Thursday, September 29, 2011


1. RTI stands for ———————
(a) Right to interest
(b) Right to information
(c) Right to interrogate
(d) None
2. Sheela Dixit is a CM of ———–
(a) Delhi
(b) HP
(c) TN
(d) None
3. Who is Prime Ministerial candidate of BJP?
(a) Rajnath
(b) Arun Jaitley
(c) L.K. Advani
(d) None
4. Prof. Prem Kumar Dhumal is a CM of HP belongs to which party ?
(a) RJD
(b) BJP
(c) Congress
(d) None
5. Who is Leader of Bhartia Janshakti Party?
(a) Uma Bharti
(b) Sonia Gandhi
(c) L.K. Advani
(d) None
6. BKU stands for ————————
(a) Bhartia Kisan Union
(b) Bharat King Union
(c) British king Union
(d) None
7. MNS is a regional party belongs to —————
(a) Maharashtra
(b) TN
(c) AP
(d) None
8. IES stands for ———-
(a) Indian Economic Service
(b) Indian Engine Service
(c) Indian Eastern Service
(d) None
9. Headquarter of is in ——————
(a) Amritsar
(b) Ludhiana
(c) Jalandhar
(d) None
10. UPA alliance is led by ————–
(a) BJP
(b) Congress
(c) CPI
(d) None
11. NDA alliance is led by —————-
(a) BJP
(b) Congress
(c) SAD
(d) None
12. UPA stands for ————-
(a) United Pure Alliance
(b) United Progressive Alliance
(c) Union Pure Action
(d) None
13. ‘The money you can bank upon’ is a business slogan of —————–
(a) PNB
(c) HDFC
(d) None
14. NDA stands for ———–
(a) National Democratic Alliance
(b) National Degree Alter
(c) National Decorator Advice
(d) None
15. PRP is party of which actor?
(a) SRK
(b) Chiranjivi
(c) Amir Khan
(d) Salman Khan
16. PRP stands for ————–
(a) Praja Rajyam Party
(b) Priya Rajyam Party
(c) a & b
(d) None
17. Which of the following is a university?
(a) STD
(b) HPL
(c) LPU
(d) None
18. LPU stands for ————-
(a) Lovely Professional University
(b) Lonely Professional University
(c) Laser Plate Unit
(d) None
19. Mulayam Singh Yadav is a Supremo of —————
(a) BJP
(b) SP
(c) Congress
(d) None
20. Who is TDP founder?
(a) N.T. Ramarao
(b) Chadere Babu Naidu
(c) Chianjivi
(d) None
21. KP Singh is a famous personality related to ————
(a) DLF
(b) HCL
(d) None
22. Who is AICCC chief ?
(a) Rahul Gandhi
(b) Sonia Gandhi
(c) Prianka Gandhi
(d) None
23. SGPC related to which community —————- ?
(a) Hindu
(b) Sikh
(c) Muslim
(d) None
24. SGPC stands for ————-
(a) Shiromani Gurudwara Prabhandhak Committee
(b) Sardar Gurudwara Prahar Committee
(c) a & b
(d) None
25. President of SGPC is ————-
(a) Arjun Singh
(b) Amrinder Singh
(c) Avtar Singh
(d) None
26. Who is the first Indian to win the Junior Australian Open Title?
(a) Mahesh Bhupati (b) Leander Peas
(c) Yuki Bhambri (d) None
27. Root Canal Treatment Connected with ———–.
(a) Heart (b) Teeth
(c) Brain (d) None
28. which of the following is old term of kilocycle?
(a) Kilowatt (b) Kilohertz
(c) Kilogram (d) Kilometer
29. Which are ordinal numbers?
(a) 2, 5, 8 (b) 1, 3, 5
(c) 9, 5, 8 (d) 9,5, 8
30. Which housing company is supposed to largest housing Finance company in India?
(a) HDFC (b) ICICI
(c) LIC (d) GIC
31. Zoography describes———–.
(a) Animal (b) Man
(c) Woman (d) Bird
32. ———–was the first person to be portrayed on postage stamp.
(a) Queen-II (b) Queen Victoria
(c) Mozaic (d) None
33. Which group is largest tractor manufacture in India?
(a) Ford (b) Mahindra
(c) Escort (d) Zeeter
34. ABN Amro is———-Company?
(a) Dutch (b) India
(c) Pakistan (d) Negro
35. ABN Amro associated with ———.
(a) Industrial Sector (b) Banking Sector
(c) a & b (d) None
36. In Japan war time sexslave are known as—————.
(a) Ordinary woman (b) Comfort woman
(c) old woman (d) None
37. Which is largest Meteor Crater in the World?
(a) Somia Crater (b) Barringer Crater
(c) Nome Crater (d) None
38. Which of the following singer is associated with film Slum dog Millionaire?
(a) Sukhvinder (b) Himesh Reshmia
(c) Sonu Nigam (d) Alka Yagnik
39. What is per Kg cost fixed by ISRO in order to access to space?
(a) 10 Lakh (b) 9 Lakh
(c) 12 Lakh (d) 15 Lakh
40. The term ‘Black hole’ is coined by Scientist of which Country?
(a) India (b) America
(c) Russia (d) Japan
41. Which Scientist is behind the ‘Black Hole’?
(a) Johnny Walker (b) Newton
(c) Johan Wheeler (d) None
42. Which of the following Satellite is dedicated to education?
(a) InSAT (b) Geoset
(c) EduSAT (d) None
43. Which of the following is highest Mountain in USA?
(a) McKinley (b) McDonald
(c) a & b (d) None
44. ‘Billy Budd’ is directed by———-.
(a) Peter Thomas (b) Peter Ustinov
(c) Peter Cole (d) None
45. How many % of Muslim are there in Pakistan?
(a) 92% (b) 97%
(c) 98 (d) 99%
46. The Ionosphere is discovered by—————.
(a) Sir Edward Charles (b) Sir Richard
(c) Sir Edward Appleton (d) None
47. What is common thing is Sushmita Sen & Lara Dutta?
(a) Both are Miss World (b) Both win Miss Universe Title
(c) Both win Miss India Title (d) None
48. Which Country’s P.M. have salary five times the salary of United States President?
(a) India (b) Singapore
(c) Japan (d) Sri Lanka
49. Which of the following Union Minister have PhD in Math?
(a) R. P. Singh (b) D.P. Singh
(c) R. S. Khanna (d) S. K Atwal
50. How many officers are their in Indian Army?
(a) 38000 (b) 34000
(c) 32000 (d) 30000
51. Which was the first university to start Environmental Education?
(a) Vishwa Bharti (b) S.N. Banerjee (c) Mother Teressa (d) Fahien
52. What was the old name of Sri Lanka?
(a) Burma (b) Siam (c) Ceylon (d) Batavia
53. Who was the first Bharat Ratna Award winner?
(a) C. Rajagopalachari (b) R.N. Tagore (c) C.V. Raman (d) Dadabhai Naroji
54. Which is the Major Export of India?
(a) Rice (b) Wheat (c) Tea (d) None of these
55. Which is the language of Kerala?
(a) Malayalam (b) English (c) Hindu (d) Telgu
56. In which year Guru Nanak Dev University established?
(a) 1969 (b) 1995 (c) 1990 (d) 1965
57. Which is the language of Manipur?
(a) Manipuri (b) Hindi (c) Oriya (d) Marathi
58. 5th June is called a
(a) World Diabetes day (b) Sports day (c) World Food day (d) Environment Day
59. In which year Sukumar Sen become the first Chief Commissioner of India?
(a) 1960 (b) 1970 (c) 1950 (d) 1940
60. Which is Kolkata’s leading Newspaper
(a) Telegraph (b) Aaj (c) Times of India (d) None of these
61. Which was the first bank of India?
(a) S.B.I. (b) R.B.I. (c) Bank of Hindustan (d) SEBI
62. Which is the Capital of Assam?
(a) Patna (b) Dispur (c) Chennai (d) Dehradun
63. Which is National bird of India?
(a) Lion (b) Peacock (c) Sparrow (d) Hen
64. Which is the Currency of Congo?
(a) Dinar (b) Franc (c) Dollar (d) Lira
65. H.A. stands for?
(a) Haling Allowance (b) Haryana Academy (c) Hindustan Authority (d) None of these
66. In which year first Postal Service was started?
(a) 1830 (b) 1835 (c) 1837 (d) 1840
67. Which is the capital of Russia?
(a) Moscow (b) Doha (c) Hanoi (d) Rabat
68. C.I.A. stands for?
(a) Central Indian Academy (b) Central Intelligence Agency (c) Central Institute of Agriculture (d) None of these
69. Andhra Patrika Newspapers leading in which city?
(a) Bangalore (b) Vijayawada (c) Mumbai (d) Pune
70. What was the old name of Punjab?
(a) Sapta Sindhu (b) Punjabi (c) Aabs (d) None of these
71. In which year pin code was established?
(a) 1970 (b) 1972 (c) 1975 (d) 1980
72. In which year Guru Arjun Dev was born?
(a) 1581 (b) 1539 (c) 1564 (d) 1664
73. 27th September is called a
(a) World Tourism Day (b) World Health Day (c) Children Day (d) Air Force Day
74. In which year Postal Department was established?
(a) 1850 (b) 1830 (c) 1837 (d) 1854
75. Which is the language of Sikkim?
(a) Hindi (b) Nepali (c) (a) and (b) (d) None of these


1. (b) Right to information
2. (a) Delhi
3. (c) L.K. Advani
4. (b) BJP
5. (a) Uma Bharti
6. (a) Bhartia Kisan Union
7. (a) Maharashtra
8. (a) Indian Economic Service
9. (b) Ludhiana
10. (b) Congress
11. (a) BJP
12. (b) United Progressive Alliance
13. (a) PNB
14. (a) National Democratic Alliance
15. (b) Chiranjivi
16. (a) Praja Rajyam Party
17. (c) LPU
18. (a) Lovely Professional University
19. (b) SP
20. (a) N.T. Ramarao
21. (a) DLF
22. (b) Sonia Gandhi
23. (b) Sikh
24. (a) Shiromani Gurudwara Prabhandhak Committee
25. (c) Avtar Singh
26. (c) Yuki Bhambri
27. (b) Teeth
28. (b) Kilohertz
29. (b) 1, 3, 5
30. (a) HDFC
31. (a) Animal
32. (b) Queen Victoria
33. (b) Mahindra
34. (a) Dutch
35. (b) Banking Sector
36. (b) Comfort woman
37. (b) Barringer Crater
38. (a) Sukhvinder
39. (b) 9 Lakh
40. (b) America
41. (c) Johan Wheeler
42. (c) EduSAT
43. (a) McKinley
44. (b) Peter Ustinov
45. (b) 97%
46. (b) Sir Richard
47. (b) Both win Miss Universe Title
48. (a) India
49. (a) R. P. Singh
50. (b) 34000
51. a
52. c
53. a
54. c
55. a
56. a
57. a
58. d
59. c
60. a
61. c
62. b
63. b
64. b
65. a
66. c
67. a
68. b
69. b
70. a
71. b
72. a
74. d
75. c

Friday, September 16, 2011


o  The selection is made strictly as per merit, on the basis of written  examination. In addition, Aptitude/Skill Test/Interview etc. may also be conducted wherever applicable. Short listed candidates will  be called for verification of the original documents according to  merit, availability of vacancies and reservation rules.

o  There shall be negative marking in written examination and marks  shall be deducted for each wrong answer @1/3 of the allotted  marks for each question.

o  The syllabus for the written examination will be generally in  conformity with the educational standards and/or technical  qualifications prescribed for the posts. The Questions will be of  objective type with multiple answers and likely to  include  questions pertaining to General Knowledge, General  English / General Hindi, General Arithmetic, Analytical and Quantitative Skills and those subjects covered as part of minimum educational/technical qualifications for the post.  The question  paper will be in English, Hindi and Urdu as well as in regional  languages prevails in the jurisdiction of each RRB. The duration of  the examination will be 1½ to 2 hours with approximately 100 to  150 questions.

o  The Railway Recruitment Board, at its discretion may hold  additional written test(s) and/or interview/skill test if considered  necessary for all or for a limited number of candidates as may be  deemed fit by Railway Recruitment Board.

o  The date, time and venue of the written examination and  Aptitude/Skill Test/ Interview will be fixed by the RRB and will be  intimated to the eligible candidates in due course. Request for  postponement of the examination/skill test/interview and  change  of center/venue will not be entertained under any circumstance.

o  Stages of examination are given against each post.  Based on the  performance of candidates in the examination, the candidates equal  to the number of vacancies will be called for document verification  in the main list. In addition 30% extra candidates are also called as  standby candidates and they are considered for empanelment only  if there is shortfall in empanelment from the main  list.  During  document verification, the candidates will have to  produce their original certificates.   No additional time will be given and the candidature of the candidates not producing their original  certificates on the date of verification is liable to be forfeited. 

o  The appointment of selected candidates is subject to his/her passing requisite Medical Fitness Test to be conducted by the  Railway Administration, final verification of educational and  community certificate and verification of antecedent/character of  the candidate.


Provisional Panel of Cat 1,2,3,4,43,45 & 47 and Result of Written Exam of Cat 24 & 73 of CEN 5-2010 (SEs & JEs)



Group ‘D’ Recruitment

Employment Notice No. 1/2008 (Group ‘D’) issued in March’ 2008

General Information

Roll Number & Venue Information for Candidates Qualified In The Physical Efficiency Tests 

Roll Number & Venue Information for Candidates  who Applied against Physically Handicapped Quota


1.The candidate should reach the centre of the skill test well in time. Candidates reporting after the commencement of the dictation shall
not be admitted to the test hall.
2.The candidate will not be allowed to enter the test hall without producing the call letter in original. Preserve the call letter carefully as no photocopy or F.I.R. for loss of the same will be allowed as substitute. The call letter is not transferable.
3.  The skill test shall commence after formalities  like checking of attendance, collection of call letters etc.  are completed. Candidates willnot be permitted to leave the test hall until 15 minutes have elapsed after the commencement of transcription time or before the test is over and the Centre Supervisor/Invigilator has given direction to leave. This may take some time after the test is over.
4.  Use of books, papers etc. are not permitted. Use of mobile phones inside the test hall is strictly prohibited.
5.  Indulging  in any malpractice/unfair means in the test hall will disqualify the candidate and he/she will be debarred from all further RRB
examinations and appointment in Railways.
6. The RRB reserves the right to order re‐tests in the case of any candidate or all candidates.
7.Furnishing of any false information to the RRB or deliberate suppression of any material information will, at any stage of its detection will
render  the  candidate  liable  for  being  disqualified  and  debarred  from  appearing  at  any  selection  or examination  for  appointment  to Railways.
8.Before leaving the test hall, candidates must submit the transcription sheet (both the original and the duplicate) and the shorthand note
sheets to the Invigilator.
9. Change of date/reporting time/centre of the test will not be permitted under any circumstances.
10. SC/ST  candidates  are  entitled  to  free  rail  travel  and  should  produce  the  call  letter with  scanned  photograph  at  the  Railway  booking counter for issue of tickets. However, Railway passes will not be issued for collection of duplicate call letters.
11. Candidates must  sign on  the call  letter  (at  the appropriate  space)  in  the  test hall  in presence of  the  Invigilator only. His/her signature should be in same language and same style as in application form.
12. Candidates arranging  impersonation shall be disqualified and debarred  for  life  from all  future RRB examinations. Candidates arranging impersonator and/or  impersonators are  liable for prosecution under  law. Candidates causing disturbances  in the test premises shall be dealt with similarly.
13. Candidate has to affix his/her  left thumb  impression carefully  in  the space provided  in the attendance sheet without smudging on the provided space of the attendance sheet. Candidature of candidates with unclear/smudged left thumb impression will be rejected.
14.  Special instructions, if any, given by Invigilator(s) should be followed rigidly.
15.Name, community, roll numbers etc. are required to be filled up by the candidates compulsorily in foil attached to the Answer Sheets.
16.  Candidates  should bring good quality  typewriter machines with  them. RRB/Guwahati will not provide any  typewriter machine and will not be able to supply any machine if the machine brought by the candidate becomes defective. Electronic typewriter machines will not
be allowed.
17.The test passage will contain 800 words which will need to be typed at 80 w.p.m. Before dictation of test passage, the Dictator shall give
two trial dictations as a “warming up practice” to the candidates.
18. After dictation, candidates are required to do the transcription when signaled.
19.The time allowed for transcription passage would be 65 minutes for English passage and 75 minutes for Hindi passage.
20.The candidates should write their roll number, name and sign at the end of each sheet of transcript and shorthand note sheets.
21. The following will be considered as full mistakes:
  Every omission of a word or figure including omission of a definite or indefinite article
  Every substitution of a wrong word or figure
  Every  addition  of  a word  or  figure  or  a  group  of words/figures  including  addition  of  a  definite  article  not  occurring  in  the passage
  Handwritten additions/corrections/insertions
22. The following will be considered as half mistakes:
  Mis‐spelling, including transposition of letters in a word and also omission of a letter or letters from a word
  Using singular for plural noun and vice versa
  Transposition of words/group of words in a sentence
  Repeating a word/figure or a group of words or group of figures in the transcript
  Wrong use of capital letters at the beginning of the sentence
  Omission or placement of the apostrophe in a word in the possessive case, or in contracted words
  Insertion of a space in the middle of a word
  Lack of space between words
  Wrong syllabification of a word at the end of line
  Ambiguous overtyping
  Complete and ambiguous overlapping
  Omission or wrong placement of the caret sign
  Arbitrary and unfamiliar abbreviations
  More than one error in a single word
23.  Stenography skill test is of qualifying nature and candidates failing in the skill test will not be considered.
24.Please note that in other matters, the terms & conditions etc. laid down in the Employment Notice shall apply mutatis mutandis.

NOTE:  The call  letter for Stenography skill test is provisional and does not give any guarantee for employment.  If  it  is  found  later at any stage
that you do not fulfill any of the conditions of eligibility, your candidature will be cancelled and no appeal against such cancellation will
be entertained. You are therefore advised to check carefully and satisfy yourself that you fulfill all the conditions of eligibility.


                                           NORTH CENTRAL RAILWAY
                                               Railway Recruitment Cell
                  Balmiki Chauraha, Nawab Yusuf Road, Civil Lines, Allahabad

                       DATE FOR WRITTEN EXAMINATION – GROUP ‘D’
                       REF: Employment Notice No. 01/2007 dated 22.12.2007

1. Railway Recruitment Cell, North Central Railway will conduct written examination on 16.10.2011 (Sunday) for recruitment of Group ‘D’ posts notified through Employment Notice No. 01/2007dt. 22.12.2007.

2. List of eligible candidates for Written Exam as well as for further updates logon to

3. Written Exam:
a) Question Paper shall be based on 8th standard consisting of 150 multiple choice objective questions to assess the General Knowledge/awareness/ mathematics/reasoning etc.

b) Duration of Written Exam shall be 2 hours.

c) 1/3rd of the allotted marks will be deducted for every wrong answer/multiple answer i.e. one mark shall be deducted for three wrong answers.

d) Question Paper shall be printed in Hindi, English and Urdu.

4. CALL LETTERS indicating venue and timing etc. will be sent to the eligible candidates well in advance.

5. DUPLICATE/CORRECTED Call letters would be issued in the following circumstances.
a) If a candidate finds his application status as eligible after checking on the website, but does not receive Call letter by 11.10.2011
b) If a candidate notices any discrepancy in Call Letter regarding Name, Father’s name, Caste, Photogarph or signature etc.

Tuesday, September 6, 2011


1. An emulsion is a colloid of a—
(A) Gas in a liquid
(B) Liquid in a liquid
(C) Liquid in a gas
(D) Gas in a solid
2. Percentage of carbon in steel ranges from—
(A) 0.1 to 1.5
(B) 1.5 to 3.0
(C) 3.0 to 4.0
(D) 4.0 to 6.0
3. Which of the following is not present in German-silver ?
(A) Copper
(B) Nickel
(C) Silver
(D) Zinc
4. According to the latest estimates, the literacy rate (% of population) in India is—
(A) 63%
(B) 65%
(C) 67%
(D) 68%
5. Who won the U.S. Open (Lawn Tennis) in September 2007 ?
(A) Novak Djokovic
(B) Roger Federer
(C) Rafael Nadal
(D) None of the above
6. Who propounded the theory of 'Economic Drain of India' during British imperialism ?
(A) W. C. Bannerji
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Gopalkrishna Gokhale
(D) Gandhiji
7. First Indian Commander-in-Chief was—
(A) Gen. K.S. Thimayya
(B) Gen. K. M. Kariappa
(C) S. H. F. J. Manekshaw
(D) None of the above
8. A computer virus is—
(A) A chemical that attacks silicon.
(B) A micro-organism that destroys integrated circuits
(C) Data that the computer fails to handle
(D) A special kind of computer programme
9. India has a coastline of—
(A) 5500 km
(B) 6500 km
(C) 7500 km
(D) 8400 km
10. Jawahar Tunnel, the largest in India is located in the State of—
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Karnataka
(D) Himachal Pradesh
11. The most literate union territory in India is—
(A) Delhi
(B) Lakshadweep
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Puducherry
12. Which of the following is the smallest Parliamentary Constituency in terms of area ?
(A) Chandni Chowk (Delhi)
(B) Sadar (Delhi)
(C) Kolkata North West
(D) Mumbai South
13. Who is the author of the book 'Two Lives' ?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) James Patterson
(C) Ved Mehta
(D) Khushwant Singh
14. Which of the following sets of countries are referred to as 'The Golden Crescent' the largest opium industry in the world ?
(A) Myanmar, Laos and Thailand
(B) Afghanistan, Iran and Iraq
(C) Afghanistan, Pakistan and Iran
(D) Myanmar, Malaysia and Thailand
15. Which is the anti-coagulant substance in blood ?
(A) Fibrinogen
(B) Heparin
(C) Thrombin
(D) Globin
16. Which group of the following countries participated in the 'Malabar 07,' a six days joint naval exercise (September 4-9) involving 25 warships, in the Bay of Bengal ?
(A) India, U. S., Japan, Australia and South Korea
(B) India, U.S., Australia, Singapore and South Korea
(C) India, U.S., Japan, Singapore and Australia
(D) India, U.S., Japan, Singapore and South Korea
17. Who coined the term 'Hindu rate of growth' for Indian economy ?
(A) A. K. Sen
(B) Kirit S. Parikh
(C) Raj Krishna
(D) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
18. Sri ARVIND KEJRIWAL has been selected for the RAMON MAGSAYSAY AWARD for 2006 for his important contribution in the field—
(A) Formation of Pani (water) Panchayats in Rajasthan helping rural people in facing their acute water problem
(B) Effective implementation of the 'National Minimum Employment Guarantee Scheme' in rural areas
(C) 'Right to Information' movement and empowering citizens to fight corruption
(D) Extending education to children of slum dwellers in Delhi
19. The three day VIII World Hindi Conference was held in July, 2007 at—
(A) New Delhi
(B) London
(C) Now York
(D) Kathmandu
20. In which country is the volcano Mount Gamkonora, the highest peak of Halmahera island, which erupted in July, 2007 located ?
(A) Japan
(B) Indonesia
(C) Russia
(D) France
21. Name the Vice-captain of the Indian Cricket Team which toured South Africa in T-20 tournament recently—
(A) Virender Sehwag
(B) Anil Kumble
(C) Irfan Pathan
(D) Yuvraj Singh
22. The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) consists of—
(A) China, Russia, Kazhakistan, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan
(B) China, Russia, Mongolia, Kazhakistan, Uzbekistan and Tajikistan
(C) China, Russia, Mongolia, Iran, Kazhakistan and Uzbekistan
(D) China, Russia, Iran, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan
23. Which one of the following companies announced sometime back the launch of India's first personal computer with one terabyte hard drive capacity ?
(A) Infosys Technologies
(B) Wipro
(C) HCL Infosystems
24. Which of the following companies has become the highest ranked Indian company in the Fortune Global 500 list (at 135th position) in terms of sales ?
(A) Wipro
(B) Reliance
(C) Indian Oil Corporation
25. Which one of the following has not been included in the list of new seven wonders ?
(A) Roman Colosseum (Italy)
(B) Machu Picchu (Peru)
(C) Eiffel Tower in Paris (France)
(D) Christ the Redeemer (Brazil)
26. The Chairman of the Indian Censor Board of Film is—
(A) Shri Anupam Kher
(B) Shri Gulzar
(C) Smt. Sharmila Tagore
(D) Shri Sanjeev Kumar
27. The major harmful gas emitted by automobile vehicles which causes air pollution is—
(A) Carbon Monoxide
(B) Methane
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Ozone gas
28. Who among the following is not a classical economist ?
(A) David Ricardo
(B) John Stuart Mill
(C) Thomas Malthus
(D) John Maynard Keynes
29. According to the Employment Outlook 2007 reports of the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), the number of new jobs created in India every year from 2000 to 2005 is—
(A) 5 million
(B) 8 million
(C) 11 million
(D) 13 million
30. 'World Bank' is also known as—
(A) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(B) International Bank for Rehabilitation and Development
(C) International Bank for Refinance and Development
(D) International Bank for Research and Development
31. By which Bill does the Government propose collection of revenues for a year ?
(A) Economic Bill
(B) Finance Bill
(C) Supplementary Bill
(D) None of the above
32. Which is the oldest trade union organization in India ?
(A) Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC)
(B) Centre of Indian Trade Unions (CITU)
(C) All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC)
(D) Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh (BMS)
33. Prof. Amartya Sen was awarded Nobel Prize for his contribution to the field of—
(A) Food and Famines
(B) Welfare economics
(C) Indian economy
(D) Poverty
34. Which of the following items is a major item of Indian export ?
(A) Computer chips
(B) Potato chips
(C) Textile garments
(D) Car engines
35. Indian agriculture is typically characterised as—
(A) Land surplus, labour scarce economy
(B) Land surplus, labour surplus economy
(C) Land scarce, labour surplus economy
(D) Land scarce, labour scarce economy
36. The process of curing inflation by reducing money supply is called—
(A) Cost-push inflation
(B) Demand-pull inflation
(C) Disinflation
(D) Reflation
37. Which of the following pair of goods are close substitutes ?
(A) Milk and Sugar
(B) Sugar and Tea
(C) Tea and Coffee
(D) Coffee and Biscuits
38. Long-term funds in the capital market can be raised either by borrowing from certain institutions or through—
(A) Issue of note
(B) Taking loan from Government
(C) Issue of securities
(D) Taking loan from foreign institutions
39. As required by the WTO agreement, the Indian Patent Act was amended in 1999. The Act first came into force in the year—
(A) 1965
(B) 1970
(C) 1975
(D) 1980
40. The Indian Parliament is competent to enact law on a State subject if—
(A) Emergency under Article 352 is in operation
(B) All the State Assemblies of the country make such a request
(C) The President sends such a message to Parliament
(D) None of the above
41. The President of India enjoys emergency powers of—
(A) Four types
(B) Two types
(C) Five types
(D) Three types
42. Sarvodaya stands for—
(A) Total revolution
(B) Non-cooperation
(C) Upliftment of all
(D) Non-violence
43. Right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights during the rule of—
(A) Indira Gandhi Government
(B) Morarji Desai Government
(C) Narasimha Rao Government
(D) Vajpayee Government
44. The chapter or Fundamental Duties includes—
(A) Duty to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our freedom movement
(B) Duty to vote in General Election
(C) Duty to promote the sense of fraternity among the people
(D) Duty to stick to the political party on whose ticket one contested election
45. In which city of South Africa was Gandhi beaten up and thrown off the pavement by the white people ?
(A) Cape Town
(B) Durban
(C) Johannesburg
(D) Pretoria
46. A national political party is one which receives 4% of the total votes polled in—
(A) Two or more States
(B) The capital city
(C) Four or more States
(D) In all the States
47. The basic features of the Indian Constitution which are not amendable under Article 368 are—
(A) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system and judicial review
(B) Sovereignty, territorial integrity and parliamentary system of government
(C) Judicial review and the federal system
(D) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system, judicial review and parliamentary system of government
48. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy ?
(A) Part I
(B) Part III
(C) Part IV
(D) Part V
49. How many types of writs can be issued by the Supreme Court ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 6
50. Which of the following countries is not a member of the SAARC ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Bhutan
(C) Maldives
(D) Myanmar
51. The Supreme Court of India enjoys—
(A) Original jurisdictions
(B) Advisory jurisdictions
(C) Appellate and advisory jurisdictions
(D) Original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions
52. Who attended the Congress of Oppressed Nationalists at Brussels in 1927, on behalf of the National Congress ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Dr. Ansari
(D) Motilal Nehru
53. Who amongst the following made it possible for the Indians to enter the Indian Civil Service through an open competitive examination ?
(A) William Bentinck
(B) Dalhousie
(C) Mayo
(D) Ripon
54. In which year Lala Lajpat Rai was deported to Mandalay for organising the agrarian movement in Punjab ?
(A) 1905
(B) 1907
(C) 1909
(D) 1911
55. Which Governor General had entertained Ranjit Singh with great honour at Ropar ?
(A) Minto I
(B) William Bentinck
(C) Hastings
(D) Auckland
56. The Khajli Sultans of Delhi were—
(A) Mongols
(B) Afghans
(C) Turks
(D) A Jat tribe
57. The 'Arya Samaj' was founded by—
(A) Swami Dayananda Saraswati
(B) Swami Vivekananda
(C) Keshav Chandra Sen
(D) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
58. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad started an Urdu Weekly, The Al-Hilal in 1912, but, on its being banned by the Government, he founded the Al-Balagh in—
(A) 1913
(B) 1914
(C) 1915
(D) 1916
59. High Courts were established in Calcutta, Bombay and Madras in—
(A) 1935
(B) 1919
(C) 1892
(D) 1862
60. Who was the first Woman President of Indian National Congress ?
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Sucheta Kripalani
(C) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
(D) Annie Besant
61. Arabs were defeated in 738 A. D. by—
(A) Pratiharas
(B) Rashtrakutas
(C) Palas
(D) Chalukyas
62. Which of the following reform movements was the first to be started in the 19th century ?
(A) Prarthana Samaj
(B) Brahmo Samaj
(C) Arya Samaj
(D) Rama Krishna Mission
63. The rulers of Vijayanagar promoted—
(A) Hindi, Marathi and Sanskrit
(B) Malayalam, Tamil and Sanskrit
(C) Tamil, Telugu and Sanskrit
(D) Telugu, Urdu and Sanskrit
64. In India, the irrigation of agricultural land is carried out maximum by—
(A) Canals
(B) Wells
(C) Tubewells
(D) Tanks
65. The four largest planets of the Solar System in decreasing sizes are—
(A) Jupiter, Mercury, Saturn and Uranus
(B) Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn and Neptune
(C) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune
(D) Jupiter, Mercury, Saturn and Neptune
66. Which of the following produces maximum crude petroleum in India at present ?
(A) Assam
(B) Gujarat
(C) Off-shore Bombay High
(D) Coastal Tamil Nadu
67. India is one of the largest producers of manganese are in the world along with—
(A) China and Russia
(B) Brazil and Russia
(C) Australia and U.S.A.
(D) South Africa and U.S.A.
68. The 'Chipko Movement' is related to—
(A) Wildlife preservation
(B) Forest conservation
(C) Scientific agriculture
(D) Deforestation
69. Which of the following rivers makes an estuary ?
(A) Cauvery
(B) Krishna
(C) Narmada
(D) Ganga
70. Baltora glacier is located in—
(A) Karakoram ranges
(B) Pamir plateau
(C) Shivalik
(D) Alps
71. The largest producer of world's mica is—
(A) U.S.A.
(B) U.K.
(C) Canada
(D) India
72. The International Date Line is the—
(A) 180° Longitude
(B) 88½° East Longitude
(C) Equator
(D) 0° Longitude
73. Which of the following countries has highest percentage of land under cultivation ?
(A) China
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Canada
(D) India
74. Aryabhata was launched from—
(A) Sriharikota
(B) Mahe
(C) Chandipur
(D) Daman
75. How for does the Exclusive Economic Zone of a country extend from her coast ?
(A) 120 km
(B) 220 km
(C) 320 km
(D) 420 km
76. In which of the following groups, animals bear no teeth ?
(A) Peacock, Ostrich, Tortoise
(B) Owl, Loris, Crow
(C) Alligator, Turtle, Tortoise
(D) Turtle, Kiwi, Cow
77. Jaundice is a symptom of disease of—
(A) Kidney
(B) Liver
(C) Pancreas
(D) Thyroid
78. The vaccination against small pox involves the introduction of—
(A) Killed germs
(B) Weakened germs
(C) Live antibodies
(D) Activated germs
79. Deficiency of Vitamin B6 in man causes—
(A) Rickets
(B) Scurvy
(C) Beri-beri
(D) Anaemia
80. Which is the national flower of India ?
(A) Rose
(B) Lotus
(C) Lily
(D) Sunflower
81. First successful heart transplantation was done by—
(A) D. S. Paintal
(B) C. N. Barnard
(C) D. Shetty
(D) P. K. Sen
82. Yellow Fever is transmitted by—
(A) Aedes
(B) Anopheles
(C) House-fly
(D) Culex
83. Which one of the following is a major green house gas ?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Chloro fluorocarbon
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Freon
84. In atmosphere the lowermost layer is—
(A) Troposphere
(B) Exosphere
(C) Ionosphere
(D) Strato sphere
85. Washing of peeled vegetables removes the vitamin—
(A) A
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E
86. Pasteurisation is the process in which milk is heated to—
(A) 60° C for 10 minutes
(B) 63° C for 20 minutes
(C) 63° C for 30 minutes
(D) 72° C for 10 minutes
87. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer from the code given below :
List-I (Discoverer)
(a) Jenner
(b) Watson
(c) Landsteiner
(d) Flemming
List-II (Discoveries)
1. Blood grouping
2. Penicillin
3. Vaccination
4. Double helix
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 2 4 1
88. Which of the following is most elastic ?
(A) Rubber
(B) Wet clay
(C) Steel
(D) Plastic
89. The first ever robot spacecraft to probe planet Venus was named—
(A) Galileo
(B) Magellan
(C) Newton
(D) Challenger
90. A man with colour blindness will see red as—
(A) Yellow
(B) Blue
(C) Green
(D) Violet
91. Comets revolve around the—
(A) Earth
(B) Venus
(C) Sun
(D) Jupiter
92. When a person walking in bright Sunlight enters a dark room, he is not able to see clearly for a little while because—
(A) The eye muscles cannot immediately adjust the focal length of the eye lens
(B) The retina retains the bright images for sometime and becomes momentarily insensitive
(C) The iris is, unable to contract the pupil immediately
(D) The iris is unable to dilate the pupil immediately
93. The swing of a spinning cricket ball in air can be explained on the basis of—
(A) Sudden change in wind direction
(B) Buoyancy of air
(C) Turbulance caused by wind
(D) Bernoulli's theorem
94. The freezer in a refrigerator is fitted near the top—
(A) To keep it away from hot compressor which is nearer to the bottom
(B) Because of convenience
(C) It facilitates convection currents
(D) To minimise power consumption
95. The chemical name of 'Common salt' is—
(A) Sodium chloride
(B) Sodium nitrate
(C) Ammonium chloride
(D) Calcium chloride
96. Denatured spirit is ethanol mixed with—
(A) Petrol
(B) Kerosene
(C) Water
(D) Pyridine
97. The metal, which is a constituent of vitamin B12 is—
(A) Iron
(B) Magnesium
(C) Zinc
(D) Cobalt
98. The most abundant inert gas in the atmosphere is—
(A) Helium
(B) Neon
(C) Argon
(D) Krypton
99. Which metal is extracted from sea water ?
(A) Potassium
(B) Magnesium
(C) Aluminium
(D) Beryllium
100. Precentage of lead in lead pencils is—
(A) 0
(B) 31 – 66
(C) 40
(D) 80
Answers :
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (C)
4. (B) As per population census 2001 the literacy rate in India is 64•8%.
5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (C)
10. (A) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (C)
15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (C)
20. (B) 21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (C)
25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (C)
30. (A) 31. (B)
32. (C) AITUC was established is 1920, which was the first national level trade union organisation in India to organise workers in the country.
33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (C) 36. (C) 37. (C)
38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (A) 41. (D) 42. (C)
43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (B) 46. (C) 47. (D)
48. (C) 49. (C) 50. (D) 51. (D) 52. (A)
53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (B) 56. (C) 57. (A)
58. (C) 59. (D) 60. (D) 61. (A) 62. (B)
63. (C) 64. (A) 65. (C) 66. (A) 67. (A)
68. (B) 69. (D) 70. (A) 71. (D) 72. (A)
73. (D) In India cultivated land is nearly 55% while in USA it is only 44%.
74. First Indian satellite Aryabhata was launched on April 19, 1975 by the Soviet rocket, Cosmodrome (Soviet Union).
75. (C) 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (D)
80. (B) 81. (B) 82. (A) 83. (A) 84. (A)
85. (B) 86. (C) 87. (C) 88. (C) 89. (B)
90. (C) 91. (C) 92. (B) 93. (D) 94. (C)
95. (A) 96. (C) 97. (D) 98. (C) 99. (B)
100. (A)