Sunday, May 12, 2019

RRB PARA MEDICAL EXAM SOLVED PAPER


RRB PARA MEDIACAL STAFF EXAM SOLVED PAPER


RRB NTPC EXAM SOLVED PAPER (EXAM HELD ON: 31-03-2016)

  1. First Female CM in India?........Ans: Sucheta Kriplani
  2. Where is NASA located in USA?..........Ans: Washington, DC
  3. Chandrayan-1 was launched in the year?.......Ans: 2008 October 22
  4. Kudankulam nuclear power plant is located in?.....Ans: Tirunelveli District in Tamil Nadu
  5. Asian Games were held in India in the years?...........Ans: 1951 and 1982
  6. 2014 Commonwealth games Gold medal winner in badminton?........Ans: Parupalli Kashyap
  7. Name of the place Osama bin Laden was killed in Pakistan?..........Ans: Abottabad
  8. Kaziranga National Park is in which state?............Ans: Assam
  9. First Home Minister of India after Independence?...........Ans: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
  10. India's Central Banking and Monetary Authority is controlled by?...........Ans: RBI
  11. What is the full form of IMO?.................Ans: International Maritime Organization
  12. Who is the Chancellor of Nalanda University?.............Ans: George Yeo
  13. "Ekta Diwas" is observed on?................Ans: 31st October
  14. Who was the "Political Guru" of Mahatma Gandhi ?.........Ans: Gopal Krishna Gokhale
  15. Web pages are written by?...........Ans: HTML
  16. NFC is based on?.................Ans: RFID (Radio Frequency Identification)
  17. "Dialysis" is a treatment for which part of the human body?............Ans: Kidneys
  18. Evaporation of liquid to absorb heat is a principle used in?...............Ans: Refrigerator
  19. Partition of Bengal in 1905 is done by? ..............Ans: Lord Curzon
  20. Crop Insurance Scheme comes under?..........Ans: Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY).
  21. Larynx is also called?.................Ans: Voice box
  22. Green Highway policy is for?.............Ans: Plantation of trees along the roads
  23. Venue of 2018 FIFA World Cup? ................Ans: Russia
  24. Water droplets cause rainbow due to?............Ans: Reflection, Refraction and Dispersion
  25. Major tea producing state in India?..........Ans: Assam
  26. Who appoints Governor of State?.............Ans: President
  27. 1 Rs and 2 Rs coins are made of?............Ans: Ferratic Stainless Steel.
  28. Cricketer to hit six sixes in a over in T20 is ___?............Ans: Yuvraj Singh
  29. Young Crocodiles are called?..............Ans: Hatchling

Thursday, February 21, 2019

RRB NTPC Recruitment 2019 Notification -130000 Vacancies in NTPC, Para-Medical, Level-1 & MI

Railway Recruitment Boards(RRBs) and Railway Recruitment Cells(RRCs) invites online applications for the following vacancies.

1. Non Technical Popular Categories(NTPC): Jr Clerk cum Typist, Accounts Clerk cum Typist, Trains Clerk, Commercial cum Ticket Clerk, Traffic Assistant, Goods Guard, Sr Commercial cum Ticket Clerk, Sr Clerk cum Typist, Jr Account Assistant cum Typist, Commercial Apprentice, Station Master etc.
Opening date of registration of online application: 28.02.2019.


2. Para-Medical Staff: Staff Nurse, Health and Malaria Inspector, Pharmacist, ECG Technician, Lab Assistant, Lab Superintendent etc.
Opening date of registration of online application: 04.03.2019.


3. Ministerial and Isolated Categories: Stenographer, Chief Law Assistant, Jr Translator(Hindi) etc.
Opening date of registration of online application: 08.03.2019.


4. Level-I: Track Maintainer Grade IV(Trackman), Gateman, Pointsman, Helper, Porter etc.
Opening date of registration of online application: 12.03.2019.
Total combined vacancies: 1,30,000


For more details refer: Employment News (23 February – 1 March 2019).



Saturday, January 26, 2019

Integral Coach Factory, Chennai Recruitment of Graduate Apprentices & Technician (Diploma) Apprentices

Applications are invited for undergoing one year Apprenticeship Training under the Apprentices (Amendment) Act 1973.
Graduate Apprentices: 
1. Electrical & Electronics Engineering: 30 Posts
2. Mechanical Engineering: 70 Posts
Qualification:
i) A Degree in Engineering or Technology granted by a Statutory University in relevant discipline, in Mechanical Engineering and Electrical & Electronics Engineering.? ii) A Degree in Engineering or Technology granted by an Institution empowered to grant such degree by an Act of Parliament in relevant discipline. iii) Graduate examination of Professional bodies recognised by the State Government or Central Government as equivalent to above. 
Stipend: Rs.4984/-

Technician (Diploma) Apprentices
1. Electrical & Electronics Engineering: 40 Posts
2. Mechanical Engineering: 80 Posts

Qualification: i) A Diploma in Engineering or technology granted by a State Council or Board of Technical Education established by a State Government in relevant discipline. ii) A Diploma in Engineering or Technology granted by a University in relevant discipline. iii) A Diploma in Engineering and Technology granted by an Institution recognised by the State Government or Central Government as equivalent to above. 
Stipend: Rs.3542/-

How to Apply: Candidates can apply online only. 

Important Dates:
  • Opening date for receipt of online application form: January 21, 2019
  • Last date for enrolling in NATS portal: February 04, 2019
  • Last date for applying Integral Coach Factory: February 06, 2019
  • Declaration of Shortlisted list: February 13, 2019
  • Verification of certificates for shortlisted candidates: February 20, 2019
For more details, please visit: http://boat-srp.com/wp-content/uploads/2019/01/ICFN.pdf  

RRB JUNIORS EXAM PRACTICE PAPER


Saturday, December 29, 2018

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD RECRUITMENT OF 14033 POSTS FOR J.E & OTHER CATEGORIES

Applications are invited for recruitment to the posts in various Zonal Railways and Production Unites of Indian Railways.
  1. Junior Engineer: 13034 Posts
    Qualification: Diploma/ Degree in Engineering in relevant disciplines prescribed against various posts.
  2. Junior Engineer (Information Technology): 49 Posts
    Qualification: PGDCA/ B.Sc. Computer Science/ BCA/ B.Tech. in Information Technology/ Computer Science/ DOEACC "B" Level Course of 3 years duration or equivalent.
  3. Depot Material Superintendent: 456 PostsQualification: Diploma/ Degree in Engineering. 
  4. Chemical & Metallurgical Assistant: 494 Posts
    Qualification: Bachelors Degree in Science with Physics and Chemistry with minimum of 45% marks. 
    Age Limit: 33 years
    Pay: Rs.35,400/- plus allowances as admissible.

Examination Fee: Rs.250/- for SC/ ST/ Ex-Serviceman/ PwBDs/ Women/ Transgender/ Minorities/ Economic Backward Classes and Rs.500/- for all other candidates.

How to Apply: Candidates can apply online only.

Important Dates:
  • Opening date for receipt of online application form: January 02, 2019
  • Closing date for receipt of online application form: January 31, 2019


Tuesday, December 25, 2018

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT CELL / NORTHERN RALWAY ENGAGEMENT OF 1092 APPRENTICES

ONLINE applications are invited from ELIGIBLE and desirous candidates for engagement of Act Apprentices under the Apprentices Act 1961 for imparting training at various Divisions/Units/ Workshops over Northern Railway. Imparting Training in Railway will not confer any right to the candidates for their absorption in Railway after successful completion of training. It shall not be obligatory on the part of the employer to offer any employment to the Apprentice on completion of period of his/her apprenticeship training in his / her establishment. It shall not be obligatory on the part of the apprentice to accept an employment under the employer. 

A detailed notification with Trade and Unit wise breakup of training slots Eligibility condition like Educational Qualification, ITI Qualification, Age, Examination Fee, Mode of Selection, General Instructions and steps to be followed for Online Application etc. will be available on RRC website www.rrcnr.org

For Detailed Notification Click Here

Recruitment of Constable (Ancillary) Posts in Railway Protection Force and Railway Protection Special Force

Online applications are invited from eligible Male and Female candidates for the recruitment of Constable (Ancillary) for the vacancies in Railway Protection Force of various Zones of Indian Railway and Railway Protection Special Force.

Post details: 
Constable (Ancillary): 798 Posts
Trade & Vacancies:
1. Water Carrier- 452
2. Safaiwala- 199
3. Washerman- 49
4. Barber- 49
5. Mali- 07
6. Tailor Gr.III- 20
7. Cobbler Gr.III- 22
Total no. posts: 798


Qualification: SSLC/ Matric from a recognized Board with experience Physical Measurements.


Age limit: 18 to 25 years.


Selection Process: Based on Computer Based Test, Physical Efficiency Test, Physical Measurement Test, Trade Test, Medical Exam, Document Verification.


Date of opening of online registration: 01.01.2019.


ast date for online registration: 30.01.2019.


Tentative date for computer based test: February and March 2019.


For Detailed Notification Click Here

Central Railway Recruitment of DEO, Executive Asst Posts

Central Railway, Mumbai invites applications for the following posts on contract basis in Mumbai Division.

Post details:
DEO/ Executive Asst/ Digital Office Asst: 78 Posts


Qualification: Graduation (Computer applications/ Information Technology/ Computer Science).


Age limit: 30 years.


How to apply: Application should be address to- The Divisional Railway Manager, Personnel Office, 2nd Floor, Annex Bldg CSMT, Mumbai.


Last date for receipt of applications: 11.01.2019.


For Detailed Notification Click Here

South Western Railway Recruitment of Stenographer Posts

South Western Railway, Hubballi invites applications for the post of Stenographers on contract basis.

Post details:
Stenographer: 30 Posts


Qualification: 12th pass with not less than 50% marks. Knowledge of Stenography or Certificate course in MS Office.


Age: 18 to 30 years.


Mode of selection: Based on skill test on Stenography/ Computer based Skill Test on MS Office.


How to apply: Last date for receipt of applications in the Office of Principal Chief Personnel Officer, South Western Railway, Gadag Road, Hubballi.


Last date to apply: 18.01.2019.


For Detailed Notification Click Here

Sunday, June 10, 2018

RPF/RPSF Recruitment-2018 Recruitment of 8619 Constable Posts

Applications are invited for recruitment to the following posts:

Constable: 8619
  1. Male: 4403 Posts
  2. Female: 4216 Posts

Qualification: SSLC/ Matric.

Age Limit (As on 01/07/18): 25 years

Note: Matriculation certificate from a recognised Board for Constable (Executive) shall only be valid. Those awaiting results of the final examination of the prescribed educational qualification should not apply.

Physical Measurement: 
Category
Height (in CMs)
Chest (in CMs) (Only for Male)
Male
Female
Unexpanded
Expanded
UR/ OBC
165
157
80
85
SC/ ST
160
152
76.2
81.2
For Garhwalis, Gorkhas, Marathas, Dogras, Kumaonese and other Categories specified by Govt.
163
155
80
85

Examination Fee: Rs.250/- for SC/ ST/ Ex-serviceman/ Female/ Minorities/ Economically backward class and Rs.500/- for all other candidates.

    How to Apply: Candidates can apply online only.

    Important Dates:
    • Opening date for receipt of online application form: June 01, 2018
    • Closing date for receipt of online application form: June 30, 2018
    • Last date for online fee payment: July 02, 2018
    • Last date for offline fee payment: July 05, 2018

    RPF/RPSF Recruitment-2018 Recruitment of 1120 Sub-Inspector Posts

    Applications are invited for recruitment to the following posts:

    Sub-Inspector: 1120 Posts
    • Male: 819 Posts
    • Female: 301 Posts

    Qualification:
     Graduate.

    Age Limit (As on 01/07/18): 20 - 25 years

    Physical Measurement:
    Category
    Height (in CMs)
    Chest (in CMs) (Only for Male)
    Male
    Female
    Unexpanded
    Expanded
    UR/ OBC
    165
    157
    80
    85
    SC/ ST
    160
    152
    76.2
    81.2
    For Garhwalis, Gorkhas, Marathas, Dogras, Kumaonese and other Categories specified by Govt.
    163
    155
    80
    85

    Examination Fee: Rs.250/- for SC/ ST/ Ex-serviceman/ Female/ Minorities/ Economically backward class and Rs.500/- for all other candidates.

    How to Apply: Candidates can apply online only.

    Important Dates:
    • Opening date for receipt of online application form: June 01, 2018
    • Closing date for receipt of online application form: June 30, 2018
    • Last date for online fee payment: July 02, 2018
    • Last date for offline fee payment: July 05, 2018

    Monday, February 12, 2018

    RRB - 62907 Group-D Posts Recruitment

    Ministry of Railways, Railway Recruitment Boards invites applications for the recruitment of Group-D posts.
    Name of the post: Helper, Track Maintainer, Hospital Pointsman, Porter, Asst Pointsman, Hospital Attendant, Gateman.


    RRB Wise Vacancies:
    1. Secunderabad: 6523 Posts
    2. Ajmer: 4755 Posts
    3. Allahabad: 4762 Posts
    4. Bangalore: 2293 Posts
    5. Bhopal: 3522 Posts
    6. Bhubhaneshwar: 1532 Posts
    7. Bilaspur: 1159 Posts
    8. Chandigarh: 7832 Posts
    9. Chennai: 2979 Posts
    10. Gorakhpur: 3388 Posts
    11. Guwahati: 2577 Posts
    12. Kolkata: 2367 Posts
    13. Mumbai: 4625 Posts
    14. Patna: 5981 Posts
    15. Ranchi: 2525 Posts
    16. Ahmedabad: 6087 Posts
    Total no. of posts: 62907


    Age Limit: 18 to 31 years as on 01.07.2018.


    Qualification: 10th pass plus National Apprenticeship Certificate (NAC) granted by NCVT. Or 10th pass plus ITI from institutions recognised by NCVT/ SCVT. Or 10th pass or ITI from institutions recognised by NCVT/ SCVT or National Apprenticeship Certificate (NAC) granted by NCVT.


    Selection Process: Based on Computer Based Test and Physical Efficiency Test.


    Applying mode: Online.


    Last date to apply: 12.03.2018.


    Last date for fee Payment: 12.03.2018.


    Computer Based Test (CBT): Tentatively scheduled during April and May, 2018.


    FOR DETAILED NOTIFICATION CLICK HERE

    FOR ONLINE APPLICATION CLICK HERE

    Sunday, February 4, 2018

    RRB Recruitment of 26502 Asst Loco Pilot, Technician Posts

    Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) invites applications for the recruitment of Assistant Loco Pilot, Technician vacancies in different Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs).

    Post details:
    1. Assistant Loco Pilot: 17673 Posts
    2. Technicians: 8829 Posts

    Regions:
    1. Secunderabad: 3262 Posts
    2. Ahmedabad: 164 Posts
    3. Ajmer: 1221 Posts
    4. Allahabad: 4694 Posts
    5. Bangalore: 1054 Posts
    6. Bhopal: 1679 Posts
    7. Bhubaneswar: 702 Posts
    8. Bilaspur: 945 Posts
    9. Chandigarh: 1546 Posts
    10. Chennai: 945 Posts
    11. Gorakhpur: 1588 Posts
    12. Guwahati: 422 Posts
    13. Jammu - Srinagar: 367 Posts
    14. Kolkata: 1824 Posts
    15. Malda: 880 Posts
    16. Mumbai: 1425 Posts
    17. Muzaffarpur: 465 Posts
    18. Patna: 454 Posts
    19. Ranchi: 2043 Posts
    20. Siliguri: 477 Posts
    21. Thiruvananthapuram: 345 Posts

    Total No. of Posts: 26502

    Age Limit: 18 to 28 years as on 01.07.2018.

    Qualification: Matriculation/ SSLC. ITI in the trades of Armature and Coil Winder/ Electrician/ Electronics Mechanic/ Fitter/ Heat Engine/ Instrument Mechanic/ Machinist/ Mechanic Diesel/ Mechanic Motor Vehicle/ Millwright Maintenance Mechanic/ Mechanic Radio & TV/ Refrigeration and Air-conditioning Mechanic/ Tractor Mechanic/ Turner/ Wireman or Diploma in Mechanical/ Electrical/ Electronics/ Automobile Engineering. Or 10+2 with Physics and Maths.

    Selection: Based on Common Computer Based Test (CBT), Aptitude Test and Document Verification.

    Applying mode: Online.

    Last date to apply online: 05.03.2018.

    First stage Computer Based Test (CBT): Tentatively scheduled during April and May, 2018.

    For Detailed Notification Click Here

    Monday, November 20, 2017

    East Coast Railway (ECR) Recruitment of 21 Sports Person


    Total Post : 21

    Name of Post : Sports Person


    Education Qualification : Candidates should have done 10th / 12th with 80 word per minute shorthand (Hindi/English)/ Graduation Degree / having ITI certificate may also apply to be posted as Tech-III.


    Age Limit : 18 to 25 Years As on 01-01-2018. Upper age relaxation will be given to reserved category as per the organization norms. More details please go to official notification.


    Pay Scale : Rs. 5200 - 20,200/- with Grade Pay 2000/1900/-.


    Application Fee :
     General/OBC : 500/- & For All Other Candidates (PH/ST/SC/Ex-S/Minorities/EBC) Application Fee is : Nil


    Selection Process : All Eligible Candidates will Be Selected Based on Their Performance In Written Exam / Interview.


    How to Apply : All Eligible and Interested candidates Can Download application Form through official website http://www.eastcoastrail.indianrailways.gov.in. After Filling The application form, candidate must send hard copy of application along with relevant testimonials (Mentioned In Detailed Advertisement) to the following Address before or on 18th December 2017.


    Postal Address : Office of the Principal Chief Personnel Officer,2nd Floor, Rail Sadan, Chandrasekharpur, Bhubaneswar, Odisha - 751017.

    Important Dates
    Application Online Start : 18 November, 2017
    Last Date for Registration : 18 December, 2017

    Important Links
    Download Notification & Application Form : Click Here to Download
    Official Website : http://www.eastcoastrail.indianrailways.gov.in

    Sunday, November 19, 2017

    Ircon International Limited (IRCON) Recruitment of Various Posts


    Total Post : 20
    Name of Post : 
    1. Deputy General Manager/Finance - E-5 : 02
    2. Manager/Finance- E-4 : 04
    3. Deputy Manager/Finance- E-3 : 04
    4. Assistant Manager/Finance- E-2 : 05
    5. Assistant Officer/Finance- E-1 : 05

    Education Qualification : Candidates should have done CA/ICWA Degree or its equivalent qualification from a recognized university. 
    Age Limit : 45 Years (Post 1), 41 Years (Post 2), 37 Years (Post 3), 33 Years (Post 4), 30 Years (Post 5) As on 01-09-2017. 
    Pay Scale : Rs. 32,900 - 58,000/- (Post 1), Rs. 29,100 – 54,500/- (Post 2), Rs. 24,900 – 50,500/- (Post 3), Rs. 20,600 - 46,500/- (Post 4), Rs. 16,400 - 40,500/- (Post 5).
    Application Fee :
     General/OBC : 1000/- & For All Other Candidates (SC/ST/Ex Serviceman) Application Fee is : 250/- & For All Other Candidates (PWD) Application Fee is : Nil
    Selection Process : All Eligible Candidates will Be Selected Based on Their Performance In Written Exam, Interview.
    How to Apply : All Eligible and Interested candidates may fill the online application through official website http://www.ircon.org before or on 7th December 2017.
    Advertisement No. : 20/2017

    Important Dates
    Application Online Start : 22 November, 2017
    Last Date for Registration : 07 December, 2017

    Important Links
    Download Notification : Click Here to Download
    Apply Online : Click Here to Apply
    Official Website : http://www.ircon.org

    Lucknow Metro Rail Corporation Ltd. Junior Engineering Exam Solved Paper (Exam Held on: 17-03-2016)

    1. A NAND gate has– 
    (A) LOW inputs and a HIGH output (B) LOW inputs and LOW output 
    (C) HIGH inputs and a HIGH output (D) HIGH inputs and LOW outputs (Ans : A)

    2. When the time period of observation is large the type of the error is– 
    (A) Position error constant (B) Steady state error (C) Transient error (D) Half power error (Ans : B)

    3. Magnetrostriction is a phenomenon where the magnetization of a ferromagnetic material leads to a change in– 
    (A) magnetic susceptibility (B) physical dimensions (C) spontaneous magnetization (D) relative permeability (Ans : D)

    4. When an electron jumps from the valence shell to the conduction band it leaves a gap. What is the gap called? 
    (A) electron hole pair (B) recombination (C) hole (D) energy gap (Ans : D)

    5. An inductor stores energy in– 
    (A) electrostatic field (B) electromagnetic field (C) core (D) magnetic field (Ans : D)

    6. The characteristics equation s3 – 3s2 – 3s – k = 0 stable for which value of k ? 
    (A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 5 (D) – 6 (Ans : B)

    7. The accuracy of a meter is determined by .......... deflection. 
    (A) Full-scale (B) Half-scale (C) One-fourth of full scale (D) One-tenth of full scale (Ans : A)

    8. Dead zone of an instrument is– 
    (A) the largest change of input quantity for which there is no output of the instrument 
    (B) the time required by an instrument system to begin to respond to a change in measurement 
    (C) the unmeasured quantity which is more than the maximum range of the instrument 
    (D) change in measuring time (Ans : C)

    9. (– 1/2 – j0) is the centre of a constant N-circle in G-plane. Phase-angle will be– 
    (A) 45° (B) 180° (C) 0° (D) 90° (Ans : C)

    10. A device that converts from decimal to binary numbered is called– 
    (A) encoder (B) decoder (C) CPU (D) converter (Ans : A)

    11. The magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnetic material is– 
    (A) less than one but positive (B) greater than one (C) equal to zero (D) less than zero (Ans : B)

    12. A circuit in which the output is the ramp pulses for an input of square pulses then– 
    (A) It is an integrating circuit with low RC (B) It is a differentiating circuit with high RC 
    (C) It is a differentiating circuit with low RC (D) It is an integrating circuit with high RC (Ans : B)

    13. Convert the binary number 1001.0010 to decimal– 
    (A) 9.125 (B) 125 (C) 90.125 (D) 12.5 (Ans : A)

    14. The following circuit gives the output– 

    (A) ABCDE (B) [{C(A + B)D}E'] (C) C(A + B)DE (D) [C(A + B)D + E'] (Ans : C)

    15. ........... cannot be used to measure pressure. 
    (A) Strain gauge (B) Pyrometer (C) LVDT (D) Pirani gauge (Ans : B)

    16. In case of synchro error detector, the electrical zero position of control-transformer is obtained when angular displacement between rotors is– 
    (A) 45° (B) 180° (C) 90° (D) Zero system (Ans : B)

    17. Convert the binary number 1011010 to hexadecimal– 
    (A) SF (B) SC (C) SA (D) SB (Ans : C)

    18. The super-position theorem is applicable to– 
    (A) both current and voltage (B) current only (C) voltage only (D) current, voltage and power (Ans : D)

    19. What causes the depletion region? 
    (A) diffusion (B) barrier potential (C) ions (D) doping (Ans : A)

    20.Exclusive-OR (XOR) logic gates can be constructed from what other logic gates? 
    (A) AND gates, OR gate!" NOT gates (B) OR gates and NOT gates 
    (C) OR gates only (D) AND gates and NOT gates (Ans : A)

    21. Figure below represent a– 

    (A) Power diode (B) Triac thyristor (C) Capacitive diode (D) Diac trigger (Ans : B)

    22. What will be the state of a silicon diode if the voltage drop across it is about 0.7 V ? 
    (A) Forward bias (B) Zener region (C) Reverse bias (D) No bias (Ans : *)

    23.How many orbiting electron does the germanium atom have? 
    (A) 4 (B) 41 (C) 14 (D) 32 (Ans : A)

    24. What is the resistor value of an ideal diode in the region of conduction? 
    (A) infinity (B) undefined (C) 0 Ω (D) 5 kΩ (Ans : C)

    25. If an induction type energy meter runs fast, it can be slowed down by– 
    (A) adjusting the position of braking magnet and making it come closer to the centre of the disc (B) lag adjustment 
    (C) light load adjustment (D) adjusting the position of braking magnet and making it move away from the centre of the disc (Ans : D)

    26. The maximum value of a controller output is 100 V and is obtained when the input error is IV. If the controller is working at 20% proportional band, the error and output will be respectively? 
    (A) 1 V and 20 V (B) 0.2 V and 120 V (C) 1 V and 120V (D) 0.2 V and 100 V (Ans : D)

    27. If there are b branches and n nodes, the number of equations will be– 
    (A) n-1 (B) b-n (C) b (D) b-n-I (Ans : D)

    28. Liquid crystal material is used in– 
    (A) Ultrasonic amplification and display devices (B) Display devices and thermal sensors 
    (C) Thermal sensors and transducers (D) Transducers and ultrasonic amplification (Ans : B)

    29. Root loci starts from– 
    (A) poles and ends on zero (B) poles and ends on infinity (C) zeros and ends on pole (D) zeros and ends on infinity (Ans : D)

    30. For a design of the binary counter preferred types of flip-flop is– 
    (A) SR type (B) JK type (C) Latch (D) D-type (Ans : B)

    31. In P type semiconductor material, minority carriers would be– 
    (A) slower (B) holes (C) dopants (D) electrons (Ans : D)

    32 What unit is used to represent the level of diode forward current IF? 
    (A) mA (B) μA (C) pA (D) p/A (Ans : A)

    33. The radio-communication spectrum is divided into bends based on– 
    (A) Amplitude (B) Cost and hardware (C) Frequency (D) Transmission media (Ans : C)

    34. Which material may also be considered a semiconductor element? 
    (A) carbon (B) argon (C) ceramic (D) mica (Ans : A)

    35. Forward bias of a silicon P-N junction will produce a barrier voltage of approximately how many volts? 
    (A) 0.7 (B) 0.8 (C) 0.3 (D) 0.2 (Ans : A)

    36. An accurate ammeter must have a resistance of– 
    (A) high value (B) very high value (C) low value (D) very low value (Ans : D)

    37. Calculate the power dissipation of a diode having Id = 40 mA– 
    (A) 28 mW (B) 28 W (C) undefined (D) 280 mW (Ans : A)

    38. An ohmmeter is a– 
    (A) Moving iron instrument (B) Moving coil instrument 
    (C) Dynamometer instrument (D) Moving iron and moving coil both (Ans : D)

    39 Which capacitance dominates in the forward-bias region? 
    (A) Transition (B) Diffusion (C) Depletion (D) Drift (Ans : B)

    40. A positive AND gate is also a negative– 
    (A) NAND gate (B) AND gate (C) NOR gate (D) OR gate (Ans : D)

    41. The main difference between the electronic and electrical instruments is that an electronic instrument has– 
    (A) a digital readout (B) transducer (C) an electron device (D) an indicating device (Ans : A)

    42. The transducer in a measurement system is the–
    (A) signal-conditioning device (B) output element (C) input element (D) processing device (Ans : A)

    43. Ultrasonic amplification through electron-photon interaction is generally achieved using a– 
    (A) Superconductor (B) Piezoelectric material 
    (C) Paramagnetic material (D) Elemental semiconductor (Ans : A)

    44. 8085 has .......... software restarts and ......... hardware restarts. 
    (A) 6, 6 (B) 10, 5 (C) 7, 5 (D) 8, 4 (Ans : D)

    45. Convert the decimal number 151.75 to binary– 
    (A) 11010011.01 (B) 10010111.11 (C) 00111100.00 (D) 10000111.11 (Ans : B)

    46. In a cable capacitor, voltage gradient is maximum at the surface of the– 
    (A) Conductor (B) Sheath (C) Dielectric (D) Earth  (Ans : A)

    47. The temperature coefficient of resistance of an insulator is– 
    (A) Negative and independent to temperature 
    (B) Negative and dependent on temperature 
    (C) Positive and dependent on temperature 
    (D) Positive and independent of temperature (Ans : B)

    48. Piezoelectric materials owe their property to the– 
    (A) Lack of axis of symmetry (B) Pressence of a centre of a symmetry 
    (C) Lack of a centre of symmetry (D) Presence of axis of summetry (Ans : D)

    49. In a CRO, the time base signal is a– 
    (A) High frequency sinusoidal waveform (B) Square waveform 
    (C) High frequency saw tooth waveform (D) Rectangular waveform (Ans : C)

    50. In case of delta connected circuit, when one resistor is open, power will be– 
    (A) unaltered (B) reducedto1/3 (C) reduced by 1/3 (D) zero (Ans : A)

    51. The output will be a LOW for any case when one or more inputs are zero is a– 
    (A) NOT gate (B) NAND gate (C) OR gate (D) AND gate (Ans : D)

    52. Highest operating frequency can be expected in the case of– 
    (A) JFET (B) All the other given option have nearly same frequency 
    (C) MOSFET (D) Bipolar transistor (Ans : D)

    53. Which one of the following compensation is adopted for improving transient response of a negative unity feedback system? 
    (A) gain compensation (B) both phase lag compensation and gain compensation 
    (C) phase lag compensation (D) phase lead compensation (Ans : B)

    54. The resistances 15.3 Ω, 7Ω, 13Ω and 4.7Ω are connected series. The equivalent resistance will be– 
    (A) 40 Ω (B) 25 Ω (C) 0.025 Ω (D) 0.04 Ω (Ans : A)

    55. Which of the examples below expresses the commutative law of multiplication? 
    (A) A.B = B.A (B) A + B = B + A (C) A.(B.C) = (A.B).C (D) A.B = B + A (Ans : C)

    56. An ammeter is a– 
    (A) recording instrument (B) integrating instrument (C) absolute instrument (D) secondary instrument (Ans : C)

    57. A unit impulse function on differentiation results in– 
    (A) unit triplet (B) unit doublet (C) unit parabolic function (D) unit ramp function (Ans : D)

    58. Elements with 1, 2 or 3 valence electrons usually make excellent– 
    (A) neutral (B) conductor (C) semiconductor (D) insulator (Ans : B)

    59. The major cause of creeping in an energy meter is– 
    (A) over-compensation for friction (B) excessive voltage across the potential coil 
    (C) mechanical vibrations (D) stray magnetic fields (Ans : D)

    60. The term zero effect is associated with– 
    (A) quality control (B) radars (C) transistors (D) transmission lines (Ans : A)

    61. Standard TTL has a multiple emitter input transistor and a ........... output. 
    (A) Register (B) Totem-pole (C) Bipolar (D) Transistor (Ans : B)

    62. Regarding VTVM which of the following statement is incorrect? 
    (A) It is usually plugged into power supply line (B) It measures AC volts 
    (C) Its ohm rangers are usually up to RX 1000 Ω (D) It cannot measure directly (Ans : D)

    63. Which one of following is a disadvantage of proportional controller? 
    (A) It has very simple implementation (B) It produces offset (C) It makes response faster (D) It destabilises the system (Ans : D)

    64. In N-type material majority carriers would be– 
    (A) dopants (B) electrons (C) holes (D) slower(Ans : B)

    65. What is the result when a decimal 5238 is converted to base 16 ? 
    (A) 327.375 (C) 1476 (B) 12166 (D) 1388 (Ans : C)

    66. The observation that a bubbled input OR gate interchangeable with a bubbled output AND gate is referred to as– 
    (A) the commutative law of addition (B) de-morgan's second theorem 
    (C) a kamaugh map (D) the associative law of multiplication (Ans : B)

    67. Ionization within a P-N junction causes a layer on each side of the barrier called the– 
    (A) forward voltage (B) junction (C) depletion region (D) barrier voltage (Ans : C)

    68. The coercive force in ferromagnetic material is related to the–
    (A) Intercept on the negative H-axis of the B-H loop 
    (B) Area enclosed by the B-H loop 
    (C) Maximum value of B on the B-H loop 
    (D) Intercept on the positive B-axis of the B-H loop (Ans : B)

    69. An electronic instrument essentially consists of– 
    (A) a transducer (B) an indicating device (C) a digital readout (D) an electron device (Ans : C)

    70. When is a P-N junction formed? 
    (A) Whenever there is a forward voltage drop 
    (B) The point at which two opposite doped materials come together 
    (C) In a large reverse biased region (D) In a depletion region (Ans : B)

    71. What is an energy gap? 
    (A) The energy equal to the energy acquired by an electron passing a IV electric field 
    (B) Energy difference between conduction band and valence band 
    (C) An energy level at which an electron can exist 
    (D) The space between two orbital shell (Ans : B)

    72. A potentiometer may be used for– 
    (A) Measurement of energy (B) Measurement of resistance 
    (C) Calibration of ammeter and voltmeter (D) Measurement of current (Ans : C)

    73. The relaxation time (τ) in a perfect dielectric is– 
    (A) 0 (B) 1 < τ < ͚  (C) 1 (D)  ͚  (Ans : B)

    74. As compared to oscillators an inverter provides– 
    (A) low voltage output (B) low frequency output (C) noiseless output (D) distortionless output (Ans : D)

    75. The multiplier and the meter coil in a voltmeter are connected in– 
    (A) No connection (B) Mixed (C) Series (D) Parallel (Ans : D)

    76. The ceramic dielectrics used in electrical engineering include– 
    (A) Cermet and Silicide (B) Porcelain and Cermet (C) Cordierite and Porcelain (D) Silicide and Cordierite (Ans : C)

    77. A coil having an inductance of 75 H is carrying a current of 100 A. If the current is reduced to zero in 0.2 second, the self-inductance e.m.f. will be– 
    (A) 375 V (B) 500 V (C) 125 V (D) 750 V (Ans : A)

    78. What is the decimal value of the hexadecimal number 777 ? 
    (A) 1911 (B) 19 (C) 191 (D) 19111 (Ans : A)

    79. How many truth table entries are necessary for a four-input circuit ? 
    (A) 16 (B) 12 (C) 4 (D) 8 (Ans : A)

    80. Which semi-conductor device acts like a diode and two resistors? 
    (A) SCR (B) Diac (C) Triac (D) UJT (Ans : D)

    81. Intrinsic semiconductor material is charaterized by a valence shell of how many electrons? 
    (A) 1 (B) 6 (C) 2 (D) 4 (Ans : D)

    82. How many 3 to 8 line decoder are required for a 1 of 32 decoder? 
    (A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 2 (D) 1 (Ans : A)

    83 A P-N junction depicts a closed switch when it– 
    (A) cannot overcome its barrier potential (B) is reversed biased 
    (C) has a low junction resistance (D) has a wide depletion region (Ans : C)

    84. The room temperature resistivity (in ohm-meter) of pure silicon is– 
    (A) 3 (B) 3000 (C) 300 (D) 30 (Ans : C)

    85. The effect of adding poles and zero can be determined quickly by– 
    (A) Nicholas chart (B) Bode plot (C) Root locus (D) Nyquist plot (Ans : B)

    86. What type of magnetic behaviour is observed in a type I super-conductor? 
    (A) perfect diamagnetism (B) perfect ferrimagnetism (C) perfect ferromagnetism (D) perfect paramagnetism (Ans : C)

    87. If the instrument is to have a wide range, it should have– 
    (A) square-law scale (B) linear scale (C) logarithmic scale (D) exponential scale (Ans : B)

    88. The diffused impurities with how many valence electrons are called donor atoms? 
    (A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 0 (D) 5 (Ans : D)

    89. The period of a periodic wave is– 
    (A) expressed in volts (B) the same as the frequency 
    (C) the time required to complete one cycle (D) measured in wavelengths (Ans : C)