RPF SUB INSPECTORS EXAM PATTERN

(a) General Knowledge: The paper will be of objective type. Questions will be asked on past/current affairs, History, Geography, Hindi, Mathematics and Science.
Duration: One hour.
Total Marks: 100.
(b) General English: Questions will be set on Grammar, Précis Writing, Correction of Sentences, Annotation of selected Paragraphs/Poems, etc.
Duration: One hour.
Maximum Marks: 50.
(c) Essay writing: Essay can be written either in English or in Hindi in 300 words.
Duration: One hour.
Maximum Marks: 50.

RPF Constables Exam Pattern

WRITTEN EXAMINATION:

The Written Examination will consist of 120 multiple-choice objective type questions of one mark each and shall be of 90 minutes duration. The questions paper will be of matriculation standard with 120 as maximum marks. The question paper will consist of 35 questions on General Intelligence & Reasoning, 35 questions on Arithmetic and 50 questions on General Awareness. Candidates will be required to answer all the questions. Each correct answer will be awarded 1(one) mark and 1 (one) mark will be deducted for 4 (four) incorrect answers. No mark shall be awarded or deducted for questions not attempted.

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd Recruitment

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd recruit Executive Engineer, Assistant Engineers and Junior Engineers. Applications from qualified and experienced candidates.

DMRC Recruitment 2011 details

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd. (DMRC)

A Joint Venture of Govt. of India and Govt. of Delhi

Post Name	No. of Vacancies	Reservation	Pay Scale
Executive Engineer	39	--	Rs. 15600 – 39100
Assistant Engineers	39	UR-20, OBC-10, SC-6, ST-3	Rs. 20600 – 46500
Jr. Engineer	130	UR-65, OBC-36, SC-19, ST-10	Rs. 13500 – 25520

Post Name	Post Name	Age Limit	Post Name
Executive Engineer	BE/B.Tech/Equivalent in Civil Engineering Discipline with 1st Division for the post of Executive Engineer and Assistant Engineer Assistant Engineers	Executive Engineer	50 Years
Assistant Engineers		Assistant Engineers	40 years with relaxation of 3 years for OBC and 5 years for SC/ST candidates.
Jr. Engineer	3 years diploma with 60% marks in Civil Engineering Discipline for the post of Junior Engineer.	Jr. Engineer	28 years with relaxation of 3 years for OBC and 5 years for SC/ST Candidates

Last date for receipt of application form: 20th May, 2011

Application Fee
Rs.100 for GEN/OBC and Rs.50 for SC/ST

How to Apply

Eligible and willing candidates meeting the all eligibility criteria may apply by speed post along with their particulars in the following format, to Executive Director (HR), Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd, Metro Bhawan, Fire Brigade Lane, Barakhamba Road by 20/05/11, positively .

link: Advertisement alongwith Application form

Before submitting prescribed peforma for this DMRC Recruitment 2011 project advised to see complete advertisement to ensure that they fulfill the stipulated eligibility criteria.

RPF/RPSF SUB INSPECTORS RECRUITMENT 2011

Advertisement No. 2/2011

Recruitment of Sub-Inspector (Male/Female) in RPF/RPSF

Railway Protection Force / Railway Protection Special Force (RPF / RPSF) inviting Applications from the suitable candidates for filling up the following posts of Sub-Inspector.

Sub-Inspector

Number of posts : 511 posts (UR-311, SC-69, ST-40, OBC-91)

Pay Scale : Rs.9300-34800/- Grade Pay Rs.4200/-

Qualification : Graduate or equivalent

AgeLimit : 20-25 years as on 01-07-2011

Last date : 29-05-2011

Advertisement Details : Employment News Dated (30th April – 06th May ) 2011.

for more details See http://indianrailways.gov.in/

IRCTC RECRUITMENT NOTICE

Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation (IRCTC)

Name Of post: DGM/Tourism
Total Posts: 08
Age: 40 yrs
Pay Scale: Rs.29100-54500

Name Of post: DGM/IT
Total Posts: 03
Age: 40 Yrs
Pay Scale: Rs. 29100-54500

Name Of post: AGM/IT 1 Post each ERP, Software and Hardware
Total Posts: 03
Age: 50 yrs
Pay Scale: Rs. 36600-62000

Last Date: 14-05-2011

Click here For Recruitment 2011

NER Recruitment of Scouts and Guide/ Cultural quota in Group ‘C’ posts

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT CELL, NORTH EASTERN RAILWAY

Deputy Chief Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell

Applications are invited in the prescribed format are invited from eligible Indian Citizens, for recruitment against Scouts and Guide/ Cultural quota in Group ‘C’ posts :

• Employment Notice No: NER/RRC/Group C/SG/03/2011-12
  • Scouts & Guides: 02 Posts
  • Qualification:
    • For Non-Technical Populars Categories: Passed Matriculation or its equivalent with not less than 50% marks or higher than matriculation.
    • For Technical Categories: Matriculation or its equivalent with ITI in relevant trade or its equivalent.
  • Age: 18-30 years UR/ 18-33 years OBC/ 18-35 years SC/ST
• Employment Notice No: NER/RRC/Group C/Cultural/ 04/2011-12
  • Cultural Quota: 02 Posts (Musical Instrument Santoor-01, Odisi Dance-01)
  • Qualification:
    • For Non-Technical Populars Categories: Passed Matriculation or its equivalent with not less than 50% marks or higher than matriculation.
    • For Technical Categories: Matriculation or its equivalent with ITI in relevant trade or its equivalent.
  • Age: 18-30 years UR/ 18-33 years OBC/ 18-35 years SC/ST

Last Date: 26.04.2011 Now Extended up to 26.05.2011 (10.06.2011 for candidates from far_flung areas)
For full details please visit the link below:

www.ner.indianrailways.gov.in

IRCON INTERNATIONAL LTD. RECRUITMENT

IRCON INTERNATIONAL LTD.
(A Publie Sector Undertaking under the Ministry of Railways)
Regd. Office : C-4, District Centre, Saket, New Delhi – 110017 (India)

Requirement of Diesel Technician & Electric Fitter

IRCON invites applications for the following regular posts :

• Diesel Technician : 15 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 8500-17000
• Electric Fitter : 05 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 7500-15000

Applicaion Fee : A demand draft of Rs. 300/- (Rs. 50/- for SC/ST/Ex-Servicemen candidates) in favour of IRCON International Limited payable at New Delhi.


How to Apply : Application in the prescribed format should be sent to Addl. General Manager/ HRM, IRCON INTERNATIONAL LIMITED, C-4, District Centre, Saket, New Delhi – 110017 accompaniedthe required within 21 days from the date of publication (published on 23/04/2011) .


Please view http://www.ircon.org/vacancy190411/Diesel%20Technician%20Fitter%20Advt%20no.04-2011.pdf for more information and Application Format.

RAILWAY PROTECTION FORCE EXTENSION OF LAST DATE

RRB CHANDIGARH ASM SOLVED PAPER

1. A trader told his servant Shambhu that he left for his home from the shop after every 2 : 40 hours. I left for home 55 minutes earlier and for the next time I will leave for home from my shop at 8 : 15 p.m. At which time did I inform my servant?

(A) 6 : 30

(B) 6 : 00

(C) 6 : 15

(D) 4 : 20

2. If the numbers divisible by 3 between 14 and 55 (both inclusive) and the numbers with 3 at unit’s place of them are removed then how may numbers will remain?

(A) 24

(B) 23

(C) 22

(D) 25

3. If x means -, ÷ means +, + means ÷, – means x then find the value of 13 – 12 ÷ 400 + 20 x 100

(A) 1/760

(B) 76

(C) 176

(D) 186

4. Nivedita stops to walk after covering a distance of 10 km to the west. She then turns to the right and walks 8 km. Again she walks 4 km to the right. How far is she from her office?

(A) 18 km

(B) 8 km

(C) 16 km

(D) 10 km

5. Karishma is taller than Kajal. Kajal is taller than Vimal. Ankita is taller than Kajan and Vimal. Which is the tallest?

(A) Karishma

(B) Kajal

(C) Ankita

(D) None of these

6. Radha and Saroj are ranked 10th and 16th respectively in a class of 37 students. What will be their ranks from the bottom in the class?

(A) 28th, 22nd

(B) 27th, 21st

(C) 28th, 20th

(D) 27th, 22nd

7. If ‘A’=26, and SUN = 27, then CAT?

(A) 24

(B) 57

(C) 58

(D) 27

8. A number when divided by three consecutive numbers 9, 11, 13 leaves the remainders 8, 9 and 8 respectively. If the order of divisors is reversed, the remainders will be—

(A) 8, 9, 8

(B) 9, 8, 8

(C) 10, 1, 6

(D) 10, 8, 9

9. Find the multiple of 11 in the following numbers?

(A) 978626

(B) 112144

(C) 447355

(D) 869756

10. Four prime numbers are arranged in ascending order. The product of first three is 385 and that of last three is 1001. The largest prime number is—

(A) 11

(B) 13

(C) 17

(D) 9

11. On dividing a number by 19, the difference between quotient and remainder is 9. The number is—

(A) 370

(B) 352

(C) 361

(D) 371

12. Mohan engaged a servant on the condition that he would pay him Rs. 200 and a uniform after 10 days. The servant served only for 5 days and got Rs. 20 and a uniform. Find the price of the uniform.

(A) Rs. 80

(B) Rs. 120

(C) Rs. 140

(D) Rs. 160

13. If you subtract – 1 from + 1, what will be the result?

(A) 2

(B) –2

(C) 0

(D) 1

14. Find the value of 50 × 8.

(A) 40

(B) 200

(C) 8

(D) 0

15. One litre of water is evaporated from a 6 litre solution containing 4% sugar. The percentage of sugar in the remaining solution is—

(A) 24/5 %

(B) 4 %

(C) 3 %

(D) 10/3 %

16. When water is changed into ice, its volume increases by 9%. If ice changes into water, the percentage decrease in volume is—

(A) 9%

(B) 10%

(C) 18%

(D) 900/109 %

17. A watch becomes fast by 5 minutes every day. By what per cent does it become fast?

(A) 50/144 %

(B) 5%

(C) 1/12 %

(D) 5/24 %

18. A bag contains 25 paise. 10 paise and 5 paise coins in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. If their total value is Rs. 30, the number of 5 paise coins is—

(A) 50

(B) 100

(C) 150

(D) 200

19. The temperature of a place increases uniformly from 210°C to 380°C from 9 am to 2 pm. What was the temperature at noon?

(A) 28.50°C

(B) 270°C

(C) 300°C

(D) 320°C

20. If 5 men or 9 women can do a piece of work in 19 days; 3 men and 6 women will do the same work in—

(A) 10 days

(B) 15 days

(C) 12 days

(D) 7 days

21. Total area of 64 small squares of a chess board is 400cm. There is 3 cm wide border around the chess board. What is the length of the side of the chess board?

(A) 17 cm

(B) 20 cm

(C) 26 cm

(D) 23 cm

22. If the radius of a circle is increased to 3 times. Then how many times will its circumference be increased?

(A) 2 times

(B) 1/3 times

(C) 9 times

(D) 3 times

23. A passenger train runs at the rate of 80 kmph. It starts from the station at some time. After 6 hours a goods trains leaves the station. The passenger train overtakes the goods train after 4 hours. The speed of goods train is—

(A) 32 km/h

(B) 50 km/h

(C) 45 km/h

(D) 64 km/h

24. A boat takes half time in moving a certain distance downstream than upstream. What is ratio between rate in still water and rate of current?

(A) 1 : 2

(B) 3 : 1

(C) 2 : 1

(D) 1 : 3

25. Two pipes can fill a cistern in 6 minutes and 7 minutes respectively. Both the pipes are opened alternately for 1 minute each. In what time will they fill the cistern?

(A) 5 minutes

(B) 17/3 times

(C) 45/7 minutes

(D) 5/4 minutes

26. Find the value of 0.0016—

(A) 0.4

(B) 0.04

(C) 0.8

(D) 4

27. By what number must 32 be multiplied to make it a perfect square?

(A) 4

(B) 3

(C) 5

(D) 2

Answers:

1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (B) 11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (B) 21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (C)

28. Mr. Jagdish is confident __________ his success.

(A) about

(B) of

(C) for

(D) regarding

29. He persisted __________doing things in a manner in which he had been doing them.

(A) on

(B) at

(C) about

(D) in

30. An exhibition__________ the new trends in computer education was held in Delhi.

(A) into

(B) for

(C) of

(D) on

Directions (31-35): In the following questions choose the word that can be substituted for the given words.

31. A disease which spreads by contact

(A) infection

(B) contagious

(C) contiguous

(D) uxoring

32. A science which studies insects

(A) Entomology

(B) Epistemology

(C) Entymology

(D) Biology

Placement Papers and Model Papers

33. That which cann’t be corrected

(A) Ineligible

(B) Ineluctable

(C) Insortable

(D) Incorrigible

34. One who believes easily

(A) sedulous

(B) credible

(C) assiduous

(D) credulous

35. A speech made for first time

(A) simultaneous

(B) drawn

(C) extempore

(D) maiden

Direction (36-39): Write word which is most opposite in meaning of the given word.

36. Obstinate

(A) Hoary

(B) Amenable

(C) Tenable

(D) Tender

37. Pernicious

(A) Salutary

(B) Recondite

(C) Innocuous

(D) Disastrous

38. Radical

(A) Singular

(B) Unusual

(C) Normal

(D) Conservative

Placement Papers and Model Papers

39. Mention

(A) Impart

(B) Observe

(C) Attend

(D) Conceal

Direction (40-42): Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the word.

40. Sedentary

(A) Material

(B) Sluggish

(C) Slash

(D) Mischief

41. Pertinacious

(A) Stubborn

(B) Tremulous

(C) Stupid

(D) Stingy

42. Gregarious

(A) Clumsy

(B) Pugnacious

(C) Turbulent

(D) Saciable

43. In Rajasthan, Mount Abu, famous for Jain temples is known for—

(A) Abu temple

(B) Ranakpura temple

(C) Dilwara temple

(D) Marble temple

44. The United Nations Organisation was formed on—

(A) October 20, 1945

(B) November 11, 1944

(C) October 24, 1945

(D) June 26, 1946

45. In Vedic literature the meaning of the word ‘Nishk’ was ornament. It was used in Artharva Veda as—

(A) Weapon

(B) Agricultural implements

(C) Script

(D) Coin

46. The executive in India is directly responsible to the—

(A) President

(B) Judiciary

(C) People

(D) Legislature

47. The major producer of copper is—

(A) Kerala

(B) Rajasthan

(C) Orissa

(D) Madhya Pradesh

48. Boys scout and Girls Guide movements were formed by—

(A) Charles Andies

(B) General Ramphel

(C) John Quat

(D) Weden Powel

49. In history the Chola rulers are famous for which type of administration?

(A) Central

(B) Urban

(C) State

(D) Village administration

50. Chanakya was known by the name—

(A) Samudragupta

(B) Vishnugupta

(C) Shrigupta

(D) None of these

51. The largest reserve of crude oil is in the country—

(A) Iran

(B) Iraq

(C) Saudi Arab

(D) Kuwait

52. The Jainism propounded the complete knowledge as—

(A) Jin

(B) Ratna

(C) Kaivalya

(D) Nirvana

53. The rotational motion of earth is maximum at the—

(A) North pole

(B) Tropic of Capricorn

(C) Equator

(D) Tropic of cancer

54. Silicon dioxide is used in—

(A) Cement production

(B) Cutting hard precious metals

(C) Glass manufacture

(D) None of these

55. In which of the following chemical energy is converted into electrical energy?

(A) Dynamo

(B) Thermopile

(C) Battery

(D) Atom bomb

56. If the atmosphere is removed from the earth—

(A) Day will lengthen

(B) Night will lengthen

(C) Both will remain same

(D) Both will be equal

57. In Kushana period the maximum development was observed in the field of—

(A) Religion

(B) Art

(C) Literature

(D) Architecture

58. In rice production Indic is ranked in the world—

(A) First

(B) Second

(C) Third

(D) Fourth

59. The brightest star in the sky is—

(A) Proxima Centauri

(B) Bernard

(C) Nebula

(D) Cirius

60. The number of permanent member nations in the UN Security Council is—

(A) 10

(B) 5

(C) 7

(D) 15

Answers

28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (C) 31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (D) 36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (D) 40. (B) 41. (A) 42. (D) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (D) 46. (D) 47. (B) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (B) 51. (C) 52. (C) 53. (A) 54. (C) 55. (C) 56. (C) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (A) 60. (B)

61. From which mine diamond is extracted?

(A) Panna

(B) Golkunda

(C) Jaipur

(D) None of these

62. Like Poland in Europe which state in India is large?

(A) Bihar

(B) Orissa

(C) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Maharashtra

63. The capital of Vijayanager empire. Hampi was situated on the bank of the river—

(A) Krishna

(B) Pennar

(C) Tungbhadra

(D) Godavari

64. The land shape formed at the drainage site of the Chanbal river is—

(A) Ramp

(B) Rift

(C) Delta

(D) None of these

65. Which of the following rivers passes through Himachal Pradesh?

(A) Sutlej

(B) Jhelum

(C) Ravi

(D) Chenab

66. Rigmies are related to—

(A) Asia

(B) Europe

(C) Africa

(D) America

67. Mettur dam is situated on the river—

(A) Krishna

(B) Cauvery

(C) Narmada

(D) Mahanadi

68. Most abundant element in maximum rocks is—

(A) Silicon

(B) Carbon

(C) Iron

(D) None of these

69. The old name of African country Ghana is—

(A) Abisinia

(B) Congo

(C) Gold Coast

(D) Tanganika

70. Who first deciphered the Ashokan inscriptions?

(A) James Princep

(B) James Williams

(C) John Munro

(D) None of these

71. The foundation of Indian Vedanta philosophy is—

(A) Ram Charit Manas

(B) Mahabharat

(C) Puranas

(D) Upanishad

72. In which Satyagraha movement of Mahatma Gandhi women participated most?

(A) Quit India

(B) Non-cooperation

(C) Salt

(D) Bardoli

73. The noble gas is—

(A) Helium

(B) Oxygen

(C) Nitrogen

(D) Hydrogen

74. In which part of the Constitution, the separation of executive and judiciary has been described?

(A) Preamble

(B) Fundamental rights

(C) Directive principles of state policy

(D) Seventh schedule

75. Who administers the Union Territory?

(A) Council of Ministers

(B) Governor

(C) Former Governor

(D) President

76. The spherical shape of rain drops is due to—

(A) Surface tension

(B) Viscosity

(C) Gravity

(D) Atmospheric pressure

77. Which is not an electric resistant?

(A) Lac

(B) Glass

(C) Charcoal

(D) Ebonite

78. The first black Nobel prize winner of literature in the world is—

(A) Tom Morrison

(B) Luther King

(C) John King

(D) None of these

79. Which of the following planets has the highest period of revolution around the sun?

(A) Mercury

(B) Earth

(C) Mars

(D) None of these

80. The headquarter of Asian Development Bank is in—

(A) Geneva

(B) Manila

(C) Bangkok

(D) Jakarta

81. Which of the following elements is found in free state?

(A) Iodine

(B) Magnesium

(C) Sulphur

(D) Phosphorus

82. In which disease blood does not clot?

(A) Thrombosis

(B) Haemophilia

(C) Pneumonia

(D) None of these

83. The Ajanta caves are situated in—

(A) Maharashtra

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(C) Tamil Nadu

(D) None of these

84. National Codet Corps was established in—

(A) 1948

(B) 1946

(C) 1947

(D) 1950

Placement Papers and Model Papers

85. The first Yoga University was established at—

(A) Bodh Gaya

(B) Mumbai

(C) Monghyr

(D) Kolkata

86. The biggest glacier of India is—

(A) Siachin

(B) Yamanotri

(C) Chunhari

(D) Gangotri

87. The number of schedules in Indian Constitution is—

(A) 11

(B) 12

(C) 13

(D) None of these

88. The Commonwealth games were recently held in—

(A) Britain

(B) Canada

(C) Australia

(D) India

89. Which of the following did not come to India?

(A) Megasthanese

(B) Columbus

(C) Vasco De Gama

(D) Fahein

90. Double fault is related to—

(A) Footbal

(B) Rugby

(C) Tennis

(D) None of these

91. Which of these is the largest railway zone?

(A) Central Railway

(B) Southern Railway

(C) Eastern Railway

(D) Northern Railway

Placement Papers and Model Papers

92. Who is the Indian Mass Universe 2006 in india?

(A) Neha Kapoor

(B) Neha Dhupia

(C) Priyanka Sud

(D) None of these

93. CTPN : DSQM : : MUSK?

(A) NUTL

(B) NTTJ

(C) NTTL

(D) LTRS

94. LO : PK : : IT : ?

(A) GT

(B) SH

(C) MN

(D) FU

95.Which of the following countries is the biggest producer of milk?

(A) Pakistan

(B) Australia

(C) America

(D) India

Answers

61. (A) 62. (C) 63. (C) 64. (A) 65. (D) 66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (A) 69. (C) 70. (A) 71. (D) 72. (A) 73. (A) 74. (D) 75. (D) 76. (A) 77. (C) 78. (A) 79. (D) 80. (B) 81. (C) 82. (B) 83. (A) 84. (A) 85. (C) 86. (A) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (B) 90. (C) 91. (D) 92. (A) 93. (B) 94. (C) 95 (D)

DMRC RECRUITMENT

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation (DMRC)
(A Joint Venture Of Govt. Of India & Govt. Of Delhi)

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation is Inviting Applications from Indian Citizens for recruiting following posts:

Vacancy Details:
Executive Trainee- 20

Age: Candidates not less than 21 years and not more than 28 years as on 01/01/2011, (Reservation for SC/ST/OBC and other category as per Govt rules).

Qualification: Candidates pass minimum in B. Tech/B.E examination with 70% marks and Minimum of 60% marks in B. Arch, from AICTE Recognized universities.

Application Lastdate: 25-04-11

Examination Date: 22-05-11

Click Here for More Details

BMRCL RECRUITMENT

Bangalore Metro Rail Corporation Ltd (BMRCL)
(A Joint Venture of Govt. of India & Govt. of Karnataka)

Bangalore Metro Rail Corporation Ltd is Inviting Applications from Indian Citizens for recruiting following posts:

Vacancy Details:

1.Section Engineer: 15
2.Junior Engineer: 36
3.Maintainers: 87
4.Customer Relationship Manager: 32
5.Station Controller & Train Operator: 53
6.Assistants (Finance, Stores): 4
7.Assistant (HR): 1

Age: 23-28 Yrs

Qualification: Four years Engineering Degree in Electrical & Electronics Engineering/Electronics andb Communication Engineering/ Instrumentation & Control Engineering/ Telecommunication / Applied Electronics & Instrumentation/ Computer Science and Engineering or equivalent qualification.

Appliocation Last date: 30-04-2011

Examination Date: 29-05-2011

Click Here for More Details

Western Railway Para Medical Posts Recruitment

Western Railway
www.wr.indianrailways.gov.in

Western Railway is Inviting Applications from Indian Citizens for recruiting following posts:

Vacancy Details : Total no. of posts: 19

Assistant Chemist: 01
Pharmacist: 06
Health & Malaria Inspectors: 12

Educational Qualification : 10+2/B.Sc/Diploma in Pharmacy

Age : 18-33 Yrs

Application Lastdate : Interested candidates can Walk-in-interview on 19-04-2011, 20-04-2011 and 26-04-2011


Click Here for More Details

RRC NORTH EASTERN RAILWAY GROUP 'C' POSTS AGAINST SCOUTS & GUIDES QUOTA

RPF CONSTABLES RECRUITMENT

Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation Limited Recruitment

Job Position:Executive Chef, Chef de Partie, Assistant Manager
Pay Scale:30000-75000
Eligibility :Degree in Hospitality, Hotel Management, BE/B.tech
Job Location:New Delhi
Last Date:31/3/2011

Job Details

Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation Limited, a leading Mini Ratna Public Sector Undertaking under Ministry of Railways, invites applications for the following to be filled on contractual basis, for its forthcoming Food Factory in Noida:

1. Executive Chef

• Number of vacancies : 01
• Pay : Rs 75,000 & 10% annual increment (Consolidated)
• Age Limit : 45 Years
• Qualification:3 years Diploma/ Degree in Hospitality or Hotel Management from the institute.

2. Chef de Partie

• Number of vacancies : 03
• Pay : Rs 30,000 & 10% annual increment (Consolidated)
• Age Limit : 35 Years
• Qualification:3 years Diploma/ Degree in Hospitality or Hotel Management from a recognized institute.

3. Assistant Manager (Maintenance)

• Number of vacancies : 01
• Pay : Rs 50,000 & 10% annual increment (Consolidated)
• Age Limit : 40 Years
• Qualification:Diploma in Electrical Engineering from a recognized
  institute/ University as a regular course.

Type of appointment:On Contract Basis for 3 years.

SELECTION PROCEDURE: The selection for the post of Executive Chef/ Chef de parties/ Assistant Manager (Maintenance) will be on the basis of qualification, experience & performance of the candidate in the interview. Merely satisfying the eligibility norms do not entitle the candidate to be called for interview. IRCTC reserves the right to call only the requisite number of candidates for interview after preliminary screening/short listing with reference to the candidate’s qualification, suitability etc.

INTERVIEW : The interview of the short listed candidates will be held at Corporate office/IRCTC/New Delhi which would be intimated in due course.

LAST DATE : Application complete in all respects should reach the above address on or before 18:00hrs by 31.03.2011. The Application received after the last date will not be entertained.

INTIMATION FOR INTERVIEW : List of short listed candidates called for interview will be published in IRCTC website and will also be intimated on their e-mail/ by post.

HOW TO APPLY: The eligible candidates are required to submit their application in the prescribed format as per the specimen provided in this advertisement. Applications not as per the prescribed format will be summarily rejected. There is no objection for using printed application form as long as the format is exactly the same as published. Application duly complete in all respects should be sent by ordinary post in a cover super scribed “Application to the post of Executive Chef/ Chef De Parties/Asstt. Manager(Maintenance) (Post Code No. 001/002/003).

Northeast Frontier Railway Apprentices Recruitment

Northeast Frontier Railway
Job Position: Apprentices
Eligibility : Certificate Course (ITI)
Job Location: Assam
Last Date: 28 March 2011
Hiring Process: Face to Face Interview

Jobs Details:-

North frontier Railway, engagement of Apprentices

SI.No. 1
Name of trades: Fitter
No of posts: 16 (UR-9, SC-2, ST-1, OBC-4)

SI.No. 2
Name of trades: Turner
No of posts: 01 (UR)

SI.No. 3
Name of trades: Machinist
No of posts: 01 (UR)

SI.No. 4
Name of trades: Mech. Machine Tool Maintenance.
No of posts: 03 (UR-2, OBC-1)

SI.No. 5
Name of trades: Welder
No of posts: 06 (UR-3, SC-1, OBC-2)

SI.No. 6
Name of trades: Carpenter
No of posts: 03 (UR_2, OBC-1)

SI.No. 7
Name of trades: Painter General
No of posts: 03 (UR_2, OBC-1)

SI.No. 8
Name of trades: Electrician
No of posts: 02 (UR_1, OBC-1)

SI.No. 9
Name of trades: Tools & Die Maker
No of posts: 01 (UR)

SI.No. 10
Name of trades: Refrigerator & Air Conditioning Mechanic
No of posts: 01 (UR)

Qualification: Matriculation (Matriculate or 10th Class in 10+2 examination system) with minimum 50% marks and having I.T.I. certificate affiliated to NCVT compulsory in relevant trade.

Age Limit: 15-24 Yrs as on 01.01.2011 i.e. should not have been born earlier than 02.01.1987 and not later than 01.01.1996.

Processing Fee: (i) A Crossed Postal Order in favour of F.A. & C.A.O., N.F. Railway, Maligaon payable to GPO/ Guwahati for Rs. 40 as a processing fee which is not refundable/ transferable under any circumstances . The Postal Order purchased before the date of publication of this notice will not be valid or Demand Draft to be enclosed OR the examination fee shall be paid in the form of Account Payee Demand draft drawn from any Nationalized Bank in favour of FA &CAO, N.F.Railway and payable at Maligaon, SBI Branch. No Postal Order is required for SC/ ST/ PH candidates.

Selection Process: Engagement of Act Apprentices will be done only on the basis of marks obtained in the Matriculation Examination or 10^th Class in the 10+2 Examination system and minimum marks of eligibility shall be kept at 50% in aggregate and having I.T.I. Certificate is compulsory. No extra weightage shall be granted to candidates having higher education. Candidates equal to 1.25 times of the number of slots for Act Apprentices shall be called for verification of original testimonials and their physical fitness.

How to apply:

The Application form (in duplicate ) & Call Letter as per format must be submitted in foolscap paper duly filled in all respect by the candidate in his own hand writing with ball point pen to be addressed to Assistant Personnel Officer(Workshop), N.F. Railway, New Bongaigaon C&W Workshop, Assam, PIN: 783 381 381 in close envelope enclosing 2 Self-addressed envelope of 11” X 5” with Postal Stamp of Rs. 5 (Exemption for SC/ST/PH Candidates). Last date is on 28th March 2011.

For More Information click www.nfr.railnet.gov.in

RRB GUWAHATI GOODS GUARD EXAM 2010 SOLVED PAPER

1. Which of the following is the largest producer of raw silk?

(1) Assam (2) Karnataka (3) Andhra Pradesh(4) Jammu & Kashmir

Ans:-2

2. The Gandhara School of Sculpture was a blend of:

(1) Indian and Greek styles (2) Indian and Persian styles

(3) Purely Indian in origin (4) Indian and South East Asian style.

Ans:-1

3. Which one of the following languages is used in Tripura?

(I) Hindi (2) Mizo (3) Khasi (4) Bengali

Ans:-4

4. How many schedules are there in the Constitution of India?

(1) Eight (2)Ten

(3) Twelve (4) Fourteen

Ans:-2

5. In which year was the Capital of Assam shifted to Dispur from Shillong ?

(1) 1974 (2)1978

(3) 1985 (4) 1960

Ans:-1

6. Identify the man-made element:

(1) Carbon (2) Gold

(3) Californium (4) Calcium

Ans:-3

7. A man- borrows Rs. 200 at 5% compound interest. At the end of each year he pays back Rs. 50. At the end of 4 years he owes:

(1) Rs. 27.59 (2) Rs. 28.10.

(3) Rs. 27.81 (4) Rs. 28.14.

Ans:-1

8. The three temples, the Shivadol, the Vishnudol and the Devldol are situated at which place of Assam?

(1) Silghat (2) Sibsagar (3)Sadiya (4)Sarthebari

Ans:-2

9. Which of the following has the jurisdiction to hear about Fundamental Rights ?

(1) Supreme Court (2) High court

(3) Subordinate Court

(4) None of these

Ans:-1

10. Solar eclipse, occurs when

(1) Moon comes between the Sun and the Earth.

(2) The Sun comes between the Earth and moon.

(3) The Earth comes between the Sun and moon,

(4) None of these.

Ans:-1

11. What was the main occupation of the early Aryans in Rig Vedic period?

(1 ) Sculpture

(2) Animal husbandry

(3) Agriculture (4) Trade

Ans:-2

12. Which of the following is correctly matched?

(1) Goitre is caused due to deficiency. of— Vitamin D.

(2) Diabetes Is caused due to deficiency of — insulin

(3) Rickets is caused due to deficiency of – Vitamin A

(4) Night blindness is caused due to deficiency of— Iodine

Ans:-3

13. Six coins of gold and silver of equal weights are melted and new coins are cast. The ratio of gold and silver in one of the coins is 2: 1, in another two coins 3 : 5 and 7:5 In the remaining corns. What will be the ratio between gold and silver respectively in the new coins?’

(1) l2:11 (2)1:1 (3) 19: 17 (4) 42 : 25

Ans:-3

14. Which of the following does not contain carbohydrate?

(1) Potato (2) Maize (3) Banana (4) Pea

Ans:-4

15, Where is Namdafa Wild life Sanctuary located which is full of flora, fauna and avian with surprising dangers?

(1) Meghalaya (2) Mizoram (3) Nagaland

(4) Arunachal Pradesh

Ans:-4

16. The largest river island in the world. Majuli is located, in which of the following districts of Assam?

(1) Jorht (2) Dibrugarh

(3) Dhemaji (4) Tinsukia

Ans:-1

17. A person cannot see an object placed at a distance’ of less than

25 cm. The person suffers from.

(1) Astigmatism

(2) Myopia

(3) Longsighted ness

(4) None of these

Ans:-3

18. In photosynthesis light

(1) Is converted into kinetic energy

(2) Is converted into chemical energy

(3) Does not react with CO2 add water directly

(4) Acts as a catalyst -.

Ans:-2

19. Gandhiji gave the call “Do or Die” during

(1) Non-Cooperation Movement

(2) Civil Disobedience Movement

(3) Quit India Movement

(4) Industrial Satyagraha

Ans:-3

20. A black body emits

(1) Radiations of all wavelengths.

(2) No radiation.

(3) Radiation of one wavelength.

(4) Radiation of long wavelength .

Ans:-2

21. The depth of seals measured in:

(1) Feet (2) fathom (3) nautical (4) mile

Ans:-2

22. Erie silk is produced by Philosemia Resina silk worm.The worm is cultured in the plant of:

(1) castor (2)oak

(3) papaya (4) silk cotton.

Ans:-1

23. Which of the following rights is a political right?

(1)the right to be elected

(2) The right to life

(3) The right to have education

(4) The right to form association

Ans:-1

24. Which of the following two places are connected by the road in India, which is constructed on the highest altitude in the world?

(1) Leh and Manali (2) Jammu and Srinagar (3) Sikkim and Darjeeling (4) Srinagar and Leh

Ans:-1

25. Which part of the camera is equivalent to the retina of human eye?

(1) Lens, (2) Film

(3) Aperture (4) Shutter

Ans:-2

26. The largest island of the Asian Continent is:

(1) Indonesia (2) Borneo

(3) Sri Lanka (4) Myanmar

Ans:-3

27. When one ascends in the atmosphere the air becomes—-gradually.

(1) Rarer (2) dense

(3) Hot (4) obvious’

Ans:-1

28. During respiration carbohydrate is disintegrated into:

(1) Glycogen

(2) Carbon dioxide and water

(3) Oxygen and Carbon dioxide

(4) Glucose

Ans:-1

29. When the door of refrigerator is opened in a closed room, then:

(1) Room turns to be cooler

(2) The temperature of room falls

(3) The temperature of room is not affected

(4) The room becomes hotter gradually

Ans:-4

30. Who is called the First Citizen of India?

(1) President of India

(2) Prime Minister of India

(3) Mahatma Gandhi (4) Dr. BR Ambedkar

Ans:-1

31. Panini was a famous scholar of:

(1) Language and grammar

(2) Ayurveda

(3) Astronomy (4) Biology

Ans:-1

32. Which of the following is not a mineral?

(1) Slate (2) Limestone

(3) Coal (4) Calcite

Ans:-4

33.The state -of rising prices due to an enhancement in the quantity of money in circulation, termed as:

(1) Inflation

(2) Deflation -

(3) Demonetization

(4) Devaluation

Ans:-1

34. Name the minerals that are essential for hone and teeth formation in human:

(1) Calcium-and Phosphorus (2) Magnesium and Potassium

(3) Sodium and Iron (4) Iodine and Sulphur

Ans:-1

35. Ripe mangoes contains:

(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B (3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin E

Ans:-3

36. In which one of the following places, the boiling point of water is the highest?

(1) Dead Sea (2) Mt. Everest (3) Nile Delta (4) Sunder ban Delta

Ans:-2

37. The primary colours used in a colour TV are: -

(I) Green, Yellow, Violet

(2) Violet, Red, Orange

(3) Blue, Green, Red

(4) Blue, Green, Violet

Ans:-3

38. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right guaranteed by the Indian Constitution?

(1) Freedom to manage religious- affairs.

(2) Free and compulsory education up to primary stage.

(3) Prohibition of employment of children in factories.

(4) freedom to propagate religion.

Ans:-2

39. The chief merit of a federal government is that It:

(1) Ensures a strong government at the centre

(2) Integrates national unity with regional autonomy

(3) Keeps a check on the multiparty Systems

(4) Is very less expensive

Ans:-2

40. The First Assamese to become the President of India was-:

(1) Satyeda Anowara Talmur.

(2) Gopinath Bordoloi .

(3) Fakaruddln Ali Ahmed.

(4) Syed Abdul Malik .

Ans:-3

41. Match List – I with List — II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List—I

a. Amjad Ali Khan

b.Ali Hussain

c.Hari Prasad Chaurasia

d. Alla Rakha

List—II

1. Flute

2. Sarod

3. Tabla

4. Shehnai

Codes

A b e d

(1)2 1 3 4

(2)4 2 1 3

(3)2 4 1 3

(4)1 2 3. 4

Ans:-3

42. A dentist’s mirror is a:

(1) Cylindrical mirror (2) plane mirror

(3) Convex mirror (4) concave mirror

Ans:-4

RRB ASM EXAM 2010 SOLVED PAPER

1. Destination India&conference on commerce and trade was
organised at:

(a) Zurich (b) Bangalore (c) Singapore (d) Tokyo

2. According to a survey by Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry
which of the following countries tops the list on labour productivity:

(a) India (b) Luxembourg (c) Belgium (d) France

3. India s first Asset Reconstruction Company s road map was prepared by

( a) SBI (b) IDBI (c) ICICI (d) HDFC

4. Which of the following country is the new member of International Coffee
Organisation?

(a) India (b) Sri Lanka (c) Kenya (d) Vietnam

5. Who among the following headed the Indo-UK Round Table conference held at
London to strengthen bilateral ties between the two countries?

(a) Swaraj Paul (b) Jaswant Singh(c) K.C. Pant (d) Yashwant Sinha

6. Diva a specially ! ! designed women s international credit
card has been launched by:

(a) Federal Bank (b) Standard Chartered Bank(c) Dresdner Bank (d) ABN-Amro Bank

7. Richard Grasso is the head of:

(a) NASDAQ(b) London Stock Exchange(c) New York Stock Exchange(d) Dubai Stock
Exchange

8. Indiva is the multipurpose vehicle, launched by____at the
international motorshow in Geneva.

(a) TELCO (b) BAJAJ and SIL (c) LML (d) HONDA


9. Match the following Company/organisation Chief Executive Officer

I. General Electricals A. Harvey Pitt

II. Star Alliance B. S. Devarajah

III.Securities and C. Jeff Immelt Exchange Commission D. Cheong Choong Kong

IV.Manufacturer s Association of Information Technology

Code:I II III IV

(a) A B C D(b) B A C D(c) C D B A(d) D C A B

10. Nokia Corporation, the leading mobile phone makers is a___based company.

(a) USA (b) Japan (c) Philippines (d) Finland! !

11. ICENET is the network connecting the offices of the:

(a) Central Board of Excise and Customs(b) State Bank of India(c) Human Resource
Ministry(d) External Affairs Ministry

12. Geographical Information System Software known as Gram Chitra
was unveiled by:

(a) C-DAC (b) Media Labs Asia(c) Satyam Infoway (d) Honda

13. The Kofi Annan Institute for IT Excellence, has been set by India at____:

(a) Kenya (b) Guatemala (c) Ghana (d) Durban

14. India s first Defence Intelligence Agency became operational in___2002.

(a) June (b) March (c) April (d) May

15. The first hydel project in Andaman and Nicobar islands has been
commissioned by:

(a) NHPC (b) Dabhol Power Corporation(c) BHEL (d) NTPC

16. First Indian Laboratory (and India to be the 26th country) to be
accredited by the College of American Pathology is:

(a) Cipla lab (b) Speciality Ranbaxy Ltd(c) Zydu! ! s Cadila Ltd (d) Sun Pharma
lab

17. Smart Kid Insurance policy has been launched for students by:

(a) Tata-AIG (b) SBI-Cardif(c) ICICI Prudential (d) LICI

18. Who among the following has been appointed as the chairman of Central
Electricity Authority:

(a) J.L. Bajaj (b) H.L. Bajaj(c) Y.N. Prasad (d) J.L. Raina

19. Chilka Development Authority, the first organisation in the Asian
subcontinent to receive Ramsar Wetland Conservation Award for the year 2002 is
in:

(a) Kerala (b) Orissa (c) Assam (d) Uttaranchal

20. The chief architect of Ganga Action Plan, an environmentalist and
recipient of various awards died recently. Name him.

(a) Md. Bazzi (b) Arshad-uz-Zaman(c) Dr T.N. Khoshro (d) George Soros

21. CBE-2002 a NATO exercise by Canada, Greece, Hungary, Turkey, UK and US
was launched in____, for NATO peace programme.

(a) Georgia (b) Angola (c) Durban (d) Ireland

22. 2002 MN is the name of:

(a) Supercomputer (b) Asteroid(c) Spacecraft (d) Star

23. Orange Prize is given in the field of:

(a) literature (b) sports (c) medicine (d) acting

24. In the global tea production, India accounts for____per cent of tea
production.

(a) 27 (b) 26.7 (c) 24.3 (d) 27.7

25. USA has signed a legislation to protect the country from biological
terrorist attack worth:

(a) $ 4.6 billion (b) $ 6 billion(c) $ 7 billion (d) $ 8 billion

26. World day to combat desertification and drought is observed on:

(a) June 17 (b) June 20 (c) April 17 (d) July 20

27. Name the robot spacecraft, launched by NASA to observe frozen core of
comets.

(a) Contour (b) Odyssey (c) Dumar (d) Columbia

28. Blue Ocean, the World s most powerful Supercomputer, is specifically
designed for:

(a) NASA(b) US Naval Oceanographic office(c) US Federal Reserve Bank(d) US
Intelligence Agency

29. To review the disclosure and investor protection guidelines, a committee
was constituted by SEBI under:

(a) T.N. Chaturvedi (b) A.K. Basu(c) N.J. Reddy (d) Y.H. Malegam

30. First State to introduce a life insurance scheme covering 1.2 crore
students and three lakh teachers is:

(a) Karnataka (b) Madhya Pradesh(c) Maharashtra (d) Rajasthan

31. Hrithik Roshan has turned down an offer to act in the Warner Brother s
film,____due to unavailability of dates.

(a) Escape from Taliban(b) Hamlet(c) Three Wall(d) Hey Ram! Genocide in the land
of Gandhi

32. The Shade of Swords” is a book written by:

(a) M.J. Akbar (b) Manil Suri(c) Urmila Lanba! ! (d) Vasant Potdar

33. India s first Jan Shatabdi Express between Mumbai-Goa was commenced on:

(a) April 16, 2002 (b) April 20, 2002(c) June 20, 2002 (d) June 16, 2002

34. Who among the following has been appointed as the chairman of IIM
Ahmedabad:

(a) Y.C. Deveshwar (b) N.R. Narayana Murthy(c) Sanjiv Gupta (d) M. Damodaran

35. Automobile Industry s man of the year 2002 is:

(a) Carlos Ghoshn (Japan) (b) Dr Mark Faber(c) Dr Doom (d) Lious Haochuang

36. Who among the following has been named as the White Lightning in the
cricket?

(a) Adam Parore (New Zealand)(b) Allan Donald (South Africa)(c) Ben Hollioake (Australia)(d)
Dion Nash (New Zealand)

37. Which Indian cricketer has bagged a deal with ESPN?

(a) Md Kaif (b) Yuvraj(c) Sachin Tendulkar (d) Anil Kumble

38. Who among the following is the official sponsors of the Indian team at
the Asian Games to be held ! ! in Busan, South Korea?

(a) Phillips (b) Sahara (c) LG (d) Samsung

39. 24 Brand Mantras is a book written by:

(a) Bimal Chowdhary (b) Shiv Khera(c) Arindam R. Chowdhary (d) Jagdeep Kapoor

40. Ist developing country in the world to make use of fire optics technology
is:

(a) China (b) Japan (c) India (d) Vietnam

41. Defence Research and Development Organisation was formed in the year:

(a) 1980 (b) 1958 (c) 1956 (d) 1975

42. Who among the following has been appointed as the President of the
flagship channel Zee TV:

(a) Apurva Purohit (b) Pritish Nandi(c) Jitendra K. Singh (d) Raghu Rai

43. India s first commercially manufactured sports car is:

(a) Reeva (b) Indigo (c) Sedan (d) Fibro

44. How many new railway zones have been notified by the Railway Ministry in
July 2002:

(a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 14 (d) 5

45. Name the quarterly magazine, launched by The Time Grou! ! p.

(a) Bindia (b) b-drive(c) businessdrive.com (d) none of these

46. According to Economic Intelligence Unit, maximum amount of FDI is
received by:

(a) India (b) China (c) South Korea (d) Brazil

47. European Union Summit was held in Slovenia at:

(a) Bled (b) Geory (c) Repti (d) Ottowom

48. Transport Research and Injury Prevention Programme was awarded the
Stockholm award and is unveiled by:

(a) IIT, Kanpur (b) IIT, Delhi(c) IIT, Kharagpur (d) IIT, Chennai

49. Alvaro Silva Calderon was appointed as the Secretary General of:

(a) OPEC (b) FIEO (c) NACO (d) AIMPLB

50. ASEAN was set up in the year:

(a) 1985 (b) 1975 (c) 1967 (d) 1958

ANSWERS

1. (a)2. (b)3. (c)4. (d)5. (c)6. (b)7. (c)8. (a)9. (c)10. (d)11. (a)12. (b)13.
(c)14. (c)15. (a)16. (b)17. (a)18. (b)19. (b)20. (c)21. (a)22. (b)23. (a)24.
(d)25. (a)26. (a)27. (a)28. (b)29. (d)30. (a)31. (b)32. (a)33. (a)34. (b)35.
(a)36. (b)37. (c)38. (d)39. (d)40. (c)41. (c)42. (a)43. (a)44. (d)45. (b)46.
(c)47. (a)48. (b)49. (a)50. (c)

RRB PATNA ESM Gr-III EXAM (Exam Held On 30-01-2011) SOLVED PAPER

FOR RRB PATNA ESM Gr-III EXAM (Exam Held On 30-01-2011) SOLVED PAPER CLICK HERE

Railway Protection Force / Railway Protection Special Force (RPF / RPSF) Recruitment

Government of India
Ministry of Railways
Railway Protection Force / Railway Protection Special Force (RPF / RPSF)

Advertisement No. 1/2011

Recruitment of Constables (Male/Female) in RPF/RPSF


Applications are invited from eligible male / female candidates for filling up the following posts of Constables in Railway Protection Force / Railway Protection Special Force.

• Constable : 11952 posts (UR-6901, SC-1317, ST-1363, OBC-2371), Pay Scale : Rs.5200-2000/- Grade Pay Rs.2000/, Qualification : Matriculation or equivalent from recognised board., Age : 18-25 years

Application Fee : Rs.40/- in the form of Indian Postal Order/ Bank Draft in favour of The Financial Advisor and Chief Accounts Officer ........ Railway at (Gorakhpur/ Kolkata/ Bhubaneshwar/ Chennai). No fee for Women/ SC/ ST/ Economic Backwards and Minorities.

How to apply : The applications in the prescribed format should be sent to the Nodal Chief Security Commissioner of North Eastern Railway/ Eastern Railway/ East Coast Railway/ Southern Railway as the full address is provided in the detailed advertisement within 30 days i.e. upto 28/03/2011.

For more information and application form, please visit http://indianrailways.gov.in or please click on the image to view/ download the details.

RRB Engineering Solved Questions

1. A parabolic curve introduced between straight and a circular curve or between two branches of a compound curve for ease, comfort and safety of movement of trains on curve is called:
(a) Spur curve (b) Transition curve
(c) Summit curve (d) Valley curve
Ans : B

2. The staggered rails joints are usually provided on:
(a) Bridge (b) Curves (c) Branching (d) Tangents
Ans : B

3. The track capacity can be increased by:
(a) Faster movement of trains on the track
(b) By using more powerful engines
(c) All the above
(d) None of the above
Ans : C

4. The railway station at which a track line meets a main line is called:
(a) terminal station (b) flag station
(c) way side station (d) junction station
Ans : D

5. The limiting value of super elevation of board gauge in Indian Railways is:
(a) 16.50 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 10 cm
Ans : A

6. The chart used for recording the condition of track is known as:
(a) Rolling chart (b) Track chart
(c) Hallade chart (d) Vibro chart
Ans: C

7. The most common system of signaling in India is the …… system.
(a) automatic block (b) section clear system
(c) absolute block (d) pilot guard system
Ans : C

8. The feeder gauge …. is commonly used for feeding raw materials to big Government manufacturing concerns as well as to private factories such as steel plants, oil refineries, sugar factories etc.
(a) 0.6096 m (b) 0.792 m (c) 1m (d) 1.676 m
Ans : A

9. Which one of the following bolts is not used in rail track:
(a) Fang bolt (b) Eye bolt (c) Rag bolt (d) Fish bolt
Ans : B

10. The gradient which requires one or more additional locomotive for hauling the load over the gradient is called:
(a) Up-gradient (b) Pusher gradient
(c) Steep gradient (d) Momentum gradient
Ans : B

11. Points and crossings are provided for change of ….on permanent ways.
(a) gauge (b) direction and gradient
(c) direction (d) gradient
Ans : C

12. In locomotive ‘hunting’ is:
(a) Movement of locomotive in vertical plane perpendicular to its movement along the track
(b) Sinuous path taken by engine as against the alignment of the track
(c) Motion after brakes have been applied
(d) Combination of A and B above
Ans : D

13. The rails which get battered due to action of wheels over the end of the rails are called:
(a) Hogged rails (b) Roaring rails
(c) Creep rails (d) Bucking rails
Ans : A

14. In broad gauge, the clear horizontal distance between the inner faces of two parallel rails forming the track is:
(a) 1 m (b) 1.676 m (c) 0.6096 m (d) 0.792 m
Ans : B

15. As per Indian standard, the recommended width of ballast section at foot level of rails for broad gauge tracks should be:
(a) 4.38 m (b) 3.35 m (c) 1.83 m (d) 2.25 m
Ans : B

16. The minimum length of a passenger platform for broad gauge railway should not be less than:
(a) 305 m (b) 183 m (c) 495 m (d) 250 m
Ans : A

17. Generally the shape of fish plate is:
(a) elliptical (b) bone shaped (c) circular (d) rectangular
Ans : B

18. For wooden sleepers, size of the ballast should be:
(a) 2.54 cm (b) 10.16 cm (c) 3.8 cm (d) 5.1 cm
Ans : C

69. The length of track under the control of a Ganger is:
(a) 10 to 15 Km (b) 5 to 6 KM
(c) 3 to 5 KM (d) 1 to 2 KM
Ans : B

20. The maximum rising gradient which is provided keeping the power of locomotive in view, is called
(a) Momentum gradient (b) Pusher gradient
(c) Down gradient (d) Ruling gradient
Ans : D

21. The latest system of signaling introduced is:
(a) C.T.C. system (b) pilot guard system
(c) section clear system (d) automatic block system
Ans : A

22. Detonating signals are used:
(a) for noisy engines
(b) during foggy and cloudy weather
(c) for deaf drivers
(d) not now, were in use in nineteenth century only
Ans : B

23. The number of fish bolts used for joining the rails with the help of fish plates, is generally:
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 6
Ans : A

24. The Railways provided underground at a depth of about 18 m or more are called:
(a) Mono railway (b) Underground railway
(c) Railway (d) Tube railway
Ans : D

25. The art of providing an outward slope of …. to the treads of wheels of rolling stock is known as coning of wheels.
(a) 1 in 30 (b) 1 in 10 (c) 1 in 4 (d) 1 in 20
Ans : D

26. The process of connecting a track length by an electric circuit is known as track circuiting and the sleepers which are suitable for it are:
(a) cast iron sleepers (b) steel sleepers
(c) wooden sleepers (d) all above are suitable
Ans : C

27. The movable tapered end of the tongue rail is known as:
(a) heel of switch (b) toe of switch
(c) stretcher bar (d) throw of switch
Ans : B

28. The yard where trains and other loads are received, sorted out, trains formed and dispatched onwards are known as:
(a) locomotive yard (b) goods yard
(c) marshalling yard (d) station yard
Ans : C

29. Wider gauge permits:
(a) sleeper gradients (b) low axle load
(c) higher operating speeds (d) sharp curves
Ans : C

30. Which one of the following is expected to have shorter life?
(a) Steam engine (b) Diesel engine
(c) Electric engine (d) Shunting engine
And : B

31. The movable end of the tapered rail, by means of which the flanged wheels of the train are diverted from one track to another is known as:
(a) Toe (b) Stud (c) Heel (d) Flare
Ans : A

32. The creep in rails is measured in:
(a) cm/kg (b) cm (c) Kg/cm (d) kg cm
Ans : B

33. When a rail loses its weight by 5%, it should be renewed and the old one can be used on unimportant tracks, but the rails which have lost their weight by more than …., should not be used on any track under any circumstances.
(a) 8% (b) 33.3% (c) 10% (d) 20%
Ans : C

34. In railways, super elevation is provided to:
(a) facilitate drainage
(b) counteract the centrifugal push
(c) counteract the centripetal pull
(d) have all the effects mentioned above
Ans : B

35. The additional track connected to main line at both of its ends is called:
(a) running line (b) loop line
(c) main line (d) none are correct
Ans : B

36. The rails which help in channelising the wheels in their proper routes are known as:
(a) Guard rails (b) Wing rails? (c) Check rails (d) Lead rails
Ans : B

37. The shape of wheels of rolling stock is:
(a) Tapered with flange on outside
(b) Parallel with flange on inside
(c) Tapered with flange on inside
(d) Parallel with flange on outside
Ans : C

38. The maximum gradient for broad gauge in station yards in Indian Railways is:
(a) 1 in 100 (b) 1 in 1000 (c) 1in 200 (d) 1 in 400
Ans : D

39. The force which resists the forward movement and speed of train is called:
(a) Track modulus (b) Hauling resistance
(c) friction (d) Tractive resistance
Ans : D

4. The tractive resistance of the route in railways as compared to roadways will be:
(a) same (b) more (c) low (d) not comparable
Ans : C

41. Sand is used as ballast incase of:
(a) steel sleepers
(b) wooden sleepers
(c) reinforced concrete sleepers
(d) cast iron sleepers
Ans : D

42. Arm type fixed signals, fitted on a vertical post fixed at the side of a track, are called:
(a) Warner signals (b) Starter signals
(c) Semaphore signals (d) Cab signals
Ans : C

43. The Railway provided just below the ground level are called:
(a) Tube railway (b) Underground railway
(c) Mono railway (d) Railway
Ans : B

44. When a railway line crosses a valley, a ridge like structure consisting of a series of piers, piles or trestles on which steel girders are placed and which is constructed usually for small spans is known as:
(a) Bridge (b) Tunnel (c) Viaduct (d) Aqueduct
Ans : C

45. Creeping of rails will be reduced by using:
(a) Bearing plates (b) Spikes (c) Chairs (d) Anchors
Ans : D

46. The railway track from which a train is to be diverted is called:
(a) branch track (b) points and crossing
(c) main or through track (d) all above
Ans : C

47. An expansion gap of …. is usually kept between the adjoining rail ends to allow for expansion of rail, due to variation in temperature.
(a) 1 to 3 mm (b) 10 to 15 mm
(c) 6 to 8 mm (d) 3 to 5 mm
Ans : C

48. Generally the weight/metre of the rails used in broad gauge is:
(a) 55 kg (b) 45 kg (c) 35 kg (d) 65 kg
Ans : A

49. A dynamometer car is used for:
(a) Tourists (b) Dinning facilities
(c) Inspection of administrative officers
(d) Recording the condition of track
Ans : D

50. Which of the following is not a part of rail engine?
(a) Tender (b) Stream turbine (c) Boiler (d) Fire box
Ans : B