| POST | AGE LIMIT | QUALIFICATION |
| Commercial Apprentice | Min 18 yrs, Max: 33 yrs | Degree from recognized University or its equivalent. Diploma in Rail Transport and Management from the Institute of Rail Transport will be an additional desirable qualification |
| Traffic Apprentice | Min 18 yrs, Max: 33 yrs. | Degree from recognized University or its equivalent. Diploma in Rail Transport and Management from the Institute of Rail Transport will be an additional desirable qualification |
| ECRC | Min 18 yrs, Max: 33 yrs. | Degree from recognized University or its equivalent |
| Goods Guard | Min 18 yrs, Max: 33 yrs. | Degree from recognized University or its equivalent |
| Jr. Accounts Assistant cum Typist | Min 18 yrs, Max: 33 yrs | Degree from recognized University or its equivalent. Preference being given to persons with I & II Divisions, Honours & Master Degree. Typing proficiency in English/Hindi on Computer/Typewriter is essential |
| Sr. Clerk cum Typist | Min 18 yrs, Max: 33 yrs. | Degree from recognized University or its equivalent. Typing proficiency in English/Hindi on Computer/Typewriter is essential |
| Assistant Station Master | Min 18 yrs, Max: 33 yrs. | Degree from recognized University or equivalent. Diploma in Rail Transport & Management, Transport Economics, Multimodal Transport (Containerization ) awarded by Institute of Rail Transport, Rail Bhawan, New Delhi will be additional desirable qualification. |
| Traffic Assistant | Min 18 yrs, Max: 33 yrs. | Degree from recognized University or equivalent. Diploma in Rail Transport & Management, Transport Economics, Multimodal Transport (Containerization ) awarded by Institute of Rail Transport, Rail Bhawan, New Delhi will be additional desirable qualification |
| Senior Section Engineers | 20 years to 35 years | Graduation degree in relevant stream |
| Junior Engineer | 18 years to 33 years | Diploma in relevant stream |
| Senior P-Way Supervisor | 18 years to 33 years | Diploma in civil engineering |
| Chief Depot Material Superintend | 18 years to 35 years | Graduation in Engineering in any stream |
| Depot Material Superintend | 18 years to 33 years | Diploma in Engineering in any stream |
Tuesday, September 17, 2013
RRB Various Posts and Eligibility
East Central Railway Recruitment of Group - D Posts
Applications are invited for the following posts:
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Qualifications: 10th Pass or ITI / Centre of Excellence (COE) or equivalent. Candidates appearing at and/or awaiting results of the final examinations of 10th / ITI / COE or equivalent on the date of application are not eligible to apply. Educational qualification must be from recognised institutions / boards, otherwise candidature will be cancelled.
Age Limit: The minimum age limit is 18 years and the upper age limit is 33 year as on 01/01/2014. Application Fee: Rs. 100/- payable in the form of crossed Indian Postal Order only, drawn in favour of Assistant Personnel Officer (RRC), Railway Recruitment Cell, E.C. Railway, payable at Patna. Selection Process: Written Examination, Physical Efficiency Test (PET), Document and candidature verification and Medical examination. How to Apply: The duly filled up application along with the required documents should be addressed to the Assistant Personnel Officer (RRC), Railway Recruitment Cell, East Central Railway, Polson Complex, Digha Ghat, Patna – 800011, Bihar. Or dropped in the Application Box / Room at Railway Recruitment Cell office, East Central Railway, Polson Complex, Digha Ghat, Patna – 800011 Bihar. Last Date: 14/10/2013 For more details Click here |
Central Railway, Solapur Division Recruitment of Para Medical Staff
Applications are invited for filling up of Para Medical Staff in Group C on contract basis:
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Walk-in-interview: 17/09/2013 For more details Click here |
Saturday, September 14, 2013
RRC Patna Recruitment of Porter, Trackman, Helper II, Gr D Posts
Railway Recruitment Cell (RRC), Patns has issued notification for recruitment of the 4655 Porter, Trackman, Helper II, Gr D Posts.
Post Details:
1. Porter: 184 Posts
2. Trackman: 323 Posts
3. Helper-II (Mech): 195 Posts
4. Helper-II (S&T): 73 Posts
5. Helper-II (Elect): 58 Posts
6. Gr.'D' (Engg.): 94 Posts
7. Gr.'D' ( Store): 04 Posts
Total No. of Posts: 4655
Qualification:
Candidates should possess 10th Pass or ITI / Centre of Excellence (COE) or equivalent from Recognized Institutions / Boards.
Selection Process:
Performance in written test, physical efficiency test, documents and candidature verification and medical examination.
Address:
Assistant Personnel Officer (RRC), Railway Recruitment Cell, East Central Railway, Polson Complex, Digha Ghat, Patna – 800011, Bihar or dropped in the Application Box / Room at Railway Recruitment Cell office, East Central Railway, Polson Complex, Digha Ghat, Patna – 800011 Bihar.
Last Date for submission of Application: 14 October 2013
Website : http://www.rrcecr.gov.in/
Post Details:
1. Porter: 184 Posts
2. Trackman: 323 Posts
3. Helper-II (Mech): 195 Posts
4. Helper-II (S&T): 73 Posts
5. Helper-II (Elect): 58 Posts
6. Gr.'D' (Engg.): 94 Posts
7. Gr.'D' ( Store): 04 Posts
Total No. of Posts: 4655
Qualification:
Candidates should possess 10th Pass or ITI / Centre of Excellence (COE) or equivalent from Recognized Institutions / Boards.
Selection Process:
Performance in written test, physical efficiency test, documents and candidature verification and medical examination.
Address:
Assistant Personnel Officer (RRC), Railway Recruitment Cell, East Central Railway, Polson Complex, Digha Ghat, Patna – 800011, Bihar or dropped in the Application Box / Room at Railway Recruitment Cell office, East Central Railway, Polson Complex, Digha Ghat, Patna – 800011 Bihar.
Last Date for submission of Application: 14 October 2013
Website : http://www.rrcecr.gov.in/
Northern Railway Recruitment of Licenced Porters
Northern Railway invites application for the recruitment of Licenced Porters Posts at Railway station Shri Mata Vaishno Devi Katra (J & K) of Firozepur Division.
Post Details:
Licenced Porters: 60 Posts
Qualification: Valid Driving Licence.
Age Limit: 18 years as on 01.08.2013
Address: Chief Office Supdt. Commercial Branch, Divisional Railway Manager's office, Firozepur Cantt Punjab.
Last date for receiving application: 27 September 2013
Website: http://www.nr.indianrailways.gov.in/index.jsp
Post Details:
Licenced Porters: 60 Posts
Qualification: Valid Driving Licence.
Age Limit: 18 years as on 01.08.2013
Address: Chief Office Supdt. Commercial Branch, Divisional Railway Manager's office, Firozepur Cantt Punjab.
Last date for receiving application: 27 September 2013
Website: http://www.nr.indianrailways.gov.in/index.jsp
Sunday, September 8, 2013
Railtel Corporation of India Ltd Recruitment of Field Supervisor Posts
Railtel Corporation of India Limited, Mini Ratna PSU of the Ministry of Railways has published notification for the recruitment of 40 Field Supervisor Posts for the projects in Southern and western regions.
Post Details:
1.Field Supervisor (Southern Region): 20 Posts
2.Field Supervisor (Western Region): 20 Posts
Qualification:
Candidates must possess BE / B.Tech / Diploma in Electronics / Telecom / Communication / Electrical / IT/ Computer Science or MCA with minimum 55% and with relevant experience.
Selection Process:
Written Test and Interview.
Address:
Manager (Rectt), RailTel Corporation of India Limited, Corporate Office, 143, Institutional Area, Sector 44, Gurgaon-122003.
Last Date for Receipt of Application: 13 September 2013
Post Details:
1.Field Supervisor (Southern Region): 20 Posts
2.Field Supervisor (Western Region): 20 Posts
Qualification:
Candidates must possess BE / B.Tech / Diploma in Electronics / Telecom / Communication / Electrical / IT/ Computer Science or MCA with minimum 55% and with relevant experience.
Selection Process:
Written Test and Interview.
Address:
Manager (Rectt), RailTel Corporation of India Limited, Corporate Office, 143, Institutional Area, Sector 44, Gurgaon-122003.
Last Date for Receipt of Application: 13 September 2013
Saturday, August 31, 2013
SOUTH CENTRAL RAILWAY RECRUITMENT OF GROUP-D POSTS
South Central Railway, Secunderabad invites applications for the recruitment of 2801Group D Posts.
Post Details:
1. Trackman: 1979
2. Helper-II: 440
3. Assistant Points man: 382
Total No. of posts: 2801
Qualification:
Candidates should posses qualification of pass in 10th or ITI or equivalent. Candidates who appearing or awaiting results of the final examinations of 10th/ITI or equivalent on the date of application are not eligible to apply.
Age Limite:
The normal age (in complete years) for the recruitment is 18-33 years reckoned as on 01.01.14.
Application Fee: Rs.100/-
Assistant Personnel Officer / RRC / SC, Written Examination Control Centre, Railway Bunglow No.100, Opp. St. Anthony's Church, Beside Mettuguda Bus stop, South Lallaguda, Secunderabad (A.P).
Last Date for submission of application: 30 September 2013
For Detailed Notification Click Here
Post Details:
1. Trackman: 1979
2. Helper-II: 440
3. Assistant Points man: 382
Total No. of posts: 2801
Qualification:
Candidates should posses qualification of pass in 10th or ITI or equivalent. Candidates who appearing or awaiting results of the final examinations of 10th/ITI or equivalent on the date of application are not eligible to apply.
Age Limite:
The normal age (in complete years) for the recruitment is 18-33 years reckoned as on 01.01.14.
Application Fee: Rs.100/-
Assistant Personnel Officer / RRC / SC, Written Examination Control Centre, Railway Bunglow No.100, Opp. St. Anthony's Church, Beside Mettuguda Bus stop, South Lallaguda, Secunderabad (A.P).
Last Date for submission of application: 30 September 2013
For Detailed Notification Click Here
Friday, August 30, 2013
North Eastern Railway Recruitment of Group D Posts
Applications are invited for the following Group D posts:
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Sr. DPO/Lucknow:
Qualifications: Minimum 10th pass or ITI or equivalent. Those candidates who are appearing in and/or awaiting results of final examination of class 10th are not eligible. Academic qualification certificate recoginsed for the purpose of Employment in Indian Railways must be from a recognised Educational Institution / Board, otherwise candidature will be rejected.
Examination Fee: Rs. 100/- is payable of Indian Postal Order drawn in favour of "Assistant Personnel Officer (Recruitment), RRC, N.E. Railway. Validity of Indian Postal Order (IPO) should be of at least six month. SC/ST Candidates, Ex-Servicemen, Persons with Disabilities, Women candidates, Minority candidates and candidates belonging to OBC except Crimilayer i.e. Economically Backward Classes are exempted from payment of examination fees. Note: Minorities will mean Muslims, Christens, Sikhs, Buddhists and Zorastrians (Parsis). Economically backward classes will mean the candidates whose family income is less than the prescribed income limit are exempted from payment of fee. How to Apply: The completed applications in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the Assistant Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell, North Eastern Railway, CCM Annexe Building, Railway Road No. 14., Gorakhpur (U.P) - 273012. Last Date: 24/09/2013 For more details Click here |
South Central Railway Recruitment of Group C & Group D Posts
South Central Railway (Railway Recruitment Cell) invites application for the following posts:
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Group C: 21 Posts
Qualifications: i). 10th class pass or above. ii). Graduation from any recognised university.
Group D PB-1: 40 Posts Qualifications: SSC. However, outstanding sportspersons who do not possess SSC but having the qualification of 8th passed shall also apply. They will be considered for recruitment in (-) 1S Pay Band. Age Limit: 18 to 25 years as on 01-01-2014. Fees: Rs.40/- for post in Grade Pay Rs. 1800/- and 1Rs .900/2000/- and Rs. 60/- for those in Grade Pay Rs.2400/2800/-. Fee should be paid in the form of crossed Bank Draft/Indian Postal Order drawn in favour of Financial Advisor & Chief Accounts Officer, South Central Railway payable at Secunderabad for the posts of Headquarters and Senior Divisional Finance Manager of respective divisions for the divisional posts. The fee is not refundable under any circumstances. Candidates belonging to SC/ST communities, Women, Minority and Economically Backward Classes (Family income is less than ` 50,000/- per annum) are exempted from the payment of fees. How to Apply: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the following address as mention below:
Last Date: 23/09/2013
For more details Click here |
East Central Railway Hajipur Recruitment of Various Posts
Applications are invited for the following posts for only serving Railway employees of East Central Railway.
1. Trains Clerk: 14 Posts
Qualifications: Matriculation or its equivalent with not less than 50% marks in the aggregate. SC/ST/PH candidates who have passed Matriculation can apply irrespective of marks obtained by them in Matriculation. Candidates who have passes higher qualification can apply irrespective of marks obtained by them in matriculation.
2. Goods Guard: 103 Posts
Qualifications: Degree or equivalent.
3. Traffic Apprentice: 15 Posts
Qualifications: Degree or equivalent. Diploma in Rail Transport management will be an additional desirable qualification.
How to Apply: The duly filled in application in the prescribed format along with the required documents should be addressed to the Senior Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Recruitment Cell, CPO Office, East Central Railway, Hajipur (Vaishali) –844101, Bihar.
Last Date: 30/09/2013
For more details Click here
1. Trains Clerk: 14 Posts
Qualifications: Matriculation or its equivalent with not less than 50% marks in the aggregate. SC/ST/PH candidates who have passed Matriculation can apply irrespective of marks obtained by them in Matriculation. Candidates who have passes higher qualification can apply irrespective of marks obtained by them in matriculation.
2. Goods Guard: 103 Posts
Qualifications: Degree or equivalent.
3. Traffic Apprentice: 15 Posts
Qualifications: Degree or equivalent. Diploma in Rail Transport management will be an additional desirable qualification.
How to Apply: The duly filled in application in the prescribed format along with the required documents should be addressed to the Senior Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Recruitment Cell, CPO Office, East Central Railway, Hajipur (Vaishali) –844101, Bihar.
Last Date: 30/09/2013
For more details Click here
Wednesday, August 28, 2013
South Eastern Railway Recruitment of Sports Quota Posts
South Eastern Railway Recruitment against Sports Quota through Talent Scouting for the year 2013-14.
- Billiards & Snookers: 01 Post
- Archery (Women): 01 Post
- Archery (Women): 01 Post
- Power Lifting (Women): 01 Post
- Athletics (Men): 01 Post
- Athletics (Men): 01 Post
- Body Building: 01 Post
- Hockey (Women): 01 Post
- Table Tennis (Women): 01 Post
Qualifications: i). Sportspersons must possess the minimum educational qualification, as applicable to the post to which the sportsperson is to be appointed. ii). In case of Sportsperson having outstanding sports achievements, but does not possess the minimum educational qualification, relaxation in minimum educational qualification may be granted with the approval of Railway Board, subject to acquiring the minimum educational qualification within a period of 4 years from the date of appointment. However, for considering the case of relaxation in educational qualification, the sportsperson must have the minimum educational qualification required for recruitment in Railways. iii). The minimum educational qualification required for recruitment in the Railways: a) For posts with Grade Pay Rs. 1900/2000: Matric or equivalent. b) For posts with Grade Pay Rs.2400/2800/4200: Graduate. iv). Probation period of a sportsperson shall not be completed till he / she acquires the minimum educational qualification, if recruited by granting relaxation in minimum educational qualification. Further, the sportsperson also not entitled for any promotion till acquiring the minimum educational qualification.
How to Apply: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the Assistant Sports Officer, South Eastern Railway, 11, Garden Reach Road, Kolkata – 700043.
Last Date: 04/09/2013
For more details Click here
How to Apply: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the Assistant Sports Officer, South Eastern Railway, 11, Garden Reach Road, Kolkata – 700043.
Last Date: 04/09/2013
For more details Click here
Tuesday, August 27, 2013
Central Railway, Solapur Apprentices Training
Applications are invited for engagement of Act Apprentices under the Apprentice Act-1961 for training in the designated trades mentioned below, in Mechanical (C&W) Department Solapur Division, Solapur.
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Apprentices Training: 74 Posts
Qualifications: Passed 10th minimum with 50% marks in (State board / ICSE / CBSE / NIOS etc.) Matriculation and ITI.(Both qualification required).
How to Apply: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the “Divisional Railway Manager (Personnel) Solapur-413001”. Last Date: 20/09/2013 For more details Click here |
RRCCR Mumbai Recruitment of Various Posts
Railway Recruitment Cell Central Railway (RRCCR), Mumbai invites application for the following posts:
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Age Limit: Candidates age limit should be between 18-33 years as on 01/01/2014. Qualifications: 10th class passed or ITI or equivalent.
Applications Fee: Rs.100/- payable in the form of crossed demand draft from State Bank of India or from any other Nationalised Bank or crossed Indian Postal Order drawn in favour of Assistant Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell, Central Railway, Mumbai. SC / ST / Women / Minority Communities / EBC / Persons with disabilities and Ex. servicemen are exempted from payment of application fees. How to Apply: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents and DD should reach the Assistant Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell, Central Railway, Chief Project Manager (Conv.)’s Office Building, 1st Floor, P.D Mellow Road, Wadi Bunder, Mumbai - 400010. Important Dates:
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Central Railway (Railway Recruitment Cell) Sports Quota Posts Recruitment
Central Railway (Railway Recruitment Cell) invites application for the post of Sports Quota:
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Pay Scale: Rs 5200-20200 (Grade Pay 2,000-1900):
Qualifications: (Rs 5200-20200 Grade Pay 2,000-1900/1800) minimum SSC /Matriculation or equivalent. (Rs 5200-20200 Grade Pay 2,800-2400). Minimum Graduation in any faculty.
Processing Fee: For GL/OBC candidates Crossed Indian Postal Order of Rs. 100/- drawn in favour of Asst. Personnel Officer (RT), Railway Recruitment Cell, Central Railway Mumbai. SC/ST/Women’s/Minorities & Economically Backward Classes candidates are exempted from processing Fee. How to Apply: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the Assistant Personnel Officer (RT), Chief Personnel Officers Office, General Manager's Building, 1st floor, Chhatrapati, Shivaji Terminus. Mumbai- 400010. Last date: 23/09/2013 For more details Click here |
Friday, August 23, 2013
RailTel Corporation of India Ltd Recruitment of Field Supervisors
- Field Supervisor - (Southern Region) : 20 posts
- Field Supervisor - (Western Region ) : 20 posts
Qualification & Experience:
Diploma (3 years) in Electronics/Telecom/Communication/Electrical with minimum 55% marks, with minimum 3 (three) year managerial/supervisory experience in the field of execution of Optical Fiber Cable based telecom Infrastructure Projects and/or operation and maintenance of Optical Fiber Cable/equipment/network;
ORBE/B.Tech in Electronics/Telecom/Communication/Electrical/IT/Computer Science or MCA with minimum 55% marks, with minimum 1 (one) year managerial/supervisory experience in the field of execution of Optical Fiber Cable based telecom Infrastructure Projects and/or operation and maintenance of Optical Fiber Cable/ equipment/ network
Selection procedure: The selection will be made through written test and /or interview of short-listed candidates at a place to be decided by Railtel.
How to apply:The application, complete in all respects, along with self attested photocopies of the required documents should reach Manager (Rectt), RailTel Corporation of India Limited, Corporate Office, 143, Institutional Area, Sector 44, Gurgaon-122003 by unregistered post.
Last date for receipt of applications: 13th Sep, 2013
For more details Click here
Diploma (3 years) in Electronics/Telecom/Communication/Electrical with minimum 55% marks, with minimum 3 (three) year managerial/supervisory experience in the field of execution of Optical Fiber Cable based telecom Infrastructure Projects and/or operation and maintenance of Optical Fiber Cable/equipment/network;
ORBE/B.Tech in Electronics/Telecom/Communication/Electrical/IT/Computer Science or MCA with minimum 55% marks, with minimum 1 (one) year managerial/supervisory experience in the field of execution of Optical Fiber Cable based telecom Infrastructure Projects and/or operation and maintenance of Optical Fiber Cable/ equipment/ network
Selection procedure: The selection will be made through written test and /or interview of short-listed candidates at a place to be decided by Railtel.
How to apply:The application, complete in all respects, along with self attested photocopies of the required documents should reach Manager (Rectt), RailTel Corporation of India Limited, Corporate Office, 143, Institutional Area, Sector 44, Gurgaon-122003 by unregistered post.
Last date for receipt of applications: 13th Sep, 2013
For more details Click here
Monday, August 19, 2013
Kochi Metro Rail Limited (KMRL) Recruitment
Applications are invited from eligible candidates for following posts for Kochi Metro Project :
How to Apply : Applications shall be send to Manager (HR & Training), Kochi Metro Rail Ltd., 8th Floor, Revenue Tower, Par Avenue, Kochi – 682011 so as to reach the office latest by 10/09/2013.
For further details and Application format, Please visit http://kochimetro.org/careers/
- General Manager (Rolling Stock & Electrical) : 01 post
- General Manager (Signalling & Telecommunication) : 01 post
- Dy. General Manager (Signalling & Telecommunication) : 01 post
- Dy. General Manager (Civil) : 02 posts
- Dy. General Manager (Property Development) : 01 post
- Manager (Power & Traction) : 01 post
- Manager (Signalling & Telecommunication) : 01 post
- Executive (Signalling & Telecommunication) : 01 post
How to Apply : Applications shall be send to Manager (HR & Training), Kochi Metro Rail Ltd., 8th Floor, Revenue Tower, Par Avenue, Kochi – 682011 so as to reach the office latest by 10/09/2013.
For further details and Application format, Please visit http://kochimetro.org/careers/
Monday, August 5, 2013
Central Railway Recruitment of Ex-Servicemen Quota Group D Posts
Applications are invited from eligible Ex-Servicemen for filling up 905 vacancies in Pay Band-1 of Rs. 5200-20200 with Grade Pay of Rs. 1800 (Erstwhile Group ‘D’) in Central Railway:
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Eligibility: i). Ex-Servicemen who have retired after putting in 15 years of service and have passed Army Class-I certificate or equivalent are eligible to apply, provided they have put in a minimum of 6 months attested service. ii). Ex-servicemen who have already joined the Government Service on civil side after availing of other benefits given to them as Ex-Servicemen for further employment cannot claim Ex-Servicemen status for the purpose of this recruitment. iii). Sons / Daughters / Wards of Ex-Servicemen are not eligible to apply for the post reserved for Ex-Servicemen.
Age (As On 01.01.2014): For UR candidates: 33 years + extent of military service + 3 years, For SC/ST candidates: 38 years + extent of military service + 3 years & For OBC candidates: 36 years + extent of military service + 3 year How to Apply: The Completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the Assistant Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell, Chief Project Manager (Conv)’s Office Building, Wadibunder, P.D’ Mello Road, Mumbai 400010. Last Date: 26/08/2013 For more details Click here |
Sunday, August 4, 2013
North Eastern Railway Recruitment of Ex-Servicemen quota posts
Applications in the prescribed format are invited
from eligible Indian Nationals for filling up of Group-D posts in North
Eastern Railways :
Ex-Servicemen Quota (Group - D) posts : 273 posts in
various categories in the pay scale Rs.5200-20200 Grade Pay Rs. 1800,
Age : 18-33 years as on 01/01/2014, relaxation in age as per rules.
Saturday, August 3, 2013
North Western Railway Recruitment of 54 Sports Quota Posts
Applications are invited from eligible sports persons for following sports disciplines for Group ‘C’ and erstwhile Group ‘D’ posts:
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I. Vacancies against Head Quarter Quota:
How to Apply: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the address as mention in the notification. Important Dates:
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Thursday, August 1, 2013
RRC South Eastern Railway, Kolkata erstwhile Group 'D' vacancies against Ex-servicemen quota
Railway Recruitment Cell (RRC), South Eastern Railway, Kolkata invites application for filling up the following provisional erstwhile Group 'D' vacancies against Ex-servicemen quota.
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Eligibility: Ex-Serviceman who have retired after putting in 15 years of service in the Armed force of the Union of India and have passed Army Class-I certificate or equivalent are eligible to apply.
How to Apply: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the “Assistant Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell, 11, Garden Reach Road, South Eastern Railway, Kolkata-700043. Last Date: 26/08/2013 For more details Click here |
Sunday, July 28, 2013
RPF Constables Exam Solved Paper
1. The pole star is a part of the constellation - Ursa Minor
2. What is a “Zero Base Budgeting”? - Preparation of new budget' every time
3. Indian Planning Commission was constituted in - 1950
4. The constitution of India is - Partly rigid and partly flexible
5. Hypermnesia is - An exceptional power of memory
6. Chocolates can be bad for health because of a high content of - Nickle
7. Which of the following is the particle antiparticle pair? - Electron, position
8. Light from the nearest star (other than the sun) reaches the earth in - 4.2 years
9. The boundary between India and Pakistan was demarcated by - Sir Cyril Radcliffe
10. The atoms of elements in the same group must have the same - Number of electrons in valence shell
11. Which of the following would be most suitable for making an electromagnet? - Soft iron
12. Cinnabar is an ore of - Mercury
13. The salary and allowances of the governor are charged to - The consolidated fund of the state
14. Beta rays are - High-speed electrons
15. The largest part of most diets is made up of - Carbohydrates
16. Echoes are produced due to - Refraction of sound
17. The country with the highest density is - Bangladesh
18. The most abundant source of iron is - Green vegetables
19. The power to prorogue the Lok Sabha rests with - The President
20. The tests normally descend into the scrotum about - The time of birth
21. The Directive Principles of State Policy are - Non -Justiciable
22. What is “Stagflation”? - Inflation with depression
23. The Famous Chinese pilgrim Fa-hien visited India during the reign of - Chandra Gupta II
24. The type of mirror used in the headlamps of cars is the - Parabolic concave mirror
25. Who of the bhakti saints of South India was a man but felt himself in a feminine relationship towards his God? - Nammalvar
26. A plant cell is distinguished from an animal cell by the presence of - Chloroplasts
27. The responsibility for the recruitment of All India Services rests with - The Union Public Service Commission
28. The Main objective of TRYSEM was - To train rural youth for self employment
29. Adhoc Judges can be appointed in the Supreme Court - By the Chief Justice of India with the Prior consent of the President
30. Triple vaccine is administered to a new born child to immunize it against - Whooping cough, tetanus and diphtheria
31. The council of ministers is collectively responsible to - The Parliament
32.The Prime Minister is the chairman of - The Planning Commission
33. When the velocity of a body is doubled, its - Mementum is doubled
34. Money bills can be introduced in the state legislature with the Prior consent of - The Governor
35. The element which forms the largest number of compounds with hydrogen is - Carbon
36. The heaviest among the inner planets is the - Earth
37. In which plan was the growth rate target exceeded? - First
38. A very rapid growth in prices in which money loses its value to the point where even barter may be preferable is known as - Hyper-inflation
39. Ramanuja Preached - Bhakti
40. The substance present in good amounts in the sea and administered in certain deficiency diseases is - Iodine
2. What is a “Zero Base Budgeting”? - Preparation of new budget' every time
3. Indian Planning Commission was constituted in - 1950
4. The constitution of India is - Partly rigid and partly flexible
5. Hypermnesia is - An exceptional power of memory
6. Chocolates can be bad for health because of a high content of - Nickle
7. Which of the following is the particle antiparticle pair? - Electron, position
8. Light from the nearest star (other than the sun) reaches the earth in - 4.2 years
9. The boundary between India and Pakistan was demarcated by - Sir Cyril Radcliffe
10. The atoms of elements in the same group must have the same - Number of electrons in valence shell
11. Which of the following would be most suitable for making an electromagnet? - Soft iron
12. Cinnabar is an ore of - Mercury
13. The salary and allowances of the governor are charged to - The consolidated fund of the state
14. Beta rays are - High-speed electrons
15. The largest part of most diets is made up of - Carbohydrates
16. Echoes are produced due to - Refraction of sound
17. The country with the highest density is - Bangladesh
18. The most abundant source of iron is - Green vegetables
19. The power to prorogue the Lok Sabha rests with - The President
20. The tests normally descend into the scrotum about - The time of birth
21. The Directive Principles of State Policy are - Non -Justiciable
22. What is “Stagflation”? - Inflation with depression
23. The Famous Chinese pilgrim Fa-hien visited India during the reign of - Chandra Gupta II
24. The type of mirror used in the headlamps of cars is the - Parabolic concave mirror
25. Who of the bhakti saints of South India was a man but felt himself in a feminine relationship towards his God? - Nammalvar
26. A plant cell is distinguished from an animal cell by the presence of - Chloroplasts
27. The responsibility for the recruitment of All India Services rests with - The Union Public Service Commission
28. The Main objective of TRYSEM was - To train rural youth for self employment
29. Adhoc Judges can be appointed in the Supreme Court - By the Chief Justice of India with the Prior consent of the President
30. Triple vaccine is administered to a new born child to immunize it against - Whooping cough, tetanus and diphtheria
31. The council of ministers is collectively responsible to - The Parliament
32.The Prime Minister is the chairman of - The Planning Commission
33. When the velocity of a body is doubled, its - Mementum is doubled
34. Money bills can be introduced in the state legislature with the Prior consent of - The Governor
35. The element which forms the largest number of compounds with hydrogen is - Carbon
36. The heaviest among the inner planets is the - Earth
37. In which plan was the growth rate target exceeded? - First
38. A very rapid growth in prices in which money loses its value to the point where even barter may be preferable is known as - Hyper-inflation
39. Ramanuja Preached - Bhakti
40. The substance present in good amounts in the sea and administered in certain deficiency diseases is - Iodine
RAILWAY PROTECTION FORCE (RPF) EXAM PREVIOUS SOLVED PAPER
1. Insufficient dietary iodine causes a/an - Enlarged thyroid
2. The difference in the duration of day and night increases as one moves form - Equator to poles
3. A motion of no-confidence against the council of ministers can be moved in the Lok Sabha if it is supported by at least - 50 members
4. On February 20, 1947, Prime Minister Atlee announced the British Government’s decision to withdraw from India latest by - Jun-48
5. The period of 10th Plan in India is - 2002-2007
6. The hottest part of the gas flame is known as the - Non-luminous zone
7. Petroleum is found in - Sedimentary rocks
8. An electric bulb has a filament made of - Tungsten
9. Milk tastes sour when kept in the open for some time due to the formation of - Lactic acid
10. The colour of cow’s milk is slightly yellowish due to the presence of - Riboflavin
11. The total fertility rate refers to - Total number of children a women has borne
12. A woman´s voice is shriller than a mans due to - Higher frequency
13. Excessive consumption of alcoholic drinks causes damage to the - Liver
14. What is the chief source of political power in India? - The Constitution
15. Indian Green Revolution is the most successful in - Wheat and Rice
16. Sound travels at maximum speed in - Steel
17. The gas that causes atmospheric pollution is - Sulphur dioxide
18. Value-added tax is -An ad-valorem tax on domestic final consumption collected at all stages between production and the point of final sale
19. A piedmont plateau is situated - At the foot of a mountain
20. The minimum age at which a person can be appointed Prime Minister of India is - 25 years
21. Common salt is obtained from sea water by the process of - Evaporation
22. Corporate Tax is imposed by - Central Government
23. Raindrops are spherical due to - Surface tension
24. The largest population of Scheduled Tribes is in - Madhya Pradesh
25. Aquaculture is the - Use of water for farming
26. Diamond is made of the same single element as - Graphite
27. Pencil ´lead´ is made up of - Lamp black
28. The substance that can conduct electricity in its molten state is - Common salt
29. A true fruit develops from the - Ovary
30. The village community got a lot of power during the region of the - Cholas
31. The South Pole experiences continuous light at - Winter solstice
32. A clearly separate echo of it sound is heard when the minimum distance of the reflecting surface from the source of sound is - 17m
33. Chloromycetin is an - Antibacterial
34. Taxation and the government’s expenditure policy are dealt under the - Fiscal policy
35. Radar is used for - Defecting and fixing the position of objects e.g:, aeroplanes
36. What was the aim of Antyodaya programme? - Helping the poorest among poor
37. The President can declare financial emergency - If there is a threat to the financial stability or credit of India
38. Enamel covers the - Crown of the tooth
39. The type of mirror used in the headlamps of cars is the - Parabolic concave mirror
40. Radio isotopes are - Isotopes that are radio active
2. The difference in the duration of day and night increases as one moves form - Equator to poles
3. A motion of no-confidence against the council of ministers can be moved in the Lok Sabha if it is supported by at least - 50 members
4. On February 20, 1947, Prime Minister Atlee announced the British Government’s decision to withdraw from India latest by - Jun-48
5. The period of 10th Plan in India is - 2002-2007
6. The hottest part of the gas flame is known as the - Non-luminous zone
7. Petroleum is found in - Sedimentary rocks
8. An electric bulb has a filament made of - Tungsten
9. Milk tastes sour when kept in the open for some time due to the formation of - Lactic acid
10. The colour of cow’s milk is slightly yellowish due to the presence of - Riboflavin
11. The total fertility rate refers to - Total number of children a women has borne
12. A woman´s voice is shriller than a mans due to - Higher frequency
13. Excessive consumption of alcoholic drinks causes damage to the - Liver
14. What is the chief source of political power in India? - The Constitution
15. Indian Green Revolution is the most successful in - Wheat and Rice
16. Sound travels at maximum speed in - Steel
17. The gas that causes atmospheric pollution is - Sulphur dioxide
18. Value-added tax is -An ad-valorem tax on domestic final consumption collected at all stages between production and the point of final sale
19. A piedmont plateau is situated - At the foot of a mountain
20. The minimum age at which a person can be appointed Prime Minister of India is - 25 years
21. Common salt is obtained from sea water by the process of - Evaporation
22. Corporate Tax is imposed by - Central Government
23. Raindrops are spherical due to - Surface tension
24. The largest population of Scheduled Tribes is in - Madhya Pradesh
25. Aquaculture is the - Use of water for farming
26. Diamond is made of the same single element as - Graphite
27. Pencil ´lead´ is made up of - Lamp black
28. The substance that can conduct electricity in its molten state is - Common salt
29. A true fruit develops from the - Ovary
30. The village community got a lot of power during the region of the - Cholas
31. The South Pole experiences continuous light at - Winter solstice
32. A clearly separate echo of it sound is heard when the minimum distance of the reflecting surface from the source of sound is - 17m
33. Chloromycetin is an - Antibacterial
34. Taxation and the government’s expenditure policy are dealt under the - Fiscal policy
35. Radar is used for - Defecting and fixing the position of objects e.g:, aeroplanes
36. What was the aim of Antyodaya programme? - Helping the poorest among poor
37. The President can declare financial emergency - If there is a threat to the financial stability or credit of India
38. Enamel covers the - Crown of the tooth
39. The type of mirror used in the headlamps of cars is the - Parabolic concave mirror
40. Radio isotopes are - Isotopes that are radio active
Railway RPF/RPSF Constable Exam Questions
1. Which state has the lowest per capita income in India? - Bihar
2. ´Flame of the forest´ refers to - A forest full of trees which burst with red flowers during autumn
3. Paditrupathu (Ten Tens) deals mostly with the history of - The Cheras
4. Diamond is chemically - Pure carbon
5. One of the pandemic diseases is - Influenza
6. What is the maximum age for election to the office of the President? - No limit
7. The Prime Minister is the chairman of - The Planning Commission
8. An object weighs maximum in - Vacuum
9. Content of carbon is minimum in - Wrought iron
10. The Main objective of TRYSEM was - To train rural youth for self employment
11. In India, new Ass India Service can be created - By the Parliament
12. In which part of India does Saffron grow - Jammu and Kashmir
13. The Indian Federal System is modeled on the Federal System of - Canada
14. ´Who did not participate´ in the revolt of 1857? - Bhagat Singh
15. Marsh gas, formed from decaying organic matter and in coal mines, is - Methane
16. Value-added tax is - An ad-valorem tax on domestic final consumption collected at all stages between production and the point of final sale
17. The exports of India - Are spread over several commodity groups
18. Moist tropical evergreen forests are found in - The Shillong Plateau
19. Who controls the activities of indigenous bankers? - None of these
20. Adhoc Judges can be appointed in the Supreme Court - By the Chief Justice of India with the Prior consent of the President
21. Meera Seth Committee was related to - Development of Handlooms
22. All acids contain the element - Hydrogen
23. The boundary between India and Pakistan was demarcated by - Sir Cyril Radcliffe
24. Which one of the following has since ceased to be a Fundamental Right? - Right to property
25. The heaviest among the inner planets is the - Earth
26. During the Sangam Age which of the following dynasties was not in power? - Pallavas
27. Chairman of Tax Reform committee was - Raja Chelliah
28. Finance Commission is appointed by the President under Article - 280 of. constitution
29. Heavy water - Contains deuterium in place of hydrogen
30. Foot and mouth disease occurs in - Cattle, sheep and pigs
31. Iron pipes are often coated with a layer of zinc to prevent corrosion. This process is termed - Galvanization
32. Unix, DOS, Windows are examples of - Operating systems
33. Railway Budget in India was separated from general budget in - 1924-25
34. A solar eclipse occurs when - The moon comes between the sun and the earth
35. The National Development Council is mainly concerned with - Approval of five-year plans
36. A steel ball floats on mercury because - The density of mercury is higher than that of steel
37. Which of the following would be most suitable for making an electromagnet? - Soft iron
38.Synthetic detergents are - A mixture of sodium salts of aromatic and diphatic sulphonic acids
39. The Saka era began in the year - 78 AD
40. When the East India Company was set up India’s ruler was - Akbar
2. ´Flame of the forest´ refers to - A forest full of trees which burst with red flowers during autumn
3. Paditrupathu (Ten Tens) deals mostly with the history of - The Cheras
4. Diamond is chemically - Pure carbon
5. One of the pandemic diseases is - Influenza
6. What is the maximum age for election to the office of the President? - No limit
7. The Prime Minister is the chairman of - The Planning Commission
8. An object weighs maximum in - Vacuum
9. Content of carbon is minimum in - Wrought iron
10. The Main objective of TRYSEM was - To train rural youth for self employment
11. In India, new Ass India Service can be created - By the Parliament
12. In which part of India does Saffron grow - Jammu and Kashmir
13. The Indian Federal System is modeled on the Federal System of - Canada
14. ´Who did not participate´ in the revolt of 1857? - Bhagat Singh
15. Marsh gas, formed from decaying organic matter and in coal mines, is - Methane
16. Value-added tax is - An ad-valorem tax on domestic final consumption collected at all stages between production and the point of final sale
17. The exports of India - Are spread over several commodity groups
18. Moist tropical evergreen forests are found in - The Shillong Plateau
19. Who controls the activities of indigenous bankers? - None of these
20. Adhoc Judges can be appointed in the Supreme Court - By the Chief Justice of India with the Prior consent of the President
21. Meera Seth Committee was related to - Development of Handlooms
22. All acids contain the element - Hydrogen
23. The boundary between India and Pakistan was demarcated by - Sir Cyril Radcliffe
24. Which one of the following has since ceased to be a Fundamental Right? - Right to property
25. The heaviest among the inner planets is the - Earth
26. During the Sangam Age which of the following dynasties was not in power? - Pallavas
27. Chairman of Tax Reform committee was - Raja Chelliah
28. Finance Commission is appointed by the President under Article - 280 of. constitution
29. Heavy water - Contains deuterium in place of hydrogen
30. Foot and mouth disease occurs in - Cattle, sheep and pigs
31. Iron pipes are often coated with a layer of zinc to prevent corrosion. This process is termed - Galvanization
32. Unix, DOS, Windows are examples of - Operating systems
33. Railway Budget in India was separated from general budget in - 1924-25
34. A solar eclipse occurs when - The moon comes between the sun and the earth
35. The National Development Council is mainly concerned with - Approval of five-year plans
36. A steel ball floats on mercury because - The density of mercury is higher than that of steel
37. Which of the following would be most suitable for making an electromagnet? - Soft iron
38.Synthetic detergents are - A mixture of sodium salts of aromatic and diphatic sulphonic acids
39. The Saka era began in the year - 78 AD
40. When the East India Company was set up India’s ruler was - Akbar
RRB PARAMEDICAL EXAM HEALTH INSPECTOR QUESTIONS
1. For education of measles, immunization coverage should be at least
(a) 80% (b) 85% (c) 96% (d) 100%
2. Period of maximum infectivity in mumps is during
(a) incubation period (b) onset of swelling (c) after swelling appears
(d) prodromal period
3. Major epidemics of influenza A occur at intervals of
(a) 1 year (b) 2-3 years (c) 10-15 years (d) 20-25 years
4. The most common source of infection for diphtheria is a
(a) case (b) sub clinical case (c) carrier (d) all of the above
5. Shick test is done in
(a) meningitis (b) diphtheria (c) pertussis (d) polimyelitis
6. Adjuvant present in DPT vaccine is
(a) aluminium phosphate (b) aluminium hydroxide (c) zinc phosphate (d) magnesium
phosphate
7. Recommended site of administration of DPT in infants is
(a) gluteal (b) deltoid (c) lateral aspect of thigh (d) forearm
8. The most severe complications following DPT are due to …….. component
(a) diphtheria (b) pertussis (c) tetanus (d) adjuvant
9. The vaccine usually given to pilgrims to the Middle East is
(a) DPT (b) influenza (c) yellow fever (d) meningitis
10. Best index to estimate case load of T.B. in a community is
(a) incidence of infection (b) prevalence of infection (c) incidence of disease
(d) prevalence of disease
11. Prevalence of T.B. infection in a community is estimated by
(a) tuberculin test (b) sputum microscopy (c) culture (d) chest X-ray
12. The amount of PPD used in mantoux test in India is
(a) 1 TU (b) 5 TU (c) 25 TU (d) 250 TU
13. Result of mantoux test is read after
(a) 6 hours (b) 24 hours (c) 48 hours (d) 72 hours
14. Present day BCG vaccine is supplied as
(a) liquid vaccine (b) freeze dried vaccine (c) both (d) none of the above
15. The diluent used for reconstituting BCG vaccine is
(a) normal saline (b) distilled water (c) dextrose (d) none of the above
16. Reconstituted BCG vaccine should be used with in
(a) 3 hours (b) 6 hours (c) 18 hours (d) 24 hours
17. The age for BCG vaccination is recommended at
(a) birth or at 6th week (b) only 6th week (c) 6-8 weeks (d) within 1 year
18. At the village level sputum for AFB is collected and fixed by
(a) anganwadi worker (b) village health guide (c) health worker male (d) health
worker female
19. Source of most polio infections are
(a) clinical cases (b) sub clinical cases (c) carrier (d) both (b)&(c)
20. Risk factors for development of paralytic polio include
(a) 1/M injections (b) Tonsillectomy (c) DPT (d) all of the above
21. Major route of transmission of Hepatitis A is
(a) Facco oral route (b) parentral route (c) sexual transmission (d) perinatal
transmission
22. Vaccine vial monitor is present on which of these vaccines
(a) BCG (b) DPT (c) OPV (d) Measles
23. Immunity after Hepatitis A lasts for
(a) 6 months (b) 1 year (c) 6 years (d) life long
24. Following methods destroy vibrio cholerae except
(a) boiling (b) drying (c) bleaching powder 1 mg/L (d) cresol
25. Best method of collecting choleric stools for diagnosis is by
(a) rectal catheter (b) rectal swab (c) disinfected stool (d) all of the above
26. All are vaccines included under the Universal Immunization Programme
except
(a) diphtheria (b) pertussis (c) measles (d) MMR
27. The MTP act was passed in the year
(a) 1975 (b) 1971 (c) 1986 (d) 2000
28. All are Anti Rabies vaccine currently used in Kerala except
(a) chick embryo cell vaccine (b) human diploid cell vaccine (c) vero cell
vaccine (d) neural tissue vaccine
29. Annual Parasitic incidence is used to measure the problem of
(a) Filariasis (b) Dengue fever (c) Malaria (d) Japanese encephalitis
30. The causative organism of plague is
(a) Y pestis (b) R. Prowazeki (c) Coryne bacterium (d) Arbovirus
31. Which of these is a Conventional Contraceptive
(a) Combined pill (b) IUD (c) Condom (d) Mini pill
32. Which of these insecticides is used as a space spray
(a) paris green (b) abate (c) pyrethrum (d) mineral oil
33. Chemical ideally used for disinfecting sputum is
(a) cresol (b) dettol (c) savlon (d) phenol
34. Census is carried out at regular intervals of
(a) 5 years (b) 10 years (c) 7 years (d) 15 years
35. Vaccine carrier should ideally have number of ice packs
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
36. The dose of elemental iron in Folifer tablet given to pregnant women
under the RCH programme is
(a) 60 mg (b) 80 mg (c) 50 mg (d) 100 mg
37. Sanitary latrine should be located at least …. feet from source of
contamination
(a) 15 (b) 25 (c) 50 (d) 75
38. For calculating Bacterial index in Leprosy a minimum of ….. sites
should be examined
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 9
39. Number of Tetanus toxoid doses to be given to an antenatal mother with
last child birth 2 years back is
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) none
40. As per the Birth and Deaths Registration Act all births are to be
registered with in a period of
(a) 7 days (b) 14 days (c) 21 days (d) 1 month
41. Dengue fever is transmitted by the bite of ……. mosquito
(a) anopheles (b) aedes (c) mansonia (d) culex
42. Route of administration of BCG vaccine is
(a) intramuscular (b) intradermal (c) subcutaneous (d) intrathecal
43. Pasteurisation of milk kills all organisms except
(a) Anthrax (b) M. Tuberculosis (c) Streptococcus (d) Brucella
44. Prevalence of hook worm infection in a community is assessed by
(a) pearl index (b) breteaux index (c) chandler index (d) none of the above
45. The level of iodisation of iodised salt at the consumer level as
specified under the IDD control programme is
(a) 40 ppm (b) 30 ppm (c) 15 ppm (d) 50 ppm
46. All are steps in Primary Prevention of diseases except
(a) promotion of healthy life styles (b) good nutrition (c) immunization (d)
treatment
47. Communicability of measles declines
(a) after onset of fever (b) during prodromal period (c) at the time of eruption
(d) after appearance of rash
48. After effective chlorination of water free residual chlorine should
not be less than
(a) 0.5 mg/L (b) 1 mg/L (c) 50 mg/L (d) 200 mg/L
49. All are side effects of oral contraceptives except
(a) hypertension (b) cervical cancer risk (c) gall bladder disease (d) iron
deficiency anameia
50. World AIDS day is observed on
(a) December 1st (b) January 31st (c) May 1st (d) October 1st
51. Highest source of vitamin A is seen in
(a) Cod liver oil (b) green leafy vegetables (c) papaya (d) carrot
52. Which is a live vaccine
(a) Hepatitis B vaccine (b) Hepatitis A vaccine (c) Oral polio vaccine (d) DPT
vaccine
53. Scurvy is a deficiency disease due to
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin D (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin B12
54. Number of sputum smears to be taken for confirmation of tuberculosis
under the Revised National Tuberculosis control
programme is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
55. The target population under the Universal Immunization Programme is
(a) infants and antenatal mothers (b) infants (c) under fives (d) under fives
and antenatal mothers
56. RCH programme was launched in the year
(a) 1997 (b) 1992 (c) 1990 (d) 1998
57. Additional energy requirement to be supplemented for a lactating
mother is
(a) 200 calories (b) 550 calories (c) 350 calories (d) 100 calories
58. Dental caries is caused due to deficiency of
(a) Iodine (b) Iron (c) Fluorine (d) Copper
59. Most ideal equipment for vaccine storage in a PHC is
(a) domestic refrigerator (b) ice lined refrigerator (c) cold box (d) vaccine
carrier
60. Village Health Guide is present in all these states except
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar (c) Orissa (d) Kerala
61. Route of transmission of pneumonic plague is
(a) Vector (b) Droplet (c) Formite (d) Food
62. Most simple way of data presentation to a common man is
(a) Bar chart (b) Line diagram (c) Pictogram (d) Histogram
63. The best method for operation theatre disinfection is
(a) dettol (b) phenol (c) lysol (d) fromaldehyde
64. Primary schedule of hepatitis B immunization is
(a) 0,1,6 months (b) 1,3,6 months (c) 1,2,12 months (d) 0,1,5 years
65. The control of ….. has led to the eradication of guinea worm disease
(a) mosquito (b) rat flea (c) sand fly (d) cyclops
66. The confirmatory test for paralytic poliomyelitis is a
(a) stool examination (b) CSF examination (c) blood examination (d) nerve
examination
67. The drug given to peripheral health worker under the Actute
Respiratory infection Control Programme is
(a) Tetracycline (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Doxy cycline (d) Chloroquine
68. The fitration technique in modern water treatment plant is
(a) slow sand filter (b) rapid sand filter (c) activated sludge process (d)
double pot method
69. World Health Day is observed every year on
(a) May 9th (b) July 11th (c) April 7th (d) July 1st
70. Health education technique most suited for introducing the correct use
of O.R.S. among Rural mothers is
(a) group discussion (b) flash card (c) demonstration (d) flannel graph
71. All are anti scabies preparations except
(a) BHC (b) permethrin (c) benzyl benzoate (d) malathion
72. All are tests used for bacteriological quality testing of drinking water
except
(a) multiple tube method (b) membrane filtration technique (c) colony count (d)
biological oxygen demand
73. During an epidemic of cholera, wells should be disinfected ideally
(a) Every day (b) 2 days (c) 3 days (d) 1 week
74. All are components of under five clinic except
(a) immunization (b) growth monitoring (c) oral rehydration (d) referral
treatment
75. All are true of prevention of Food Adulteration Act except
(a) prescribes minimum standards (b) is not mandatory
(c) punishment includes imprisonment (d) latest amendment was in the year 1986
76. Physical quality of life index includes all except
(a) infant mortality (b) life expectancy at age one (c) per capita GNP (d)
literacy
77. Incubation period is less than 3 days in all the following except
(a) influenza (b) cholera (c) mumps (d) staphylococcal food poisoning
78. The type of influenza virus causing epidemics every year is
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) Any one of the above
79. The incubation period of Rabies in men is determined by
(a) Site of bite (b) Severity of bite (c) Number of wounds (d) All of the above
80. Noso comial infection means
(a) infection of nose (b) hospital acquired infection (c) notifiable disease (d)
new disease
81. All of the following are mosquito borne diseases except
(a) Malaria (b) Filaria (c) Kysanur forest disease (d) Dengue fever
82. Which is not true of small pox
(a) No animal reservoir (b) No carrier stage (c) No sub-clinical infection (d)
No air borne transmission
83. ORS contains all except
(a) sodium chloride (b) potassium sulphate (c) trisodium citrate (d) glucose
84. The danger zone for bacterial growth in food is
(a) 10-49 degree C (b) 20-49 degree C (c) 10-60 degree C (d) 20-60 degree C
85. Aldehyde test is used for the diagnosis of
(a) Malaria (b) Kala Azar (c) Japanese encephalitis (d) Typhus fever
86. The period from disease initiation to disease detection in chronic
disease is called
(a) incubation period (b) serial interval (c) latent period (d) median period
87. Herd immunity does not protect an individual in
(a) Diphtheria (b) Poliomyelitis (c) Small pox (d) Tetanus
88. Vaccines which should not be frozen include
(a) Typhoid (b) DPT (c) TT (d) All of the above
89. ILR stands for
(a) Income Literacy Ratio (b) Illiteracy- Literacy Ratio
(c) Ice Lined Refrigerator (d) Infant Living Rate
90. Cold chain equipment used at out reach sites is
(a) cold box (b) vaccine carrier (c) ice pack (d) freezer
91. Most heat sensitive vaccine is
(a) BCG (b) Polio (c) Measles (d) DPT
92. Zero dose of polio vaccine means
(a) no vaccination (b) dose before first dose (c) no antibody response (d)
vaccination at mobile camps
93. Pasteurisation of milk is an example disinfection
(a) Pre current (b) Con current (c) Terminal (d) Absolute
94. Boiling for 5-10 minutes kills
(a) bacteria (b) spores (c) virus (d) none of the above
95. All of the following can be sterilized by Auto claving except
(a) gloves (b) culture media (c) plastics (d) linen
96. All are suitable for disinfection of faces and urine except
(a) 8% bleaching powder (b) 1% crude phenol (c) 5% cresol (d) 1-2% formalin
97. Ideally bed pans and urinals are sterilized using
(a) 1% cresol (b) bleaching powder (c) steam (d) all of the above
98. Sputum is best disposed by
(a) burning (b) boiling (c) 5% cresol (d) any of the above
99. Immunity conferred by an attack of small pox is for
(a) 10 years (b) 15 years (c) 20 years (d) life long
100. Which is not true regarding measles
(a) source of infection is a case (b) secondary attack rate is 80%
(c) carries do not occur (d) sub clinical measles not known
Answers:
1 B 11 A 21 A 31 C 41 B 51 A 61 B 71 D 81 C 91 B
2 A 12 A 22 B 32 C 42 A 52 C 62 C 72 D 82 C 92 B
3 D 13 C 23 A 33 A 43 B 53 C 63 D 73 A 83 B 93 A
4 B 14 B 24 D 34 B 44 C 54 C 64 A 74 D 84 C 94 D
5 A 15 A 25 A 35 D 45 C 55 C 65 D 75 B 85 B 95 C
6 C 16 B 26 C 36 C 46 D 56 B 66 A 76 D 86 A 96 D
7 C 17 A 27 B 37 D 47 D 57 B 67 B 77 C 87 B 97 B
8 D 18 A 28 C 38 C 48 A 58 C 68 A 78 B 88 D 98 C
9 C 19 C 29 A 39 C 49 A 59 B 69 C 79 D 89 C 99 D
10C 20 D 30 A 40 C 50 A 60 C 70 C 80 D 90 B 100B
(a) 80% (b) 85% (c) 96% (d) 100%
2. Period of maximum infectivity in mumps is during
(a) incubation period (b) onset of swelling (c) after swelling appears
(d) prodromal period
3. Major epidemics of influenza A occur at intervals of
(a) 1 year (b) 2-3 years (c) 10-15 years (d) 20-25 years
4. The most common source of infection for diphtheria is a
(a) case (b) sub clinical case (c) carrier (d) all of the above
5. Shick test is done in
(a) meningitis (b) diphtheria (c) pertussis (d) polimyelitis
6. Adjuvant present in DPT vaccine is
(a) aluminium phosphate (b) aluminium hydroxide (c) zinc phosphate (d) magnesium
phosphate
7. Recommended site of administration of DPT in infants is
(a) gluteal (b) deltoid (c) lateral aspect of thigh (d) forearm
8. The most severe complications following DPT are due to …….. component
(a) diphtheria (b) pertussis (c) tetanus (d) adjuvant
9. The vaccine usually given to pilgrims to the Middle East is
(a) DPT (b) influenza (c) yellow fever (d) meningitis
10. Best index to estimate case load of T.B. in a community is
(a) incidence of infection (b) prevalence of infection (c) incidence of disease
(d) prevalence of disease
11. Prevalence of T.B. infection in a community is estimated by
(a) tuberculin test (b) sputum microscopy (c) culture (d) chest X-ray
12. The amount of PPD used in mantoux test in India is
(a) 1 TU (b) 5 TU (c) 25 TU (d) 250 TU
13. Result of mantoux test is read after
(a) 6 hours (b) 24 hours (c) 48 hours (d) 72 hours
14. Present day BCG vaccine is supplied as
(a) liquid vaccine (b) freeze dried vaccine (c) both (d) none of the above
15. The diluent used for reconstituting BCG vaccine is
(a) normal saline (b) distilled water (c) dextrose (d) none of the above
16. Reconstituted BCG vaccine should be used with in
(a) 3 hours (b) 6 hours (c) 18 hours (d) 24 hours
17. The age for BCG vaccination is recommended at
(a) birth or at 6th week (b) only 6th week (c) 6-8 weeks (d) within 1 year
18. At the village level sputum for AFB is collected and fixed by
(a) anganwadi worker (b) village health guide (c) health worker male (d) health
worker female
19. Source of most polio infections are
(a) clinical cases (b) sub clinical cases (c) carrier (d) both (b)&(c)
20. Risk factors for development of paralytic polio include
(a) 1/M injections (b) Tonsillectomy (c) DPT (d) all of the above
21. Major route of transmission of Hepatitis A is
(a) Facco oral route (b) parentral route (c) sexual transmission (d) perinatal
transmission
22. Vaccine vial monitor is present on which of these vaccines
(a) BCG (b) DPT (c) OPV (d) Measles
23. Immunity after Hepatitis A lasts for
(a) 6 months (b) 1 year (c) 6 years (d) life long
24. Following methods destroy vibrio cholerae except
(a) boiling (b) drying (c) bleaching powder 1 mg/L (d) cresol
25. Best method of collecting choleric stools for diagnosis is by
(a) rectal catheter (b) rectal swab (c) disinfected stool (d) all of the above
26. All are vaccines included under the Universal Immunization Programme
except
(a) diphtheria (b) pertussis (c) measles (d) MMR
27. The MTP act was passed in the year
(a) 1975 (b) 1971 (c) 1986 (d) 2000
28. All are Anti Rabies vaccine currently used in Kerala except
(a) chick embryo cell vaccine (b) human diploid cell vaccine (c) vero cell
vaccine (d) neural tissue vaccine
29. Annual Parasitic incidence is used to measure the problem of
(a) Filariasis (b) Dengue fever (c) Malaria (d) Japanese encephalitis
30. The causative organism of plague is
(a) Y pestis (b) R. Prowazeki (c) Coryne bacterium (d) Arbovirus
31. Which of these is a Conventional Contraceptive
(a) Combined pill (b) IUD (c) Condom (d) Mini pill
32. Which of these insecticides is used as a space spray
(a) paris green (b) abate (c) pyrethrum (d) mineral oil
33. Chemical ideally used for disinfecting sputum is
(a) cresol (b) dettol (c) savlon (d) phenol
34. Census is carried out at regular intervals of
(a) 5 years (b) 10 years (c) 7 years (d) 15 years
35. Vaccine carrier should ideally have number of ice packs
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
36. The dose of elemental iron in Folifer tablet given to pregnant women
under the RCH programme is
(a) 60 mg (b) 80 mg (c) 50 mg (d) 100 mg
37. Sanitary latrine should be located at least …. feet from source of
contamination
(a) 15 (b) 25 (c) 50 (d) 75
38. For calculating Bacterial index in Leprosy a minimum of ….. sites
should be examined
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 9
39. Number of Tetanus toxoid doses to be given to an antenatal mother with
last child birth 2 years back is
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) none
40. As per the Birth and Deaths Registration Act all births are to be
registered with in a period of
(a) 7 days (b) 14 days (c) 21 days (d) 1 month
41. Dengue fever is transmitted by the bite of ……. mosquito
(a) anopheles (b) aedes (c) mansonia (d) culex
42. Route of administration of BCG vaccine is
(a) intramuscular (b) intradermal (c) subcutaneous (d) intrathecal
43. Pasteurisation of milk kills all organisms except
(a) Anthrax (b) M. Tuberculosis (c) Streptococcus (d) Brucella
44. Prevalence of hook worm infection in a community is assessed by
(a) pearl index (b) breteaux index (c) chandler index (d) none of the above
45. The level of iodisation of iodised salt at the consumer level as
specified under the IDD control programme is
(a) 40 ppm (b) 30 ppm (c) 15 ppm (d) 50 ppm
46. All are steps in Primary Prevention of diseases except
(a) promotion of healthy life styles (b) good nutrition (c) immunization (d)
treatment
47. Communicability of measles declines
(a) after onset of fever (b) during prodromal period (c) at the time of eruption
(d) after appearance of rash
48. After effective chlorination of water free residual chlorine should
not be less than
(a) 0.5 mg/L (b) 1 mg/L (c) 50 mg/L (d) 200 mg/L
49. All are side effects of oral contraceptives except
(a) hypertension (b) cervical cancer risk (c) gall bladder disease (d) iron
deficiency anameia
50. World AIDS day is observed on
(a) December 1st (b) January 31st (c) May 1st (d) October 1st
51. Highest source of vitamin A is seen in
(a) Cod liver oil (b) green leafy vegetables (c) papaya (d) carrot
52. Which is a live vaccine
(a) Hepatitis B vaccine (b) Hepatitis A vaccine (c) Oral polio vaccine (d) DPT
vaccine
53. Scurvy is a deficiency disease due to
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin D (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin B12
54. Number of sputum smears to be taken for confirmation of tuberculosis
under the Revised National Tuberculosis control
programme is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
55. The target population under the Universal Immunization Programme is
(a) infants and antenatal mothers (b) infants (c) under fives (d) under fives
and antenatal mothers
56. RCH programme was launched in the year
(a) 1997 (b) 1992 (c) 1990 (d) 1998
57. Additional energy requirement to be supplemented for a lactating
mother is
(a) 200 calories (b) 550 calories (c) 350 calories (d) 100 calories
58. Dental caries is caused due to deficiency of
(a) Iodine (b) Iron (c) Fluorine (d) Copper
59. Most ideal equipment for vaccine storage in a PHC is
(a) domestic refrigerator (b) ice lined refrigerator (c) cold box (d) vaccine
carrier
60. Village Health Guide is present in all these states except
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar (c) Orissa (d) Kerala
61. Route of transmission of pneumonic plague is
(a) Vector (b) Droplet (c) Formite (d) Food
62. Most simple way of data presentation to a common man is
(a) Bar chart (b) Line diagram (c) Pictogram (d) Histogram
63. The best method for operation theatre disinfection is
(a) dettol (b) phenol (c) lysol (d) fromaldehyde
64. Primary schedule of hepatitis B immunization is
(a) 0,1,6 months (b) 1,3,6 months (c) 1,2,12 months (d) 0,1,5 years
65. The control of ….. has led to the eradication of guinea worm disease
(a) mosquito (b) rat flea (c) sand fly (d) cyclops
66. The confirmatory test for paralytic poliomyelitis is a
(a) stool examination (b) CSF examination (c) blood examination (d) nerve
examination
67. The drug given to peripheral health worker under the Actute
Respiratory infection Control Programme is
(a) Tetracycline (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Doxy cycline (d) Chloroquine
68. The fitration technique in modern water treatment plant is
(a) slow sand filter (b) rapid sand filter (c) activated sludge process (d)
double pot method
69. World Health Day is observed every year on
(a) May 9th (b) July 11th (c) April 7th (d) July 1st
70. Health education technique most suited for introducing the correct use
of O.R.S. among Rural mothers is
(a) group discussion (b) flash card (c) demonstration (d) flannel graph
71. All are anti scabies preparations except
(a) BHC (b) permethrin (c) benzyl benzoate (d) malathion
72. All are tests used for bacteriological quality testing of drinking water
except
(a) multiple tube method (b) membrane filtration technique (c) colony count (d)
biological oxygen demand
73. During an epidemic of cholera, wells should be disinfected ideally
(a) Every day (b) 2 days (c) 3 days (d) 1 week
74. All are components of under five clinic except
(a) immunization (b) growth monitoring (c) oral rehydration (d) referral
treatment
75. All are true of prevention of Food Adulteration Act except
(a) prescribes minimum standards (b) is not mandatory
(c) punishment includes imprisonment (d) latest amendment was in the year 1986
76. Physical quality of life index includes all except
(a) infant mortality (b) life expectancy at age one (c) per capita GNP (d)
literacy
77. Incubation period is less than 3 days in all the following except
(a) influenza (b) cholera (c) mumps (d) staphylococcal food poisoning
78. The type of influenza virus causing epidemics every year is
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) Any one of the above
79. The incubation period of Rabies in men is determined by
(a) Site of bite (b) Severity of bite (c) Number of wounds (d) All of the above
80. Noso comial infection means
(a) infection of nose (b) hospital acquired infection (c) notifiable disease (d)
new disease
81. All of the following are mosquito borne diseases except
(a) Malaria (b) Filaria (c) Kysanur forest disease (d) Dengue fever
82. Which is not true of small pox
(a) No animal reservoir (b) No carrier stage (c) No sub-clinical infection (d)
No air borne transmission
83. ORS contains all except
(a) sodium chloride (b) potassium sulphate (c) trisodium citrate (d) glucose
84. The danger zone for bacterial growth in food is
(a) 10-49 degree C (b) 20-49 degree C (c) 10-60 degree C (d) 20-60 degree C
85. Aldehyde test is used for the diagnosis of
(a) Malaria (b) Kala Azar (c) Japanese encephalitis (d) Typhus fever
86. The period from disease initiation to disease detection in chronic
disease is called
(a) incubation period (b) serial interval (c) latent period (d) median period
87. Herd immunity does not protect an individual in
(a) Diphtheria (b) Poliomyelitis (c) Small pox (d) Tetanus
88. Vaccines which should not be frozen include
(a) Typhoid (b) DPT (c) TT (d) All of the above
89. ILR stands for
(a) Income Literacy Ratio (b) Illiteracy- Literacy Ratio
(c) Ice Lined Refrigerator (d) Infant Living Rate
90. Cold chain equipment used at out reach sites is
(a) cold box (b) vaccine carrier (c) ice pack (d) freezer
91. Most heat sensitive vaccine is
(a) BCG (b) Polio (c) Measles (d) DPT
92. Zero dose of polio vaccine means
(a) no vaccination (b) dose before first dose (c) no antibody response (d)
vaccination at mobile camps
93. Pasteurisation of milk is an example disinfection
(a) Pre current (b) Con current (c) Terminal (d) Absolute
94. Boiling for 5-10 minutes kills
(a) bacteria (b) spores (c) virus (d) none of the above
95. All of the following can be sterilized by Auto claving except
(a) gloves (b) culture media (c) plastics (d) linen
96. All are suitable for disinfection of faces and urine except
(a) 8% bleaching powder (b) 1% crude phenol (c) 5% cresol (d) 1-2% formalin
97. Ideally bed pans and urinals are sterilized using
(a) 1% cresol (b) bleaching powder (c) steam (d) all of the above
98. Sputum is best disposed by
(a) burning (b) boiling (c) 5% cresol (d) any of the above
99. Immunity conferred by an attack of small pox is for
(a) 10 years (b) 15 years (c) 20 years (d) life long
100. Which is not true regarding measles
(a) source of infection is a case (b) secondary attack rate is 80%
(c) carries do not occur (d) sub clinical measles not known
Answers:
1 B 11 A 21 A 31 C 41 B 51 A 61 B 71 D 81 C 91 B
2 A 12 A 22 B 32 C 42 A 52 C 62 C 72 D 82 C 92 B
3 D 13 C 23 A 33 A 43 B 53 C 63 D 73 A 83 B 93 A
4 B 14 B 24 D 34 B 44 C 54 C 64 A 74 D 84 C 94 D
5 A 15 A 25 A 35 D 45 C 55 C 65 D 75 B 85 B 95 C
6 C 16 B 26 C 36 C 46 D 56 B 66 A 76 D 86 A 96 D
7 C 17 A 27 B 37 D 47 D 57 B 67 B 77 C 87 B 97 B
8 D 18 A 28 C 38 C 48 A 58 C 68 A 78 B 88 D 98 C
9 C 19 C 29 A 39 C 49 A 59 B 69 C 79 D 89 C 99 D
10C 20 D 30 A 40 C 50 A 60 C 70 C 80 D 90 B 100B
RRC GROUP-D EXAM (NOTIFICATION NO. E.NO.1/2008) SOLVED PAPER (SET E1)
1. Which of the following is a major tea producing state ?
(A) Assam (B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Punjab
2. Which of the following states is a major producer of wheat ?
(A) Nagaland (B) Mizoram
(C) Arunachal Pradesh (D) Punjab
3. Which of the following states is an important producer of sugarcane ?
(A) Maharashtra (B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Tripura (D) Sikkim
4. The Earth rotates 360 degree in about
(A) 12 hours (B) 24 hours
(C) 36 hours (D) 48 hours
5. A leap year has
(A) 365 days (B) 366 days
(C) 367 days (D) 368 days
6. The occurrence of days and nights is the result of
(A) revolution of the earth around the sun (B) rotation of the earth about its axis
(C) movement of the moon around the earth (D) Newton’s laws of motion
7. The duration of day and night becomes equal at all place on
(A) 21st March and 23rd September (B) 21st March and 21st June
(C) 21st June and 22nd December (D) does not happen
8. Solar eclipse occurs when
(A) the moon comes in between the sun and the earth
(B) the earth comes in between the sun and the moon
(C) the sun comes in between the moon and the earth
(D) None of the above
9. The crust of the earth is divided into two parts – the hydrosphere and the land mass. The land
mass occupies
(A) 50 % of the earth’s surface area
(B) about 29.2 % of the earth’s surface area
(C) 80 % of the earth’s surface area
(D) it keeps on varying
10. The Manas National Park is situated in the state of
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Assam
(C) Himachal Pradesh (D) Jammu and Kahsmir
11. Mausynram receives the highest rainfall in the world. It is located in the state of
(A) Tripura (B) Nagaland
(C) Arunachal Pradesh (D) Meghalaya
12. Green Revolution in India led to a substantial increase in the production of
(A) food grains (B) milk
(C) steel (D) automobiles
13. ‘White Revolution’ in India is related to the development of
(A) dairy industry (B) paper industry
(C) silk industry (D) sugar industry
14. What is a tsunami ?
(A) Name of a flower
(B) Name of a mountain
(C) a series of water waves caused by the displacement of a large volume of a body of
water
(D) Name of a virus
15. Which country was hit by an earthquake and tsunami in March 2011 resulting in loss of lives
and property ?
(A) Argentina (B) Mexico
(C) Japan (D) Egypt
16. The zonal head quarter of Northeast Frontier Railway is at
(A) New Jalpaiguri (B) Shillong
(C) Guwahati (D) Katihar
17. The railway track in the Darjeeling Himalayan Railway (DHR) is
(A) Narrow gauge (B) Metre gauge
(C) Broad gauge (D) None of these
18. The Palk Strait lies between the countries
(A) Sri Lanka and Maldives (B) India and Sri Lanka
(C) India and Maldives (D) Bangladesh and Myanmar
19. Richter scale measures the magnitude of
(A) volcanoes (B) earthquakes
(C) floods (D) rainfall
20 ‘Jhum’ practiced in the northeastern states of India is a method of
(A) learning (B) agriculture
(C) dancing (D) cooking
21. The Kaziranga National Park is famous for its
(A) Asiatic lion (B) Bengal Tiger
(C) One horned rhinoceros (D) Eagle
22. Which is the largest continent ?
(A) Africa (B) Asia
(C) Australia (D) North America
23. ‘One light year’ is a unit of
(A) time (B) speed
(C) distance (D) sound
24. Which of the following is not a renewable resource ?
(A) forest (B) bio-energy
(C) solar energy (D) petroleum
25. Which is the third nearest planet to the sun ?
(A) Venus (B) Earth
(C) Mercury (D) Mars
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