of C?
(a) 36 years
(b) 42 years
(c) 40 years
(d) 45 years
Ans: ( b ) 42 years
12. The sum of the salaries of A and B is Rs. 2,100. A spends 80% of his salary and B spends 70% of his salary. If their savings are in the proportion of 4 : 3, then what is the salary of A
(a) Rs. 1400
(b) Rs. 1200
(c) Rs. 900
(d) Rs. 700
Ans: ( a ) Rs. 1400
13 Rs. 1,290 are divided between A, B and C such that As share is 1 ½ times that of B and Bs share is 1 ¾ times that of C. What is Cs hsare?
(a) Rs. 240
(b) Rs. 420
(c) Rs. 630
(d) Rs. 350
Ans: ( a ) Rs. 240
14. Five litres of water is added to a certain quantity of pure milk, which costs Rs. 3 per litre. If the mixture is sold at the same price of Rs. 3 per litre, a profit of 20% is made (ignore the cost of water). What is the amount of pure milk in the mixture?
(a) 20 litres
(b) 28 litres
(c) 25 litres
(d) 30 litres
Ans: ( c ) 25 litres
15. Fifteen men working 8 hours a day take 21 days to complete a work. How many days will be taken by 21 women to complete the same work, working 6 hours a day? ( 3 women do as much work as 2 men).
(a) 25 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 33 days
(d) 28 days
Ans: ( b ) 30 days
16. A can knit a pair of socks in 3 days. B can knit the same pair in 9 days. If they are knitting together, then in how many days will they knit two pairs of socks?
(a) 4 days
(b) 5 days
(c) 4 ½ days
(d) 3 days
Ans: ( c ) 4 ½ days
17. Two electronic music systems are bought for Rs. 8,000. One was sold at 40% profit and the other was sold at 40$ loss. If the S.P. of both be same, then what was the C.P. of both the systems ?
(a) Rs. 3000, Rs. 5000
(b) Rs. 4000, Rs. 4000
(c) Rs. 3500, Rs. 4500
(d) Rs. 2400, Rs. 5600
Ans: ( d ) Rs. 2400, Rs. 5600
18. If the marked price is 30% more than the C.P. and 10% discount is allowed on the marked price, then what will be the gain %?
(a) 20%
(b) 15 ½%
(c) 17%
(d) 18 ½%
Ans: ( c ) 17%
19. A man has Rs. 2,000. Some portion of this amount, he lends @ 5% p.a. S.I. and the remaining portion of the same is lent at 4% p.a. S.I. He earns Rs. 96 in a year. What amount was lent by him at 4%.
(a) Rs. 1200
(b) Rs. 600
(c) Rs. 400
(d) Rs. 1600
Ans: ( c ) Rs. 400
20. What sum will become Rs. 496 in 6 years @ 4% p.a. ?
(a) Rs. 500
(b) Rs. 400
(c) Rs. 460
(d) Rs. 456
Ans: ( b ) Rs. 400
21. A car covers a distance of 420 km at its normal speed. If the speed of the car would have been 10 km/hr
more htan the normal speed, then it would have taken one hour less to cover the same distance. What was the speed
of the car?
(a) 50 km/hr
(b) 40 km/hr
(c) 55 km/hr
(d) 60 km/hr
Ans: ( d ) 60 km/hr
22. A 110 m long train is running @ 60 km/hr. How much time will it take to cover the 240 m long platform?
(a) 5 5/6 seconds
(b) 14 2/5 seconds
(c) 4 seconds
(d) 21 seconds
Ans: ( d ) 21 seconds
23. In a river, a man takes 3 hours in rowing 3 km upstream or 15 km downstream. What is the speed of the
current?
(a) 2 km/hr
(b) 4 km/hr
(c) 6 km/hr
(d) 9 km/hr
Ans: ( a ) 2 km/hr
24. A and B can cover a 200 m race in 22 seconds and 25 seconds respectively. When a finished the race, then B is at what distance from the finishing line?
(a) 30 m
(b) 48 m
(c) 24 m
(d) 54 m
Ans: ( c ) 24 m
25. The difference between the circumference of a circle and its radius is 37 metres. What is the radius of
the circle?
(a) 5 m
(b) 7 m
(c) 12 m
(d) 14 m
Ans: ( b ) 7 m