RRB Allahabad ASM Exam 2009 Solved Paper

     

RRB ALLAHABAD ASM EXAM 2009 SOLVED PAPER

FOR RRB ALLAHABAD ASM EXAM 2009 SOLVED PAPER (Exam Held on: 14-06-2009)CLICK HERE

RRB CHANDIGARH ASM SOLVED PAPER

1. A trader told his servant Shambhu that he left for his home from the shop after every 2 : 40 hours. I left for home 55 minutes earlier and for the next time I will leave for home from my shop at 8 : 15 p.m. At which time did I inform my servant?

(A) 6 : 30

(B) 6 : 00

(C) 6 : 15

(D) 4 : 20

2. If the numbers divisible by 3 between 14 and 55 (both inclusive) and the numbers with 3 at unit’s place of them are removed then how may numbers will remain?

(A) 24

(B) 23

(C) 22

(D) 25

3. If x means -, ÷ means +, + means ÷, – means x then find the value of 13 – 12 ÷ 400 + 20 x 100

(A) 1/760

(B) 76

(C) 176

(D) 186

4. Nivedita stops to walk after covering a distance of 10 km to the west. She then turns to the right and walks 8 km. Again she walks 4 km to the right. How far is she from her office?

(A) 18 km

(B) 8 km

(C) 16 km

(D) 10 km

5. Karishma is taller than Kajal. Kajal is taller than Vimal. Ankita is taller than Kajan and Vimal. Which is the tallest?

(A) Karishma

(B) Kajal

(C) Ankita

(D) None of these

6. Radha and Saroj are ranked 10th and 16th respectively in a class of 37 students. What will be their ranks from the bottom in the class?

(A) 28th, 22nd

(B) 27th, 21st

(C) 28th, 20th

(D) 27th, 22nd

7. If ‘A’=26, and SUN = 27, then CAT?

(A) 24

(B) 57

(C) 58

(D) 27

8. A number when divided by three consecutive numbers 9, 11, 13 leaves the remainders 8, 9 and 8 respectively. If the order of divisors is reversed, the remainders will be—

(A) 8, 9, 8

(B) 9, 8, 8

(C) 10, 1, 6

(D) 10, 8, 9

9. Find the multiple of 11 in the following numbers?

(A) 978626

(B) 112144

(C) 447355

(D) 869756

10. Four prime numbers are arranged in ascending order. The product of first three is 385 and that of last three is 1001. The largest prime number is—

(A) 11

(B) 13

(C) 17

(D) 9

11. On dividing a number by 19, the difference between quotient and remainder is 9. The number is—

(A) 370

(B) 352

(C) 361

(D) 371

12. Mohan engaged a servant on the condition that he would pay him Rs. 200 and a uniform after 10 days. The servant served only for 5 days and got Rs. 20 and a uniform. Find the price of the uniform.

(A) Rs. 80

(B) Rs. 120

(C) Rs. 140

(D) Rs. 160

13. If you subtract – 1 from + 1, what will be the result?

(A) 2

(B) –2

(C) 0

(D) 1

14. Find the value of 50 × 8.

(A) 40

(B) 200

(C) 8

(D) 0

15. One litre of water is evaporated from a 6 litre solution containing 4% sugar. The percentage of sugar in the remaining solution is—

(A) 24/5 %

(B) 4 %

(C) 3 %

(D) 10/3 %

16. When water is changed into ice, its volume increases by 9%. If ice changes into water, the percentage decrease in volume is—

(A) 9%

(B) 10%

(C) 18%

(D) 900/109 %

17. A watch becomes fast by 5 minutes every day. By what per cent does it become fast?

(A) 50/144 %

(B) 5%

(C) 1/12 %

(D) 5/24 %

18. A bag contains 25 paise. 10 paise and 5 paise coins in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. If their total value is Rs. 30, the number of 5 paise coins is—

(A) 50

(B) 100

(C) 150

(D) 200

19. The temperature of a place increases uniformly from 210°C to 380°C from 9 am to 2 pm. What was the temperature at noon?

(A) 28.50°C

(B) 270°C

(C) 300°C

(D) 320°C

20. If 5 men or 9 women can do a piece of work in 19 days; 3 men and 6 women will do the same work in—

(A) 10 days

(B) 15 days

(C) 12 days

(D) 7 days

21. Total area of 64 small squares of a chess board is 400cm. There is 3 cm wide border around the chess board. What is the length of the side of the chess board?

(A) 17 cm

(B) 20 cm

(C) 26 cm

(D) 23 cm

22. If the radius of a circle is increased to 3 times. Then how many times will its circumference be increased?

(A) 2 times

(B) 1/3 times

(C) 9 times

(D) 3 times

23. A passenger train runs at the rate of 80 kmph. It starts from the station at some time. After 6 hours a goods trains leaves the station. The passenger train overtakes the goods train after 4 hours. The speed of goods train is—

(A) 32 km/h

(B) 50 km/h

(C) 45 km/h

(D) 64 km/h

24. A boat takes half time in moving a certain distance downstream than upstream. What is ratio between rate in still water and rate of current?

(A) 1 : 2

(B) 3 : 1

(C) 2 : 1

(D) 1 : 3

25. Two pipes can fill a cistern in 6 minutes and 7 minutes respectively. Both the pipes are opened alternately for 1 minute each. In what time will they fill the cistern?

(A) 5 minutes

(B) 17/3 times

(C) 45/7 minutes

(D) 5/4 minutes

26. Find the value of 0.0016—

(A) 0.4

(B) 0.04

(C) 0.8

(D) 4

27. By what number must 32 be multiplied to make it a perfect square?

(A) 4

(B) 3

(C) 5

(D) 2

Answers:

1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (B) 11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (B) 21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (C)

28. Mr. Jagdish is confident __________ his success.

(A) about

(B) of

(C) for

(D) regarding

29. He persisted __________doing things in a manner in which he had been doing them.

(A) on

(B) at

(C) about

(D) in

30. An exhibition__________ the new trends in computer education was held in Delhi.

(A) into

(B) for

(C) of

(D) on

Directions (31-35): In the following questions choose the word that can be substituted for the given words.

31. A disease which spreads by contact

(A) infection

(B) contagious

(C) contiguous

(D) uxoring

32. A science which studies insects

(A) Entomology

(B) Epistemology

(C) Entymology

(D) Biology

Placement Papers and Model Papers

33. That which cann’t be corrected

(A) Ineligible

(B) Ineluctable

(C) Insortable

(D) Incorrigible

34. One who believes easily

(A) sedulous

(B) credible

(C) assiduous

(D) credulous

35. A speech made for first time

(A) simultaneous

(B) drawn

(C) extempore

(D) maiden

Direction (36-39): Write word which is most opposite in meaning of the given word.

36. Obstinate

(A) Hoary

(B) Amenable

(C) Tenable

(D) Tender

37. Pernicious

(A) Salutary

(B) Recondite

(C) Innocuous

(D) Disastrous

38. Radical

(A) Singular

(B) Unusual

(C) Normal

(D) Conservative

Placement Papers and Model Papers

39. Mention

(A) Impart

(B) Observe

(C) Attend

(D) Conceal

Direction (40-42): Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the word.

40. Sedentary

(A) Material

(B) Sluggish

(C) Slash

(D) Mischief

41. Pertinacious

(A) Stubborn

(B) Tremulous

(C) Stupid

(D) Stingy

42. Gregarious

(A) Clumsy

(B) Pugnacious

(C) Turbulent

(D) Saciable

43. In Rajasthan, Mount Abu, famous for Jain temples is known for—

(A) Abu temple

(B) Ranakpura temple

(C) Dilwara temple

(D) Marble temple

44. The United Nations Organisation was formed on—

(A) October 20, 1945

(B) November 11, 1944

(C) October 24, 1945

(D) June 26, 1946

45. In Vedic literature the meaning of the word ‘Nishk’ was ornament. It was used in Artharva Veda as—

(A) Weapon

(B) Agricultural implements

(C) Script

(D) Coin

46. The executive in India is directly responsible to the—

(A) President

(B) Judiciary

(C) People

(D) Legislature

47. The major producer of copper is—

(A) Kerala

(B) Rajasthan

(C) Orissa

(D) Madhya Pradesh

48. Boys scout and Girls Guide movements were formed by—

(A) Charles Andies

(B) General Ramphel

(C) John Quat

(D) Weden Powel

49. In history the Chola rulers are famous for which type of administration?

(A) Central

(B) Urban

(C) State

(D) Village administration

50. Chanakya was known by the name—

(A) Samudragupta

(B) Vishnugupta

(C) Shrigupta

(D) None of these

51. The largest reserve of crude oil is in the country—

(A) Iran

(B) Iraq

(C) Saudi Arab

(D) Kuwait

52. The Jainism propounded the complete knowledge as—

(A) Jin

(B) Ratna

(C) Kaivalya

(D) Nirvana

53. The rotational motion of earth is maximum at the—

(A) North pole

(B) Tropic of Capricorn

(C) Equator

(D) Tropic of cancer

54. Silicon dioxide is used in—

(A) Cement production

(B) Cutting hard precious metals

(C) Glass manufacture

(D) None of these

55. In which of the following chemical energy is converted into electrical energy?

(A) Dynamo

(B) Thermopile

(C) Battery

(D) Atom bomb

56. If the atmosphere is removed from the earth—

(A) Day will lengthen

(B) Night will lengthen

(C) Both will remain same

(D) Both will be equal

57. In Kushana period the maximum development was observed in the field of—

(A) Religion

(B) Art

(C) Literature

(D) Architecture

58. In rice production Indic is ranked in the world—

(A) First

(B) Second

(C) Third

(D) Fourth

59. The brightest star in the sky is—

(A) Proxima Centauri

(B) Bernard

(C) Nebula

(D) Cirius

60. The number of permanent member nations in the UN Security Council is—

(A) 10

(B) 5

(C) 7

(D) 15

Answers

28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (C) 31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (D) 36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (D) 40. (B) 41. (A) 42. (D) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (D) 46. (D) 47. (B) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (B) 51. (C) 52. (C) 53. (A) 54. (C) 55. (C) 56. (C) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (A) 60. (B)

61. From which mine diamond is extracted?

(A) Panna

(B) Golkunda

(C) Jaipur

(D) None of these

62. Like Poland in Europe which state in India is large?

(A) Bihar

(B) Orissa

(C) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Maharashtra

63. The capital of Vijayanager empire. Hampi was situated on the bank of the river—

(A) Krishna

(B) Pennar

(C) Tungbhadra

(D) Godavari

64. The land shape formed at the drainage site of the Chanbal river is—

(A) Ramp

(B) Rift

(C) Delta

(D) None of these

65. Which of the following rivers passes through Himachal Pradesh?

(A) Sutlej

(B) Jhelum

(C) Ravi

(D) Chenab

66. Rigmies are related to—

(A) Asia

(B) Europe

(C) Africa

(D) America

67. Mettur dam is situated on the river—

(A) Krishna

(B) Cauvery

(C) Narmada

(D) Mahanadi

68. Most abundant element in maximum rocks is—

(A) Silicon

(B) Carbon

(C) Iron

(D) None of these

69. The old name of African country Ghana is—

(A) Abisinia

(B) Congo

(C) Gold Coast

(D) Tanganika

70. Who first deciphered the Ashokan inscriptions?

(A) James Princep

(B) James Williams

(C) John Munro

(D) None of these

71. The foundation of Indian Vedanta philosophy is—

(A) Ram Charit Manas

(B) Mahabharat

(C) Puranas

(D) Upanishad

72. In which Satyagraha movement of Mahatma Gandhi women participated most?

(A) Quit India

(B) Non-cooperation

(C) Salt

(D) Bardoli

73. The noble gas is—

(A) Helium

(B) Oxygen

(C) Nitrogen

(D) Hydrogen

74. In which part of the Constitution, the separation of executive and judiciary has been described?

(A) Preamble

(B) Fundamental rights

(C) Directive principles of state policy

(D) Seventh schedule

75. Who administers the Union Territory?

(A) Council of Ministers

(B) Governor

(C) Former Governor

(D) President

76. The spherical shape of rain drops is due to—

(A) Surface tension

(B) Viscosity

(C) Gravity

(D) Atmospheric pressure

77. Which is not an electric resistant?

(A) Lac

(B) Glass

(C) Charcoal

(D) Ebonite

78. The first black Nobel prize winner of literature in the world is—

(A) Tom Morrison

(B) Luther King

(C) John King

(D) None of these

79. Which of the following planets has the highest period of revolution around the sun?

(A) Mercury

(B) Earth

(C) Mars

(D) None of these

80. The headquarter of Asian Development Bank is in—

(A) Geneva

(B) Manila

(C) Bangkok

(D) Jakarta

81. Which of the following elements is found in free state?

(A) Iodine

(B) Magnesium

(C) Sulphur

(D) Phosphorus

82. In which disease blood does not clot?

(A) Thrombosis

(B) Haemophilia

(C) Pneumonia

(D) None of these

83. The Ajanta caves are situated in—

(A) Maharashtra

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(C) Tamil Nadu

(D) None of these

84. National Codet Corps was established in—

(A) 1948

(B) 1946

(C) 1947

(D) 1950

Placement Papers and Model Papers

85. The first Yoga University was established at—

(A) Bodh Gaya

(B) Mumbai

(C) Monghyr

(D) Kolkata

86. The biggest glacier of India is—

(A) Siachin

(B) Yamanotri

(C) Chunhari

(D) Gangotri

87. The number of schedules in Indian Constitution is—

(A) 11

(B) 12

(C) 13

(D) None of these

88. The Commonwealth games were recently held in—

(A) Britain

(B) Canada

(C) Australia

(D) India

89. Which of the following did not come to India?

(A) Megasthanese

(B) Columbus

(C) Vasco De Gama

(D) Fahein

90. Double fault is related to—

(A) Footbal

(B) Rugby

(C) Tennis

(D) None of these

91. Which of these is the largest railway zone?

(A) Central Railway

(B) Southern Railway

(C) Eastern Railway

(D) Northern Railway

Placement Papers and Model Papers

92. Who is the Indian Mass Universe 2006 in india?

(A) Neha Kapoor

(B) Neha Dhupia

(C) Priyanka Sud

(D) None of these

93. CTPN : DSQM : : MUSK?

(A) NUTL

(B) NTTJ

(C) NTTL

(D) LTRS

94. LO : PK : : IT : ?

(A) GT

(B) SH

(C) MN

(D) FU

95.Which of the following countries is the biggest producer of milk?

(A) Pakistan

(B) Australia

(C) America

(D) India

Answers

61. (A) 62. (C) 63. (C) 64. (A) 65. (D) 66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (A) 69. (C) 70. (A) 71. (D) 72. (A) 73. (A) 74. (D) 75. (D) 76. (A) 77. (C) 78. (A) 79. (D) 80. (B) 81. (C) 82. (B) 83. (A) 84. (A) 85. (C) 86. (A) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (B) 90. (C) 91. (D) 92. (A) 93. (B) 94. (C) 95 (D)

RRB ASM EXAM 2010 SOLVED PAPER

1. Destination India&conference on commerce and trade was
organised at:

(a) Zurich (b) Bangalore (c) Singapore (d) Tokyo

2. According to a survey by Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry
which of the following countries tops the list on labour productivity:

(a) India (b) Luxembourg (c) Belgium (d) France

3. India s first Asset Reconstruction Company s road map was prepared by

( a) SBI (b) IDBI (c) ICICI (d) HDFC

4. Which of the following country is the new member of International Coffee
Organisation?

(a) India (b) Sri Lanka (c) Kenya (d) Vietnam

5. Who among the following headed the Indo-UK Round Table conference held at
London to strengthen bilateral ties between the two countries?

(a) Swaraj Paul (b) Jaswant Singh(c) K.C. Pant (d) Yashwant Sinha

6. Diva a specially ! ! designed women s international credit
card has been launched by:

(a) Federal Bank (b) Standard Chartered Bank(c) Dresdner Bank (d) ABN-Amro Bank

7. Richard Grasso is the head of:

(a) NASDAQ(b) London Stock Exchange(c) New York Stock Exchange(d) Dubai Stock
Exchange

8. Indiva is the multipurpose vehicle, launched by____at the
international motorshow in Geneva.

(a) TELCO (b) BAJAJ and SIL (c) LML (d) HONDA


9. Match the following Company/organisation Chief Executive Officer

I. General Electricals A. Harvey Pitt

II. Star Alliance B. S. Devarajah

III.Securities and C. Jeff Immelt Exchange Commission D. Cheong Choong Kong

IV.Manufacturer s Association of Information Technology

Code:I II III IV

(a) A B C D(b) B A C D(c) C D B A(d) D C A B

10. Nokia Corporation, the leading mobile phone makers is a___based company.

(a) USA (b) Japan (c) Philippines (d) Finland! !

11. ICENET is the network connecting the offices of the:

(a) Central Board of Excise and Customs(b) State Bank of India(c) Human Resource
Ministry(d) External Affairs Ministry

12. Geographical Information System Software known as Gram Chitra
was unveiled by:

(a) C-DAC (b) Media Labs Asia(c) Satyam Infoway (d) Honda

13. The Kofi Annan Institute for IT Excellence, has been set by India at____:

(a) Kenya (b) Guatemala (c) Ghana (d) Durban

14. India s first Defence Intelligence Agency became operational in___2002.

(a) June (b) March (c) April (d) May

15. The first hydel project in Andaman and Nicobar islands has been
commissioned by:

(a) NHPC (b) Dabhol Power Corporation(c) BHEL (d) NTPC

16. First Indian Laboratory (and India to be the 26th country) to be
accredited by the College of American Pathology is:

(a) Cipla lab (b) Speciality Ranbaxy Ltd(c) Zydu! ! s Cadila Ltd (d) Sun Pharma
lab

17. Smart Kid Insurance policy has been launched for students by:

(a) Tata-AIG (b) SBI-Cardif(c) ICICI Prudential (d) LICI

18. Who among the following has been appointed as the chairman of Central
Electricity Authority:

(a) J.L. Bajaj (b) H.L. Bajaj(c) Y.N. Prasad (d) J.L. Raina

19. Chilka Development Authority, the first organisation in the Asian
subcontinent to receive Ramsar Wetland Conservation Award for the year 2002 is
in:

(a) Kerala (b) Orissa (c) Assam (d) Uttaranchal

20. The chief architect of Ganga Action Plan, an environmentalist and
recipient of various awards died recently. Name him.

(a) Md. Bazzi (b) Arshad-uz-Zaman(c) Dr T.N. Khoshro (d) George Soros

21. CBE-2002 a NATO exercise by Canada, Greece, Hungary, Turkey, UK and US
was launched in____, for NATO peace programme.

(a) Georgia (b) Angola (c) Durban (d) Ireland

22. 2002 MN is the name of:

(a) Supercomputer (b) Asteroid(c) Spacecraft (d) Star

23. Orange Prize is given in the field of:

(a) literature (b) sports (c) medicine (d) acting

24. In the global tea production, India accounts for____per cent of tea
production.

(a) 27 (b) 26.7 (c) 24.3 (d) 27.7

25. USA has signed a legislation to protect the country from biological
terrorist attack worth:

(a) $ 4.6 billion (b) $ 6 billion(c) $ 7 billion (d) $ 8 billion

26. World day to combat desertification and drought is observed on:

(a) June 17 (b) June 20 (c) April 17 (d) July 20

27. Name the robot spacecraft, launched by NASA to observe frozen core of
comets.

(a) Contour (b) Odyssey (c) Dumar (d) Columbia

28. Blue Ocean, the World s most powerful Supercomputer, is specifically
designed for:

(a) NASA(b) US Naval Oceanographic office(c) US Federal Reserve Bank(d) US
Intelligence Agency

29. To review the disclosure and investor protection guidelines, a committee
was constituted by SEBI under:

(a) T.N. Chaturvedi (b) A.K. Basu(c) N.J. Reddy (d) Y.H. Malegam

30. First State to introduce a life insurance scheme covering 1.2 crore
students and three lakh teachers is:

(a) Karnataka (b) Madhya Pradesh(c) Maharashtra (d) Rajasthan

31. Hrithik Roshan has turned down an offer to act in the Warner Brother s
film,____due to unavailability of dates.

(a) Escape from Taliban(b) Hamlet(c) Three Wall(d) Hey Ram! Genocide in the land
of Gandhi

32. The Shade of Swords” is a book written by:

(a) M.J. Akbar (b) Manil Suri(c) Urmila Lanba! ! (d) Vasant Potdar

33. India s first Jan Shatabdi Express between Mumbai-Goa was commenced on:

(a) April 16, 2002 (b) April 20, 2002(c) June 20, 2002 (d) June 16, 2002

34. Who among the following has been appointed as the chairman of IIM
Ahmedabad:

(a) Y.C. Deveshwar (b) N.R. Narayana Murthy(c) Sanjiv Gupta (d) M. Damodaran

35. Automobile Industry s man of the year 2002 is:

(a) Carlos Ghoshn (Japan) (b) Dr Mark Faber(c) Dr Doom (d) Lious Haochuang

36. Who among the following has been named as the White Lightning in the
cricket?

(a) Adam Parore (New Zealand)(b) Allan Donald (South Africa)(c) Ben Hollioake (Australia)(d)
Dion Nash (New Zealand)

37. Which Indian cricketer has bagged a deal with ESPN?

(a) Md Kaif (b) Yuvraj(c) Sachin Tendulkar (d) Anil Kumble

38. Who among the following is the official sponsors of the Indian team at
the Asian Games to be held ! ! in Busan, South Korea?

(a) Phillips (b) Sahara (c) LG (d) Samsung

39. 24 Brand Mantras is a book written by:

(a) Bimal Chowdhary (b) Shiv Khera(c) Arindam R. Chowdhary (d) Jagdeep Kapoor

40. Ist developing country in the world to make use of fire optics technology
is:

(a) China (b) Japan (c) India (d) Vietnam

41. Defence Research and Development Organisation was formed in the year:

(a) 1980 (b) 1958 (c) 1956 (d) 1975

42. Who among the following has been appointed as the President of the
flagship channel Zee TV:

(a) Apurva Purohit (b) Pritish Nandi(c) Jitendra K. Singh (d) Raghu Rai

43. India s first commercially manufactured sports car is:

(a) Reeva (b) Indigo (c) Sedan (d) Fibro

44. How many new railway zones have been notified by the Railway Ministry in
July 2002:

(a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 14 (d) 5

45. Name the quarterly magazine, launched by The Time Grou! ! p.

(a) Bindia (b) b-drive(c) businessdrive.com (d) none of these

46. According to Economic Intelligence Unit, maximum amount of FDI is
received by:

(a) India (b) China (c) South Korea (d) Brazil

47. European Union Summit was held in Slovenia at:

(a) Bled (b) Geory (c) Repti (d) Ottowom

48. Transport Research and Injury Prevention Programme was awarded the
Stockholm award and is unveiled by:

(a) IIT, Kanpur (b) IIT, Delhi(c) IIT, Kharagpur (d) IIT, Chennai

49. Alvaro Silva Calderon was appointed as the Secretary General of:

(a) OPEC (b) FIEO (c) NACO (d) AIMPLB

50. ASEAN was set up in the year:

(a) 1985 (b) 1975 (c) 1967 (d) 1958

ANSWERS

1. (a)2. (b)3. (c)4. (d)5. (c)6. (b)7. (c)8. (a)9. (c)10. (d)11. (a)12. (b)13.
(c)14. (c)15. (a)16. (b)17. (a)18. (b)19. (b)20. (c)21. (a)22. (b)23. (a)24.
(d)25. (a)26. (a)27. (a)28. (b)29. (d)30. (a)31. (b)32. (a)33. (a)34. (b)35.
(a)36. (b)37. (c)38. (d)39. (d)40. (c)41. (c)42. (a)43. (a)44. (d)45. (b)46.
(c)47. (a)48. (b)49. (a)50. (c)

RRB ASM MODEL PAPER

1. The bent-up length of rail used in front of nose of crossing which help in channelising the train wheels in their proper routes are known as:
(a) lead rail
(b) point rail
(c) wing rail
(d) splice rail
Ans:- C

2. The point up to which the new railway track laid, at any time is called:
(a) terminal
(b) Station
(c) rail-head
(d) Base
Ans:- C

3. The good quality wood for sleeper is:
(a) Deodar
(b) Sheesham
(c) Teak
(d) Sal
Ans:- C

4. Generally the life of wooden sleepers is taken as:
(a) 2 to 3 years
(b) 12 to 15 years
(c) 35 to 50 years
(d) 5 to 8 years
Ans:- B

5. The gradual or tapered widening of the flange way which is formed by bending and splaying the end of check rail or wing rail away from the gauge line is known as:
(a) Flare
(b) Toe
(c) Heel
(d) Loop
Ans:- A

6. The minimum height of embankment above the highest flood mark in the area should be:
(a) zero cm
(b) 30 cm
(c) 100 cm
(d) 60 cm
Ans:- D

7. The recommended depth of ballast cushion on a curved portion of a track is provided under the …….. edge of the sleeper.
(a) upper
(b) middle
(c) inner
(d) outer
Ans:- C

8. An outward slope provided on the tread of the wheel is:
(a) 1 in 5
(b) 1 in 10
(c) 1 in 20
(d) 1 in 25
Ans:- C

9. The granular material spread on the formation of a railway track for the sleepers to rest upon is known as:
(a) anchors
(b) ballast
(c) subgrade
(d) chairs
Ans:- B

10. Bone shaped section of fish plate is commonly used for connecting:
(a) double headed rails
(b) flat footed rails
(c) bull headed rails
(d) all above are correct
Ans:- B

11. The members laid transversely under the rails for supporting and fixing them at the gauge distance apart are known as:
(a) fastenings
(b) sleepers
(c) ballast
(d) fish plate
Ans:- B

12. The bottom width of foot in a flat footed rail is:
(a) 78.6 mm
(b) 136.5 mm
(c) 66.7 mm
(d) 70 mm
Ans:- B

13. The rectangular pits in which wheels of the locomotives are taken out for repairs, are known as:
(a) Track pits
(b) Inspection pits
(c) Drop pits
(d) Siding pits
Ans:- C

14. The wheels are coned to prevent from rubbing the inside face of the rail head and to prevent lateral movement of the axle with its wheels. The slope of cone is:
(a) 1 in 5
(b) 1 in 20
(c) 1 in 10
(d) 1 in 15
Ans:- B

15. Gauge is the distance measured in place of the between which faces of two parallel rails in a track.
(a) inner faces
(b) centre line of one rail to inner face of other rail
(c) centre lines
(d) outer faces
Ans:- A

16. Most significant which imposes limitations in raising the high speeds is:
(a) adhesion of wheels
(b) resistance due to oscillations
(c) flange resistance
(d) air or wind resistance
Ans:- A

17. The rails are welded by:
(a) Thermit welding
(b) Gas welding
(c) Arc welding
(d) MIG welding
Ans:- A

18. Steel sleepers are ….. shaped in section.
(a) oval
(b) rectangular
(c) trough
(d) semi-spherical
Ans:- C

19. In India generally the sleeper density of sleepers per rail length used is:
(a) 18
(b) 30
(c) 12
(d) 24
Ans:- A

20. The extra rails provided over bridge to prevent damage and danger in case of derailment on the bridge are known as:
(a) Stock rails
(b) Guard rails
(c) Check rails
(d) Wing rails
Ans:- B

21. The phenomenon of misalignment of rails due to temperature change is known as:
(a) cropping
(b) creeping
(c) bulging
(d) buckling
Ans:- D

22. Creep is the ….. movement of rails.
(a) longitudinal
(b) diagonal
(c) horizontal
(d) vertical
Ans:- A

23. Ballast best suited to steel sleepers is:
(a) sand
(b) Gravel
(c) Quartzite
(d) All the above
Ans:- C

24. The section of a rail is decided on the basis of:
(a) Type of rails
(b) Spacing of the sleepers
(c) Speed of trains
(d) All of the above
Ans:- D

25. While preparing sub-grade of a railway line, the grubbing operation means:
(a) checking of subgrade
(b) filling or cutting of earth work in railway subgrade
(c) compaction and consolidation of earth work
(d) removal and disposal of stumps and roots trees
Ans:- D

26. The sinuous path taken by an engine as against the alignment of the track is known as:
(a) Rolling motion
(b) Nosing motion
(c) Lurching motion
(d) Vibration
Ans:- B

27. The mechanical device which transfer chemical energy of fuel into mechanical energy in the form of motion is called:
(a) rolling stock
(b) railway
(c) wagon
(d) locomotive
Ans:- D

28. Integrated coach factory is located in:
(a) Chennai
(b) Bangalore
(c) Jamshedpur
(d) Mumbai
Ans:- A

29. C.T.C. stands for:
(a) Critical Track Control
(b) Critical Traffic Channeliser
(c) Centralised Traffic Control
(d) None of these
Ans:- C

30. To reduce the intensity of pressure particularly on soft variety of sleepers, a rectangular plate is introduced between the rails and the sleepers. This is known as:
(a) Fish plate
(b) Chair
(c) Saddle plate
(d) Bearing plate
Ans:- D

31. Generally the rail sections used in India is:
(a) flat footed
(b) double headed
(c) bull headed
(d) all above
Ans:- A

32. The arrangement consisting of three tracks used for changing the direction of engine is called:
(a) three ladder track
(b) turn table
(c) three throw switch
(d) triangle
Ans:- B

33. The length of a wooden sleeper for broad gauge track is:
(a) 1.83 m
(b) 1.52 m
(c) 2.74 m
(d) 1.676 m
Ans:- C

34. The technical officer of the rank of sectional officer in the maintenance organisation of Indian Railways is called:
(a) Permanent Way Inspector
(b) Gangmate
(c) Assistant Permanent Way Inspector
(d) None of these are correct
Ans:- C

35. The depth of ballast section under sleeper for broad gauge track as per Indian standard should be:
(a) 250 to 300 mm
(b) 200 to 250 mm
(c) 150 to 200 mm
(d) 150 mm
Ans:- B

36. The completed and finished railway line on which wheeled vehicles are drawn by locomotive is known as:
(a) steel way
(b) rails
(c) railway
(d) permanent way
Ans:- D

37. The horse power to weight ratio steam engine is generally of the order of:
(a) 10-15 kg/HP
(b) 60-80 kg/HP
(c) 20-30 kg/HP
(d) 100-150 kg/HP
Ans:- B

38. The cause of formation of kinks in a rail is:
(a) Loose packing at joints
(b) Defect in gauge and alignment
(c) Defect in cross level joints
(d) Any of the above
Ans:- D

39. The horizontal distance from the material depot to the rail head is called:
(a) lift
(b) site distance
(c) rail-head
(d) lead
Ans:- D

40. On curves, to counteract the effect of centrifugal force, the level of outer rail is raised above the inner rail by a certain amount. This is called:
(a) Track gradient
(b) Track slope
(c) Super elevation
(d) Horizontal gradient
Ans:- C

41. The measure of stiffness of track required to produce a unit depression in the track is known as:
(a) Tractive force
(b) Load capacity
(c) Gauge
(d) Track modulus
Ans:- D
42. The head of a gang in maintenance organisation of railway is called:
(a) P.W.I
(b) Keyman
(c) Ganger
(d) A.P.W.I
Ans:- C

43. The fixed rail in a railway track against which the tongue rail fits s known as:
(a) wing rail
(b) stock rail
(c) lead rail
(d) point rail
Ans:- B

44. The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge track in India is:
(a) 19.2 m
(b) 25.6 m
(c) 11.8 m
(d) 12.8 m
Ans:- D

45. The thickness of fish plate generally used in Indian Railway is:
(a) 16 mm
(b) 10 mm
(c) 25 mm
(d) 20 mm
Ans:- D

46. Thermal efficiency of a diesel engine may be expected to be in the range of:
(a) 50-65%
(b) 25-35%
(c) 15-20%
(d) 10-15%
Ans:- B

47. Wear on top or head of rail occurs due to:
(a) Abrasion of rolling wheels
(b) Heavy axle load
(c) Constant brake application
(d) Any or all of the above
Ans:- D

48. Any movement of the locomotive in different planes, e.g., vertical, longitudinal, transversal etc., is known as:
(a) Oscillating motion
(b) Lurching motion
(c) Shutting motion
(d) Vibration
Ans:- A

49. In rainy season the dust in the ballast becomes mud and comes up by suction from below the rail joint. Such joint is called:
(a) Wet joint
(b) Water joint
(c) Pumping joint
(d) Blowing joint
Ans:- C

50. Accidents can be avoided by adopting:
(a) interlocking
(b) C.T.C. system
(c) pilot guard system
(d) A.T.C. system
Ans:- A

51. When was the first underground railway (Metro Railway) started?
(a) 1982
(b) 1989
(c) 1984
(d) 1992
Ans: – C

52. Shatabdi Express train was started in
(a) 1984
(b) 1988
(c) 1990
(d) 1985
Ans: – B

53. At which of the following places Diesel Component Works is established?
(a) Jamshedpur
(b) Patiala
(c) Perambur
(d) Varanasi
Ans: – B

54. Which Zone is the largest in Indian Railways?
(a) Central Railway
(b) Northern Railway
(c) Eastern Railway
(d) Western Railway
Ans: – C

55. The railway station situated in the extreme south is
(a) Chennai
(b) Cochin
(c) Kanyakumari
(d) Trivandrum
Ans: – C

56. A platform surrounded by rail lines from all the four sides, is called
(a) Dock platform
(b) Passenger platform
(c) Island platform
(d) Goods platform
Ans: – C

57. When was the nationalization of Indian Railways done?
(a) 1952
(b) 1950
(c) 1951
(d) 1954
Ans: – B

58. In which year Research, Design and Standard organization was established?
(a) 1954
(b) 1957
(c) 1959
(d) 1967
Ans: – B

59. Railway Staff College is situated at
(a) Bangalore
(b) Secundrabad
(c) Chennai
(d) Vadodara
Ans: – D

60. Where is the Research, Design and Standard Organisation situated?
(a) Lucknow
(b) Bangalore
(c) Pune
(d) New Delhi
Ans:- A

61. Which is the following pairs of regional Railways and their headquarters not true?
(a) South-Central Railway – Secunderabad
(b) Central railway – Bhopal
(c) South Railway – Chennai
(d) North Railway – New Delhi
Ans:- B

62. Between which of the destinations the first Indian train was started?
(a) from Calcutta to Delhi
(b) From Mumbai to Thane
(c) From Mumbai to Surat
(d) From Mumbai to Madras
Ans:- B

63. When was the first train in Indian started?
(a) 1851
(b) 1852
(c) 1853
(d) 1854
Ans:- C
64. In which Governor-General’s reign railway lines in India was established?
(a) Lord William Bentick
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Kenning
(d) Lord Dalhousie
Ans:- D

65. A station where the rail lines end, is called
(a) junction station
(b) way-side-station
(c) block station
(d) terminal station
Ans:- D

66. How much distance was traveled by first train of India?
(a) 33 km
(b) 36 km
(c) 34 km
(d) 46 km
Ans:- C

67. What is the position of the Indian Railway in the world according to the length of rail lines?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Ans:- D

68. What is the length of North-Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR)?
(a) 4300 Km
(b) 3700 Km
(c) 4290 km
(d) 5298 km
Ans:- B

69. The headquarters of North-Eastern railway is situated at
(a) Mumbai (V.T)
(b) Guwahati
(c) Gorakhpur
(d) New Delhi
Ans:- C

70. When was the North-Eastern frontier Railway (NEFR) established?
(a) 15th Jan, 1958
(b) 15th Jan, 1955
(c) 2nd Jan, 1956
(d) 14th April, 1952
Ans:- A

71. The headquarters of North -Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR) is
(a) Calcutta
(b) Maligaon (Guwahati)
(c) Chennai
(d) Gorakhpur
Ans:- B

72. In which of the following cities, the first sub-way train was started?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Delhi
(c) Calcutta
(d) Chennai
Ans:- C

73. General Manger is responsible for
(a) Railway Board
(b) Railway Ministry
(c) Both railway Board and Railway Ministry
(d) None of these
Ans:- A

74. The headquarters of South-Central Railways is situated at
(a) Mumbai (V.T)
(b) Chennai
(c) Secundrabad
(d) Mumbai (Central)
Ans:- C

75. The headquarters of Northern Railway is at
(a) New Delhi
(b) Guwahati
(c) Gorakhpur
(d) Mumbai (V.T)
Ans:- A

76. The headquarters of South Railways is situated at
(a) Calcutta
(b) Chennai
(c) Delhi
(d) Mumbai
Ans:- B

77. In which institution the training of electric work is being given?
(a) Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering
(b) Indian Railways Institute of Electrical Engineering
(c) Railway Staff College
(d) Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering
Ans:- B

78. Who invented the railway engine?
(a) Charles Babbage
(b) Isaac Newton
(c) James Watt
(d) George Stephenson
Ans:- D

79. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering Institution situated?
(a) Nasik
(b) Baroda
(c) Jamalpur
(d) Pune
Ans:- C

80. Metro Railway is functioning in which of the following Indian States?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
(c) West Bengal
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans:- C

81. The zone with the minimum length is
(a) North-Eastern Railway
(b) North-Eastern Frontier Railway
(c) South-East Railway
(d) South-Central Railway
Ans:- B

82. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering Institute situated?
(a) Pune
(b) Chennai
(c) Nasik
(d) Sikandrabad
Ans:- A

83. How many training institutions of Railways are in India?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six
Ans:- C

84. What is the position of the Indian Railway under the zonal system?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Forth
Ans:- B

85. Which of the gauges is used in the hilly areas?
(a) Broad gauge
(b) Meter gauge
(c) Narrow gauge
(d) Special gauge
Ans:- C

86. Where is the extreme north of India a railway station?
(a) Jammutavi
(b) Amritsar
(c) Pathancoat
(d) Guwahat
Ans:- A

87. How many institutions do give suggestions for railways technology?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Ans:- B

88. Diesel Locomotive Works is situated at
(a) Perambur
(b) Varanasi
(c) Kapurthala
(d) Bangalore
Ans:- B

89. The manufacturing of steam engine in Chittranjan Locomotive Works was stopped in
(a) 1974
(b) 1961
(c) 1971
(d) 1973
Ans:- C

90. The passenger bogies of the Indian Railways are manufactured at which of the following places?
(a) Kapurthala
(b) Chittranjan
(c) Perambur
(d) Bangalore
Ans:- C

91. Indian Railways which is the largest of the Public Sector Enterprises, is divided into how many regions?
(a) 7
(b) 9
(c) 8
(d) 10
Ans:- B

92. Besides Mahrashtra, Karnataka and Goa, which of the following is the fourth State for Konakan Railway Project?
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Gujarat
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans:- A

93. Palace On Wheels train was inaugurated in
(a) 1988
(b) 1972
(c) 1982
(d) 1965
Ans:- C

94. When was the Central Railway established?
(a) 5th Nov 1951
(b) 14th Nov 1951
(c) 14th April 1951
(d) 16th August, 1951
Ans:- A

95. Rajasthan is under which of the following railway zones?
(a) Northern region
(b) Western region
(c) North-Western region
(d) Central Region
Ans:- B

96. The largest national enterprise of India is
(a) Indian Railway
(b) Indian Shipyard
(c) Airways
(d) None of these
Ans:- A

97. The first locomotive which was manufactured in Chittranjan on
(a) November 1950
(b) October 1950
(c) September 1949
(d) October 1954
Ans:- A

98. Where is the wheel and axle plant of Indian Railways situated?
(a) Chittranjan
(b) Kapurthala
(c) Bangalore
(d) Perambur
Ans:- C

99. When was the Jammu City appeared on the map of Indian Railway?
(a) 1965
(b) 1963
(c) 1967
(d) 1965
Ans:- D

100. Where is the headquarters of Central Railway situated?
(a) Mumbai (V.T)
(b) Mumbai (Church Gate)
(c) Gwalior
(d) Gorakhpur
Ans:- A

RRB Allahabad ASM Exam Solved paper

1. Bees and houseflies are related to the group
(1) Insect
(2) Worm
(3) Animal
(4) None of these
Ans. (1)

2. Choose the odd one in the following.
(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 9
Ans. (4)

3. The first grand slam tennis tournament of the year is
(1) Wimbledon Open
(2) US Open
(3) French Open
(4) Australian Open
Ans. (4)

4. At Kelvin scale, the normal temperature of human body is
(1) 290
(2) 310
(3) 300
(4) 30
Ans. (2)

5. The monopolistic rule of East India Company was brought under the direct control of British Empire in
(1) 1793
(2) 1784
(3) 1773
(4) 1781
Ans. (4)

6. Which type of economy exists in India?
(1) Socialist
(2) Mixed
(3) Capitalist
(4) Rural
Ans. (2)

7. National Stock Exchange is located in
(1) Mumbai
(2) Kolkata
(3) Chennai
(4) New Delhi
Ans. (1)

8. Which of the following pollutes the air of big cities?
(1) Copper
(2) Lead
(3) Chromium
(4) Copper Oxide
Ans. (2)

9. What is Zero Hour?
(1) When the Parliament discusses the proposals of the Opposition
(2) Time of recess
(3) When the Parliament discusses important issues
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)

10. The session of Parliament is called ? (minimum) in a year.
(1) Twice
(2) Four times
(3) Six times
(4) Thrice
Ans. (1)

11. Golda Meir was the woman Prime Minister of
(1) England
(2) France
(3) Sri Lanka
(4) Israel
Ans. (4)

12. How many members are nominated by the President for the Council of States?
(1) 10
(2) 11
(3) 15
(4) 12
Ans. (4)

13. Magellan Strait is located between/at
(1) Pacific and South Atlantic Oceans
(2) The south end of Africa
(3) China and Japan
(4) The south end of South America.
Ans. (1)

14. Who was the founder of the Satya Shodhak Samaj?
(1) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(2) Sri Narayan Guru
(3) Jyotirao Phule
(4) Ishwarchand Vidyasagar
Ans. (3)

15. Which of the following does not touch the boundary of Myanmar?
(1) Mizoram
(2) Manipur
(3) Nagaland
(4) Tripura
Ans. (4)

16. Which of the following rivers does not fall into Bay of Bengal?
(1) Mahanadi
(2) Tapti
(3) Godavari
(4) Krishna
Ans. (2)

17. Pitty and organic soils are found in
(1) Kerala
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Andhra Pradesh
(4) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (4)

18. The highest peak of south India is
(1) Anaimudi
(2) Doda Beta
(3) Arnarkantak
(4) Mahendra Gin
Ans. (2)

19. If the length of a simple pendulum is doubled, its time period will
(1) increase
(2) decrease
(3) remain constant
(4) None of these
Ans. (1)

20. Which of the following reacts sharply with oxygen?
(1) AI
(2) Cu
(3) Fe
(4) Zn
Ans. (3)

21. For the implantation of ovum in the ovaries, the hormone produced is
(1) oxytocin
(2) prolactin
(3) progesterone
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)

22. In human body the ratio of red blood corpuscles and white blood corpuscles is
(1) 300: 1
(2) 400: 1
(3) 500: 1
(4) 600: 1
Ans. (4)

23. One of the digestive juices that lack enzymes but aids digestion is
(1) bile
(2) succus entèricus
(3) chyme
(4) chyle
Ans. (1)

24. Which of the following planets has been named after the Roman goddess of love?
(1) Mars
(2) Jupiter
(3) Saturn
(4) Venus
Ans. (4)

25. The Swine Flu virus is denoted by
(1) H
(2) N
(3) H1N1
(4) H
Ans. (3)

26. Parliamentary elections in India were not held in
(1) 1996
(2) 1997
(3) 1998
(4) 1999
Ans. (2)

27. Ghumar is a folk dance of
(1) Jammu and Kashmir
(2) Punjab
(3) Himachal Pradesh
(4) Rajasthan
Ans. (4)

28. National Metallurgical laboratory is located in
(1) Jamshedpur
(2)Bhilai
(3) Durgapur
(4) Rourkela
Ans. (1)

29. The language of the Union Territory of Lakshadwip is
(1) Tamil
(2) Hindi
(3) Malayalam
(4) Telugu
Ans. (3)

30. Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award 2004 was given to
(1) P.T. Usha
(2) Sania Mirza
(3) Rajya Vardhan Rathore
(4) Anju Bobby George
Ans. (3)

31. Echo is heard when the reflecting surface is
(1) of less volume
(2) of large area
(3) of less area
(4) of large volume
Ans. (2)

32. The substance coated on plastic tape recorder tapes is
(1) zinc oxide
(2) magnesium oxide
(3) iron sulphate
(4) iron oxide
Ans. (4)

33. Dronacharya Award is presented to a
(1) Sports coach
(2) Chess champion
(3) Hockey player
(4) Cricket player
Ans. (1)

34. ‘A Bond with the Mountains’ is a collection of short stories by
(1) Khushwant Singh
(2) Ruskin Bond
(3) Graham Greene
(4) R.K. Narayan
Ans. (2)

35. Which country patented its famous automatic rifle Kalashnikov?
(1) Russia
(2) China
(3) Afghanistan
(4) Spain
Ans. (1)

36. How many sovereign countries are members of the United Nations?
(1) 180
(2) 193
(3) 185
(4) 183
Ans. (2)

37. Who received one of Pakistan’s highest civilian award Nishan-e Imtiaz for his extraordinary contribution in the field of art?
(1) Amitabh Bachchan
(2) Nasiruddin Shah
(3) M.F. Hussain
(4) Dilip Kumar
Ans. (4)

38. The book ‘The Insider” is written by
(1) P.V. Narasimha Rao
(2) Shobha De
(3) Vikram Chandra
(4) Khushwant Singh
Ans. (1)

39. Which of the following is not related to vitamin ‘B’ complex group?
(1) Thiamin
(2) Retinol
(3) Folic acid
(4) Riboflavin
Ans. (2)

40. Bhatnagar Award is given for significant contribution in the field of
(1) Economics
(2) Agriculture
(3) Literature
(4) Science and Technology
Ans. (4)

41. Prambikulam Dam has been an issue of dispute between
(1) Karnataka and Kerala
(2) Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
(3) Tamil Nadu and Kerala
(4) Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
Ans. (3)

42. India’s maximum tax revenue comes from
(1) Corporation tax
(2) Income tax
(3) Excise tax
(4) Customs duty
Ans. (3)

43. Thomas Cup is associated with
(1) Badminton
(2) Billiards
(3) Lawn Tennis
(4) Table Tennis
Ans. (1)

44. Who wrote the book, Never Gandhi Not Again?
(1) R.K. Narayan
(2) Omesh Saigal
(3) Arun Shourie
(4) Narsimha Rao
Ans. (2)

45. The cost price of 18 articles is equal to the selling price of 15 articles.
The gain per cent is:
(1) 15%
(2) 20%
(3) 25%
(4) 18%
Ans. (2)

46. 12 copies of a book were sold for Rs. 1800, thereby gaining the cost price of 3 copies. The cost price of a copy is
(1) Rs. 120
(2) Rs. 150
(3) Rs. 1200
(4) Rs. 1500
Ans. (1)

47. A sum of money was invested at a certain rate for 2 years. Had it been invested at 3% higher rate of interest, it would have fetched Rs. 450 more. The sum invested was:
(1) Rs. 7500
(2) Rs. 600
(3) Rs. 5000
(4) Rs. 4500
Ans. (1)

48. A sum of money put out at com pound interest amounts to Rs. 16900 in 2 years and to Rs. 17576 in 3 years. Find the rate of interest per annum.
(1) 4%
(2) 5%
(3) 10%
(4) 6%
Ans. (1)

49. On what sum of money will the compound interest for 3 years at 5% per annum amount to Rs. 630.50?
(1) Rs.1200
(2) Rs. 1261
(3) Rs. 4000
(4) Rs. 3000
Ans. (3)

50. A sum of Rs. 625 is made up of 80 currency notes which are of either Rs. 10 or Rs. 5 denomination. The numbers of Rs.10 notes are
(1) 35
(2) 45
(3) 40
(4) 30
Ans. (2)

51. A certain job was assigned to a group of men to do in 20 days. But 12 men did not turn up for the job and the remaining men did the job in 32 days. The original number of men in the group was
(1) 32
(2) 34
(3) 36
(4) 40
Ans. (1)

52. A certain number of men can do a work in 60 days. If there were 8 men more it could be finished in 10 days less. How many men were there in the beginning?
(1) 40
(2) 35
(3) 45
(4) 50
Ans. (1)

53. 12 men and 18 boys’ working 7& 1/2 hours a day can do a certain work in 60 days. If one man works equal to 2 boys, then the number of boys required to help 21 men to do twice the work in 50 days, working 9 hours a day, will be
(1) 30
(2) 42
(3) 48
(4) 90
Ans. (2)

54. The average expenditure of a man for the first five months is Rs. 1200 and for the next seven months is Rs. 1300. Find his monthly average income if he saves Rs. 2900 during the year?
(1) Rs. 1500
(2) Rs, 1475
(3) Rs. 1450
(4) Rs. 1425
Ans. (1)

55. The average temperature for Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday was 40°C.The average for Tuesday. Wednesday and Thurs day was 41°C. If on Thursday temperature is 45°C, what was it on Monday?
(1) 40°C
(2) 41°C
(3) 42°C
(4) 43.5°C
Ans. (3)

56. Of the three numbers, second is twice the first and is also thrice the third. If the average of the three numbers is 44, the largest number is:
(1) 24
(2) 72
(3) 36
(4) 108
Ans. (2)

57. Of the three numbers whose average is 60, the first is one fourth of the sum of the others. The first number is:
(1) 30
(2) 36
(3) 42
(4) 45
Ans. (2)

58. The average age of a family of 5 members is 24 years. If the age of youngest member be 6 years, find the average age of the family at the birth of the youngest member.
(1) 23 ½ years
(2) 20 years
(3) 22 ½ years
(4) 18 years
Ans. (4)

59. 9 men went to a hotel. 8 of them spent Rs. 30 each over their meals and the 9th spent Rs. 20 more than the average expenditure of all the nine. The total money spent by them is:
(1) Rs. 292.50
(2) Rs. 272.50
(3) Rs. 312.50
(4) Rs. 325.50
Ans. (1)

60. In a cricket team of eleven players, one player weighing 42 kg. is injured and his plate is taken by another player. If the average weight of the team is increased by 100 grams as a result of this, then the weight of the new player is
(1) 43.1 kg.
(2) 43.01 kg.
(3) 43.50 kg.
(4) 42.9 kg.
Ans. (1)

61. The average age of 8 persons in a committee is increased by 2 years when two men whose ages are 35 years and 45 years are replaced by two women. The average age of two women is (in years)
(1) 40
(2) 42
(3) 48
(4) 45
Ans. (3)

62. One-fourth of a certain journey was covered at an average speed of 45 km/hour, one third at the speed of 48 km/hour and the remaining journey at the speed of 50 km/hour. The average speed of the whole journey in km/hour is:
(1) 54
(2) 51
(3) 48
(4) 46
Ans. (3)

63. Visitors to a show were charged Rs. 150.00 each on the first day, Rs. 75.00 on the second day and Rs. 25.00 on the third day and the total attendance on the three days were in the ratio 2 : 5.: 13. The average charge per person for the whole show is:
(1) Rs. 75.00
(2) Rs. 60.00
(3) Rs. 50.00
(4) Rs. 55.00
Ans. (3)

64. Preeti has a son, named Arun. Ram is Preeti’s brother. Neeta too has a daughter named Reema. Neeta is Ram’s sister. What is Arun’s relationship to Reema?
(1) Brother
(2) Nephew
(3) Cousin
(4) Uncle
Ans. (3)

65. Pointing to a woman a man said, “Her mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the man related to the woman?
(1) Father
(2) Brother
(3) Paternal Uncle
(4) Maternal Uncle
Ans. (4)

66. A is the father of X. B is the mother of Y. The sister of X and Z is Y. Which of the following statements is not true?
(1) B is the wife of A
(2) B has one daughter
(3) Y is the son of A
(4) X is the sister of Z
Ans. (3)

67. X told Y, “It is true that I am your real brother, but you are not my sister”. How would Y be possibly related to X?
(1) Cousin
(2) Friend
(3) Brother
(4) Cannot be determined
Ans. (3)

68. From the given choices, e1ect the one which can be formed by using the letters of the given word:
TRANSFORMATION
(1) TRANSACTION
(2) TRANSFER
(3) INFORMANT
(4) INFORMER
Ans. (3)

69. From the given choices, select the one which can be formed by using the letters of the given word:
MEASUREMENT
(1) MASTER
(2) SUMMIT
(3) MANTLE
(4) ASSURE
Ans. (1)

70. A pipe of diameter‘d’ can drain a certain water tank in 40 minutes. The time taken by a pipe of diameter ‘2d’ for doing the same job is:
(1) 50 mm.
(2) 10 mm.
(3) 20mm
(4) 80mm.
Ans. (2)

Directions (71 – 75): In each of the following questions, find the next term to fill the blank space.
71. 20, 32, 45, 59, 74?
(1)95
(2)90
(3) 85
(4) 79
Ans. (1)

72. 210, 195, 175, 150, 120?
(1) 75
(2) 80
(3) 85
(4) 90
Ans. (3)

73. 3, 5, 10, 12, 24, 26?
(1) 52
(2) 30
(3) 28
(4) 48
Ans. (1)

74. 3, 8, 15, 24, 35?
(1) 42
(2) 48
(3) 49
(4) 53
Ans. (2)

75. 5, 16, 49, 148?
(l) 440
(2) 441
(3) 443
(4) 445
Ans. (4)

RRB Gorakhpur Assistant Station master Exam previous paper

Directions (1—5): Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the keyword.
1. CHIDE
(1) Praise
(2) Affirm
(3) Halter
(4) Negate
Ans. (1)

2. ENDEARING
(1) Long
(2) Odious
(3) Unfriendly
(4) Irritating
Ans. (2)
3. BOISTEROUS
(1) Huge
(2) Small
(3) Quiet
(4) Calm
Ans. (4)

4. BESTOW
(1) Given
(2) Bad
(3) Accept
(4) Take away
Ans. (4)

5. PERENNIAL
(1) Belonging to oneself
(2) Tempting
(3) Occasional
(4) Perishable
Ans. (4)

Directions (6 — 10): Fill in the blanks with the appropriate word.

6. Fate smiled him ? in all his ventures.
(1) upon
(2) in
(3) to
(4) on
Ans. (4)

7. It is difficult for me to part ? my belongings.
(1) from
(2) with
(3) in
(4) of
Ans. (2)

8. You cannot deprive him ? his right.
(1) upon
(2) with
(3) from
(4) of
Ans. (4)

9. Hard work has taken toll ? his health.
(1) upon
(2) with
(3) of
(4) on
Ans. (4)

10. We must always try to live life ? dignity.
(1) with
(2) by
(3) in
(4) of
Ans. (1)

11. The blood pressure of a normal person is:
(1) 100/80
(2) 100/90
(3) 80/120
(4) 90/100
Ans. (3)

12. Colour blindness is related to
(1) heredity
(2) blood pressure
(3) digestive system
(4) respiratory system
Ans. (1)
13. In simple harmonic motion, what remains constant?
(1) Amplitude
(2) Angular displacement
(3) Time period
(4) Kinetic energy
Ans. (3)

14. When a glass rod is rubbed by a silken cloth, the rod acquires
(1) positive charge
(2) negative charge
(3) positive & negative charge both
(4) None of these
Ans. (1)

15. The velocity of sound does not depend on
(1) temperature
(2) medium
(3) pressure
(4) humidity
Ans. (3)

16. The ultrasonic sound can be heard by
(1) dogs
(2) men
(3) microphone
(4) None of these
Ans. (4)

17. Which of the following is not a hormone?
(1) Insulin
(2) Adrenalin
(3) Thyroxin
(4) Hemoglobin
Ans. (4)

18. The longest among the following dams is
(1) Mathon dam
(2) Bhakhara Nangal
(3) Hirakud
(4) Nagarjun Sagar
Ans. (3)

19 Milind Panho is a
(1) drama in Sanskrit
(2) Jam description
(3) Pali treatise
(4) Persian treatise
Ans. (3)

20. Which of the following invented Algebra?
(1) Meghatithi
(2) Bhaskar
(3) Apastamb
(4) Aryabhatta
Ans. (2)

21. A mega city has a minimum population of:
(1) 10 lakhs
(2) 20 lakhs
(3) 50 lakhs
(4) 1 crore
Ans. (4)

22. The language of Chola rulers was:
(1) Sanskrit
(2) Kannada
(3) Tamil
(4) Telugu
Ans. (3)

23. Gandhiji started march to Dandi from:
(1) Dandi
(2) Sabarmati Ashram
(3) Gujarat
(4) Champaran
Ans. (2)

24. Which of the following rivers pass through valley?
(1) Godavari
(2) Narmada
(3) Krishna
(4) Mahanadi
Ans. (2)

25. The sex ratio is
(1) Kerala
(2) West Bengal
(3) Uttar Pradesh
(4) Mizoram
Ans. (1)

26. The post of collector in India was created in:
(1) 1772
(2) 1779
(3) 1792
(4) 1882
Ans. (1)

27. Who defeated the Marathas in the third battle of Panipat?
(1) Afghans
(2) Mughals
(3) English
(4) French
Ans. (1)

28. The people of Indus Valley civilization worshipped:
(1) Brahma
(2) Vishnu
(3) Pashupati
(4) Indra and Varun
Ans. (3)

29. Ashoka was related to:
(1) Haryak dynasty
(2) Mauryan dynasty
(3) Gupta dynasty
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)

30. The number of Puranas is
(1) 18
(2) 21
(3) 23
(4) 16
Ans. (1)

31. The first animal domesticated by Neolithic people was:
(1) Sheep
(2) Goat
(3) Dog
(4) Horse
Ans. (3)

32. In the Vedic age:
(1) Polygamy was unknown
(2) Child marriage was prominent
(3) Widow could remarry
(4) Hypergamy was allowed
Ans. (3)

33. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(1) Namdeva – Maharashtra
(2) Chaitanya – Bengal
(3) Narsimha Mehta – Gujarat
(4) Vallabhacharya – Gujarat
Ans. (4)

34. Name the Persian version of the Mahabharata, translated during Akbar’s reign
(1) Akbar Namah
(2) Iqbal Namah
(3) Saminatu-ul-Aluliy
(4) Razmbamah
Ans. (4)

35. The Marathas were defeated in the Anglo-Maratha wars due to:
(1) Lack of capable leadership
(2) Military weaknesses
(3) Failure in estimating correctly the strength of the British
(4) All the above
Ans. (4)

36. Which of the following Acts delegated the power of framing laws to the Council of the Governor General?
(1) Charter Act — 1833
(2) Charter Act — 1853
(3 The Government of India Act —1919
(4) The Government of India Act —1935
Ans. (1)

37. Who was the founder of Darpan?
(1) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(2) Sachindranath Sanyal
(3) Bal Shastri Jambekar
(4) Jyotiba Phule
Ans. (3)

38. The single biggest item of British capital investment in India was/were
(1) Railways
(2) Plantation and Mines
(3) Banking and Insurance
(4) All the above
Ans. (1)

39. The first weekly paper published by the Indian National Congress’ in 1889, was:
(1) Young India
(2) India
(3) Indian People
(4) Voice of India
Ans. (1)

40. Lala Lajpat Rai suffered fatal injuries during the demonstration against the:
(1) Cripps Mission
(2) Simon Commission
(3) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(4) Rowlatt Act
Ans. (2)

41. The only annual session of the Congress presided over by Gandhiji was:
(1) Kakinada — 1923
(2) Belgaum — 1924
(3) Kanpur — 1925
(4) Guwahati ? 1926
Ans. (2)

42. Habeas Corpus means:
(1) An order front a court to free a ‘person who has been illegally detained by the police or any other person
(2) An order from a superior court calling up the record of a proceeding in an inferior court for review
(3) An order from the superior court to an official to show his right to the office
(4) An order from the higher court to stop proceeding in a certain case
Ans. (1)

43. Mixed economy envisages:
(1) co-existence of capitalists and labourers
(2) integrated economic development
(3) development of agriculture and industry simultaneously
(4) private and public sectors
Ans. (4)

44. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(1) Bombay Stock Exchange ? SENSEX
(2) National Stock Exchange ?NYSE
(3) New York Stock Exchange ?NIFTY
(4) London Stock Exchange ? NIKKEI
Ans. (1)

45.The important objectives of the development of cooperative sector are:
(1) Prevention of concentration of economic power
(2) Wider dispersal of ownership of productive resources
(3) Active involvement of people in the development programmes
(4) All the above
Ans. (4)

46. Securities & Exchange Board of India {SEBI) was established in
(1) 1981
(2) 1988
(3) 1990
(4) 1992
Ans. (2)

47. Subsidies means:
(1) payment by Government for purchase of goods and services
(2) payment by business enterprises to factors of production
(3) payment by companies to share holders
(4) payment by Government to business enterprise without buying any good and services
Ans. (1)

48. Which one ‘of the following will directly increase the GNP?
(1) an increase in investment
(2) a surplus in budget
(3) a fall in national debt
(4) a rise in the interest rate
Ans. (1)

49. Who wrote a book describing the theory of economic drain of In dia during British Rule?
(1) Dadabhai Naoroji
(2) Lala Lajpat Rai
(3) Mahatma Gandhi
(4) J. L. Nehru
Ans. (1)

50. As per 2001 Census, the state having highest urban population is:
(1) Uttar Pradesh
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Tamil Nadu
(4) Kerala
Ans. (2)

51. How would you describe the Indian Constitution?
(1) Medium in size
(2) Very small and compact
(3) One of the most elaborate Constitutions in the world
(4) It is not a written Constitution
Ans. (3)
52. Who is competent to amend the fundamental rights?
(1) President
(2) Lok Sabha
(3) Supreme Court
(4) Parliament
Ans. (4)

53. Name the canal that joins the Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sea:
(1) Kiel Canal
(2) Panama
(3) Suez Canal
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)

54. Amongst the following Indian states which one has the minimum total forest cover?
(1) Sikkim
(2) Goa
(3) Haryana
(4) Kerala
Ans. (3)

55. Which one among the following languages has largest nUmber of speakers in the world?
(1) Bengali
(2) French
(3) Japanese
(4) Portuguese
Ans. (4)

56.The great Asian river Mekong does not run through.:
(1) China
(2) Malaysia
(3) Cambodia
(4) Laos
Ans. (2)

57. In March-April, 2009 India defeated New Zealand in test cricket match series. This victory came after how many years?
(1) 49 years
(2) 47 years
(3) 46 years
(4) None of these
Ans. (4)

58. Who among the following is the winner of Miss India World Wide 2009?
(1) Nikkitasha Marhawa
(2) Kanchan Verma
(3) Shagun Sarabhai
(4) None of these
Ans. (4)

59. 8th March is celebrated as:
(1) International Women’s Day
(2) International Literacy Day
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these
Ans. (1)

60. In IPL version of cricket, the Australian Shane Warne was the captain of which team?
(1) Chennai Super King
(2) Rajasthan Royals
(3) Deccan Chargers
(4) Knight Riders
Ans. (2)

61. In Lok Sabha the number of seats is:
(1) 545
(2) 542
(3) 549
(4) 544
Ans. (1)

62. Who is benefited from inflation?
(1) Creditor
(2) Debtor
(3) Banks
(4) Citizens
Ans. (2)

63.Jyoti Randhawa is associated to which sport?
(1) Golf
(2) Badminton
(3) Wrestling
(4) Tennis
Ans. (1)

64. Who is the writer of book Conquest of Self?
(1) Mahatma Gandhi
(2) J. L. Nehru
(3) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(4) J.C. Bose
Ans. (1)

65. When is the World Environment Day observed?
(1) 6thJune
(2) 4th June
(3) 5th June
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)

66. Chandrayaan -I, Indian Moon Mission, was launched on:
(1) 22 October, 2008
(2) 21 October, 2008
(3) 22 September, 2008
(4) 22 November, 2008
Ans. (1)

67. Who among the following controls/supervises the Consolidated Fund of India?
(1) Indian Finance Minister
(2) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(3) Parliament
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)

68. Who has defined the office of profit?
(1) Parliament
(2) Supreme Court
(3) Council of ministers
(4) Constitution
Ans. (4)

69. Which of the following is not a Constitutional arrangement?
(1) Finance Commission
(2) Planning Commission
(3) Election Commission
(4) Union Public Service Corn mission
Ans. (2)

70. Partition of Bengal was done during the period of:.
(1) Lord Curzon
(2) Lord Clive
(3) Lord Cornwallis
(4) Lord Dalhousie
Ans. (1)

71. (7857 + 3596 + 4123) ÷ 96 =?
(1) 155.06
(2) 162.25
(3) 151.83
(4) 165.70
Ans. (2)

72: 741560 + 935416 + 1143 +17364=?
(1) 1694583
(2) 1695438
(3) 1695483
(4) 1659483
Ans. (3)

73. 36% of 4800 x 0.2% of 1320=?
(1) 4535.52
(2) 4551.36
(3) 4561,92
(4) 4572.48
Ans. (3)

74. Raman’s salary is decreased by 10%. By what per cent his decreased salary be raised to have the original salary?
(1) 10%
(2) 11%
(3) 11.11 %

(4) 12%
Ans. (3)

75. To get 35% of a number, the number should be multiplied by
(1) 7/ 20
(2) 3.5
(3)√7/20
(4) 5

Ans. (1)

76. The number whose 20% is 10, is
(1) 30
(2) 40
(3) 50
(4) 70
Ans. (3)

77. A sum in 20 years at a certain rate of simple interest. In how many years will it be four times of itself?
(1) 40 years
(2) 50 years
(3) 60 years
(4) 80 years
Ans. (3)

78. The sum of two numbers is 100 and their difference is 50. The ratio of these numbers is
(1) 2:1
(2) 3:1
(3) 4:1
(4) 5:1
Ans. (2)

79. The population of a town increases at 10% per annum. If the present population is 160000, what will be the population after 4 years?
(1) 1,94,481
(2) 1,78,641
(3) 1,92,000
(4) 1,65,000
Ans. (1)

80. The ratio of the volumes of two cubes is 1: 27. The ratio of their surface areas will be
(1) 1:3
(2) 1:6
(3) 1:9
(4) 1:18
Ans. (3)

81. The simple interest on a certain sum at the rate of4% per an num in 4 years Is Rs. 80 more than the simple interest on the same sum at 5% per annum af ter 3 years. The sum is
(1) Rs. 7000
(2) Rs. 7,500
(3) Rs. 8000
(4) R 8,500
Ans. (3)

82. At what rate of compound interest a sum will be 25/ 16times of itself in 2 years?

(1) 16%
(2) 18%
(3) 20%
(4) 25%
Ans. (4)

83. In an examination, a student gets 20% of total marks and fails by 30 marks. Another student gets 32% of total marks which is more than the minimum pass marks by 42 marks. The pass percentage is
(1) 24%
(2) 25%
(3) 26%
(4) 28%
Ans. (2)

84. A particle is thrown upwards at the velocity of 39.2 m/sec. Time to reach the highest point is
(1) 3 seconds
(2) 4 seconds
(3) 3.75 seconds
(4) 4.75 seconds
Ans. (2)

85. If the interest is compounded annually and the compound interest after 3 years at 10% per annum on a sum is Rs. 331, the principal is
(1) Rs. 900
(2)Rs. 1000
(3) Rs. 1050
(4) Rs. 1100
Ans. (2)

86. A shopkeeper earns 20%, by allowing a discount of 10% on the marked price of an article. An article is marked at Rs. 280, its actual price is
(1) Rs. 195
(2) Rs, 200
(3) Rs. 225
(4) Rs. 215
Ans. (2)

87. Ram bought 1600 eggs at the rate of Rs. 3.75 per dozen. He sold 900 of them at 2 eggs for Re 1 and the remaining at 5 eggs for Rs. 2. Find his loss or gain per cent.
(1) 40%
(2) 45%
(3) 42%
(4) 46%
Ans. (4)

88. In an election a candidate gets 40% of votes polled and is defeated by the winning candidate by 298 votes. Find the total number, of votes polled.
(1) 1360
(2) 1490
(3) 1520
(4) 1602
Ans. (2)

89. Two numbers are less than the third number by 30% and 37% respectively. By what percent is the second number less than the first number?
(1) 15%
(2) 10%
(3) 25%
(4) 20%
Ans. (2)

90. A man goes from A to B at the speed of 5 kmph and returns from B to A at 4 kmph. His average speed during the whole journey is
(1) 35/9 Kmph

(2) 40/9 Kmph

(3) 46/9 Kmph

(4) 50 /9Kmph

Ans. (2)

RRB ALLAHABAD ASSISTANT STATION MASTER EXAM 13-06-2010 SOLVED PAPER

RRB ALLAHABAD ASSISTANT STATION MASTER EXAM 13-06-2010 SOLVED PAPER CLICK HERE

RRB AJMER ASM SOLVED PAPER 2009

1. The Buland Darwaja is related to

(1) Shershah

(2) Babur

(3) Akbar

(4) Jehangir

Ans. (3)

2. The Military Games were held in Hyderabad from October 17, 2007 to October 27, 2007.Which country won the highest number of medals?

(1) China

(2) Russia

(3) India

(4) Japan

Ans. (2)

3. The Railways gets the maximum income from

(1) Goods freight

(2) Passenger’s fares

(3) Advertisement

(4) None of these

Ans. (1)

4. What is sound?

(1) Energy

(2) Heat

(3) Magnet

(4) Ray

Ans. (1)

5. The chief source of heat energy is

(1) Sun light

(2) Biogas

(3) Electricity

(4) Natural gas

Ans. (1)

6. The Aravalli hills are located in

(1) Madhya Pradesh

(2) Rajasthan

(3) Assam

(4) Jharkhand

Ans. (2)

7. A plant can be disease resistant due to

(1) Pesticides

(2) Virus

(3) Fungi

(4) Bacteria

Ans. (1)

8. Which of the following Chief Ministers served for the longest tenure?

(1) Lalu Prasad

(2) Jyoti Basu

(3) Ms. Mayawati

(4) M. Karunanidhi

Ans. (2)

9. Which of the following straits separates Europe from Africa?

(1) Berring

(2) Dobar

(3) Gibralter

(4) Mulucca

Ans. (3)

10. The UN Climate Change conference was organized in Bali from December 3, 2007 to December 14, 2007 for 12 days in which 1000 people participated .Bali is situated in

(1) Indonesia

(2) Malaysia

(3) Morocco

(4) China

Ans. (1)

11. The description of caste system is found in

(1) Rig Veda

(2) Sam Veda

(3) Yajurva Veda

(4) Atharva Veda

Ans. (1)

12. Who is called the Akbar of Kashmir?

(1) Janulabeddin

(2) Sikandar

(3) Queen Didda

(4) Emperor Sangram Singh

Ans. (1)

13. The Border Road Organization comes under

(1) Defense

(2) Urban Development

(3) Corporate sector

(4) Private sector

Ans. (1)

14. Which of the following corporations was started first by the Government of India?

(1) Damodar Valley Corporation

(2) National Thermal Power Corporation

(3) National Hydel Power Corporation

(4) All the above

Ans. (1)

15. Which of the following is not a part of three gems of the Buddhism?

(1) Buddha

(2) Sangha

(3) Dhamma

(4) Ahimsa

Ans. (4)

16. Who was the first Indian to reach Antarctica?

(1) Rakesh Sharma

(2) G.S. Sirohi

(3) B.K. Dutta

(4) K. Karuna Nautial

Ans. (2)

17. A saturated solution at S.T.P. is

(1) Colorless

(2) Green

(3) Red

(4) Red and green

Ans. (1)

18. The pure element in the following is

(1) Glass

(2) Diamond

(3) Lime

(4) Salt

Ans. (2)

19. What is gypsum?

(1) Lime

(2) Bleaching powder

(3) Blue vitriol

(4) Ammonium chloride powder

Ans. (3)

20. Bones of horses of Harappan civilization were found at

(1) Lothal

(2) Harappa

(3) Surkotada

(4) Mohanjodero

Ans. (3)

21. What is Ag-mark?

(1) Technique to increase agricultural productivity

(2) Green Revolution

(3) Test of purity in the production of vegetable oil etc.

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

22. Who has taken the highest number of wickets in Test Cricket?

(11) Muttiah Muralitharan

(2) Shane Warne

(3) Anil Kumble

(4) Shoaib Akhtar

Ans. (1)

23. In 1947, 532 princely states were annexed to India except three. Which of the following was not among the three princely states?

(1) Junagarha

(2) Bhavnagar

(3) Hyderabad

(4) Kashmir

Ans. (4)

24. Which of the following gases is used to prepare Ammonia gas?

(1) Nitrogen and oxygen

(2) Nitrogen and oxide

(3) Nitrogen and hydrogen

(4) Nitrogen and carbon

Ans. (3)

25. In which of the following states of India, per capita income is highest?

(1) Orissa

(2) Assam

(3) Manipur

(4) Kerala

Ans. (4)

26. By import of — the inflation has been caused in India?

(1) Wheat

(2) Rice

(3) Sugar

(4) Petroleum

Ans. (4)

27. The meeting of Commonwealth Nations was held in Uganda on November 25, 2007. Who was elected its General Secretary?

(1) Mahesh Sharma

(2) Kamlesh Sharma

(3) Bimalesh Sharma

(4) Kailash Sharma

Ans. (2)

28. In which country the Hindu temples were razed to the ground in

December, 2007?

(1) Indonesia

(2) Malaysia

(3) Mauritius

(4) Afghanistan

Ans. (2)

Directions (29 — 33) : Read the following passage carefully and then answer the following questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage by choosing the best answer to each question out of given four options.

On hearing the news of the massacre at Jallianwala Bagh, Udham Singh did not attend his school but took a train to Armritsar and visited the spot. There, he stood for several minutes in a trance, picked up the soil, rubbed it on his forehead and put some in a phial. He fasted that night. According to his family members he placed fresh flowers on the holy dust every morning, drawing inspiration from it. One early morning he went to the river Ravi and pledged that he would Colour its waters with the colour of his blood, to create what he called the freedom’s flood. With this aim in view in 1921, he first landed in Africa. From there he went to America to meet the Indian revolutionaries working for the liberation of the motherland.

In 1923, he landed in England. In 1928, he returned to India in response to an urgent call from Bhagat Singh. When he reached Lahore, he was detained for violation of the Arms Act. He was released after four years rigorous imprisonment. In 1935, he escaped to Germany by giving a slip to the police. From Berlin, he reached Paris and purchased a revolver. He kept it ready for action and managed to reach London again. Opportunity came on March 13, 1940 when Sir Michael O’ Dwyer was to speak at a seminar in the Caxton Hall. As Sir Michael turned to resume his seat after the speech. Udham Singh pulled out his revolver and fired at him, Sir Michael died without a shriek. Udham

Singh was arrested and produced before the court on April 2, 1940. The court passed death sentence on him and he was hanged at Pentonville Prison, London on July 3, 1940.

29. Udham Singh went to America where he

(1) mobilized the Indian citizens for the liberation of the motherland

(2) collected sufficient funds to fight colonialism

(3) met fellow citizens working for the same cause

(4) went sight-seeing

Ans. (3)

30. Where did Udham Singh buy the weapon which was used for killing Sir Michael?

(1) Paris

(2) Lahore

(3) London

(4) Berlin

Ans. (1)

31. Udham Singh shot at Sir Michael O’Dwyer in

(1) Jallianwala Bagh

(2) Armritsar

(3) London

(4) Paris

Ans. (3)

32. When Udham Singh was arrest ed in Lahore, he was charged for

(1) instigating his countrymen against the Englishmen

(2) his links with anti-British forces

(3) concealing his identity and carrying on underground activities

(4) possessing unlicensed arms and ammunition

Ans. (4)

33. Udham Singh returned to India in 1928 mainly because he was:

(1) short of funds to meet his expenses

(2) to produce some arms from Lahore

(3) to escape from the British police

(4) called by a revolutionary in India

Ans. (4)

34. In the following question a word has been spelt in four different ways one of which is correct. Choose the correctly spelt word:

(1) Assemblage

(2) Asemblage

(3) Assemmblage

(4) Accemblage

Ans. (1)

35. In the following sentence, fill in the blank by choosing correct option from the given alternatives

The documents are available ? inspection.

(1) of

(2) about

(3) with

(4) for

Ans. (4)

36. In the following question, choose the Adjective.

(1) Preference

(2) Gifted

(3) Genius

(4) In vain

Ans. (2)

37. Write the synonym of the word ‘Consummate’.

(1) Novice

(2) Ambiguous

(3) Perfect

(4) Imperfect

Ans. (3)

38. Find out, which part of the following sentence has a grammatical or idiomatic error in it.

They have

(1)/held the championship

(2)/ since the past

(3)/ two years.

(4)

Ans. (3)

39. In the following question, a word has been spelt in four different ways, one of which is correct. Choose the correctly spelt word.

(1) demmurage

(2) demurrage

(3) demarrage

(4) demurage

Ans. (2)

40. In the following question, an idiomatic expression and its four possible meanings are given. Find out the correct meaning of the idiomatic expression and choose your correct answer from the given four choices:

Play one’s cards well

(1) A good gambler displaying skills

(2) A magician showing magic of cards

(3) Use means effectively

(4) A game of gamble

Ans. (3)

41. Out of the four alternatives, choose the one that can he substituted for .the given words/ phrase and mark it as your answer.

A cock and bull story

(1) An unbelievable gossip

(2) A children’s fable

(3) A quarrelsome dialogue

(4) A competition between un equal people

Ans. (1)

42. Choose the part of the following sentence containing error and mark it as your answer:

The number of orders(1). /

for that item have(2). /

increased greatly; several of them(3). /

have come from Egypt(4).

Ans. (2)

43. Identify the part of the following sentence containing an error and choose it as your answer.

In America(1)/

Presidential elections(2) /

is held every four years(3)

No error(4)

Ans. (3)

44. In the following sentence, fill in the blank by choosing correct option from the given alternatives:

‘Ram has annoyed his boss. He ? have to leave the job.

(1) might

(2) will

(3) ought to

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

45. In the following question, three words having different meanings of a certain word are given. Select that word from the answer choices marked (1), (2), (3) and (4).

Witness, Observer; Onlooker

(1) spectator

(2) present

(3) biased

(4) careful

Ans. (1)

46. For the following word written in capital letters, four words are listed below as (1),

(2) (3) and (4). Out of these, choose the word nearest in meaning to it as your answer:

VINDICATE

(1) approve

(2) justify

(3) express

(4) exonerate

Ans. (2)

47. In the following sentence, the bold part contains an error. Answer choice (1) repeats the original, other three are 1ifferent. If you think that the original sentence displays the best way of wording the bold part, choose your answer (1): otherwise select the best alternative from the other three choices.

“Parents and teachers are be coming increasingly concerned about protecting children and the drugs which are available to them, and several parent teacher organizations, dedicated to educating children about the dangers of drug addiction, have recently been formed.”

(1) protecting children and the drugs which are available to them

(2) protecting of children and the drugs which are available to them

(3) protecting children from the drugs available to them

(4) protecting children from the drugs availability to them

Ans. (3)

48. From the given four answer choices, select the answer that gives the clearest, most exact sentence, but do not change the meaning Of the bold part of original sentence.

Such people never have and never will be trusted.

(1) never have and never will be trusted

(2) never have and will be trust ed

(3) never have been trusted and never will be trusted

(4) never have and anyone trust them and never will have anyone

Ans. (3)

49. Which one of the following statements is untrue?

(1) The sea-floor is older than the land

(2) The first rocks were formed as a result of the cooling o. molten matter

(3) Sedimentary rocks are also called aqueous rocks because they were formed by

the agency of water

(4) Stalactites and stalagmites are deposits of lime found in caves

Ans. (3)

50. The main hydro electric power potential of the Indus river system lies in India and not in Pakistan because:

(1) the need for hydro-electric power is greater in India than in Pakistan

(2) India has superior technology to develop hydro—electric power

(3) India has a greater labour force to develop hydro electric power

(4) The mountain stages of these rivers lie in India

Ans. (4)

51. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List-I List-II

(a) Cotton 1. Madhya Pradesh

(b) Gram 2.Gujarat

(c) Black Pepper 3. West Bengal

(d) Pine apple 4. Kerala

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 2 1 3 4

(3) 1 2 4 3

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (1)

52. In the production of tidal energy the maximum potential exists at:

(1) Bhavnagar

(2) Digboi

(3) Cochin

(4) Ladakh

Ans. (1)

53. The National Highway system is the responsibility of

(1) State governments

(2) Central governments

(3) Central and State governments

(4) Local body governments

Ans. (3)

54. Supersonic jets cause pollution by thinning of

(1) Sulphur dioxide layer

(2) Carbon dioxide layer

(3) Ozone layer

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

55. Which one of the following is commonly called Edible sponge mushroom’?

(1) Sargassum

(2) Morchella

(3) Agaricus

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

56. Which of the following is not an essential function of the skin in the human body?

(1) protects the internal or of the body

(2) acts as a sensory organ

(3) regulates the temperature of the body

(4) gives shape to the body

Ans. (4)

57. The device used for converting alternating current to direct current is called

(1) Inverter

(2) Rectifier

(3) Transmitter

(4) Transformer

Ans. (2)

58. Water is used in hot water bottles because:

(1) it is easily obtained in pure form

(2) it has high specific heat

(3) it is cheaper and not harmful

(4) it is easy to heat water

Ans. (2)

59. Mention the ray which appears to originate outside the earth.

(1) cosmic ray

(2) the ultra-violet ray

(3) the alpha ray

(4) the beta ray

Ans. (1)

60. A person cannot see objects clearly which are nearer than 75 cms from his eyes. What disease is he suffering from?

(1) Astigmatism

(2) Colour-blindness

(3) Myopia

(4) Hypermetropia

Ans. (4)

61. Oil rises up to wick in a lamp because

(1) oil is volatile

(2) oil is very light

(3) of the surface tension phenomenon

(4) of the diffusion of oil through the wick

Ans. (3)

62. Following Railway Training Institutes have been indicated with the cities where they are located. Find out which is wrongly matched.

(1) Railway Staff College — Vadodara

(2) Indian Railway Institute of Civil Engineering — Pune

(3) Indian Railway Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering —Jamalpur

(4) Indian Railway Institute Signal and Tele Communication Engineering — Mumbai

Ans. (4)

63. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given four options:

List -I List-II

(Zonal Railway) (Head Quarter)

(a) North Central Railway 1. Bilaspur

(b) South-East Central Railway 2. Allahabad

(c) West Central Railway 3. Jabalpur

(d) East Coast Railway 4. Bhubaneshwar

Code.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 3 4

(2) 1 2 3 4

(3) 2 3 4 1

(4) 4 1 3 2

Ans. (1)

64. In Indian Railways Network, approximately how many passenger service vehicles (passenger coaches) are working?

(1) 44,100

(2) 33.000

(3) 49,000

(4) 54,000

Ans. (2)

65. Who is the principal head of the Department of a Station Master in Zonal Railway Head Quarter Office?

(1) Chief Commercial Manager

(2) Chief Safety Officer

(3) Chief Personnel Officer

(4) Chief Operations Manager

Ans. (4)

66. Two new zones named North Western Railway and East Central Railway become functional/ operational from?

(1) October 1, 2002

(2) April 1, 2002

(3) April 1, 2003

(4) October 1, 2003

Ans. (1)

67. In one of the following State, though the Konkan Railway line does not pass through it, yet it has capital share in the K.R. Corporation. Name the State.

(1) Karnataka

(2) Goa

(3) Tamil Nadu

(4) Kerala

Ans. (3)

68. All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the Vice- President of India are decided by the

(1) High Court of a State

(2) Chief Election Commissioner

(3) Supreme Court of India

(4) President of India

Ans. (3)

69. Consider the following functionaries

1. Union Cabinet Secretary

2. Chief Election Commissioner

3. Union Cabinet Ministers

4. Chief Justice of India

Their correct sequence, in the order of precedence is

(1) 3, 4, 2, 1

(2) 4, 3, 1, 2

(3) 4, 3, 2, 1

(4) 3. 4, 1, 2

Ans. (3)

70. The basic structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that

(1) Certain features of the Constitution are so essential to it that they cannot be abrogated

(2) Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged or taken away

(3) The Constitution cannot be amended except in accordance with the procedure prescribed in Article 368

(4) The Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended

Ans. (1)

71. Which of the following enjoys the constitutional status?

1. Finance Commission

2. Planning Commission

3. Zonal Council

4. National Development Council

5. Election Commission

6. University Grants Commission

(1) 1, 3 and 5

(2) l and 5

(3) 1, 2, 5 and 6

(4) 1, 3, 5 and 6

Ans. (2)

72. The ultimate responsibility of taking due action on the comments of the Comptroller and Auditor General vests with

(1) President of India

(2) Supreme Court of India

(3) Parliament of India

(4) National Development Council

Ans. (1)

73. Mohit said to Neelam, “Your only brother’s son is my wife’s brother.” How is Neelam related to the wife of Mohit?

(1) aunt

(2) mother-in-law

(3) sister

(4) cannot be determined

Ans. (1)

74. A tourist drives 10 km towards East and turns to right hand side and takes a drive of another 3 km. He then drives towards West (turning to his right) another 3 km. He then turns to his left and walks another 2 km. Afterwards, he turns to his right and travels 7 km. How far is he from his starting point and in which direction?

(1) 10 km—East

(2) 9 km— North

(3) 8 km— West

(4) 5 km—South

Ans. (4)

75. The question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. Decide the ‘Strong’ and ‘Weak’ arguments and give answer out of four given options ‘1’, ‘2’, ‘3’ and ‘4’

Question:

Should all the professional colleges in India be encouraged to run their own courses without affiliation to any university?

Arguments:

(I) Yes, this is the only way to create more opportunities for those who seek professional training.

(II) No, this will dilute the quality of professional training as all such colleges may not be equipped to conduct such courses.

(1) Only argument I is strong

(2) Only argument II is strong

(3) Both I and II are strong

(4) Neither I nor II is strong

Ans. (2)

76. Statement: “Please do not wait for me; I may be late, start taking lunch as soon as the guests arrive.” — a message from a director of a company to his office managers.-

Assumptions:

I. Keeping guests waiting is not desirable.

II. Lunch may not be ready in time.

Consider the above statement and two assumptions to decide as to which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Choose the correct answer from the given options 1, 2, 3 and 4.

(1) Only assumption I is implicit

(2) Only assumption II is implicit

(3) Both I and II are implicit

(4) Neither I nor II is implicit

Ans. (1)

77. How many Asian countries are there in Common wealth?

(1) 49

(2) 51

(3) 54

(4) 57

Ans. (3)

78. Khan Abdul Gaffer Khan’s which action; performed in favour of Indian independence, but was against the English men?

(1) Formation of Lal-Kurti sena

(2) Assassination of an Englishman

(3) Trade of red shirts

(4) Demand for Pakhtunistan

Ans. (1)

79. On selling an article for Rs. 270 there is a gain of 12.5%. What

is its cost price?

(1) Rs. 240

(2) Rs. 220

(3) Rs. 210

(4) Rs. 250

Ans. (1)

80. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1: 2: 3. The greatest angle will be

(1) 60°

(2) 30°

(3) 90°

(4) 75°

Ans. (3)

81. The compound interest on Rs. 2500 at the rate of 6% p.a. after 2 years will be

(1) Rs. 309

(2) Rs. 318

(3) Rs. 320

(4) None of these

Ans. (1)

82. (999)² – (998)²2=?

(1) 1995

(2) 1998

(3) 1997

(4) 1992

Ans. (3)

83. A man covers a distance of 6 km at the rate 4 kmph and other 4 km at 3 kmph. His average speed is

(1) 9&13/7 kmph

(2) 3&9/17 kmph

(3) 5&9/17 kmph

(4) 3 & 5/9 kmph

Ans. (2)

84. The cost price of an article is Rs. 7840. To gain 7%, the article should be sold at

(1) Rs. 8388.80

(2) Rs. 8000

(3) Rs. 8383.80

(4) Rs. 8833.80

Ans. (1)

85. Two pipes can fill a tank in 10 minutes and 30 minutes respectively and a third pipe can empty the full tank in 20 minutes. If all the three pipes are opened simultaneously, the tank will be

(1) 10 minutes

(2) 8 minutes

(3) 7 minutes

(4) None of these

Ans. (4)

86.(4*4*4+3*3*3)/13 =

(1) 7

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4

Ans. (1)

87. (6.25) ⁴÷ (6.25)³ =?

(1) 6.25

(2) 6.025

(3) 6.0025

(4) 6.002

Ans. (1)

88. The ratio between the ages of Ram and Mohan is 4:5 and that between Mohan and Anil is 5:6. If sum of the ages of three be 90 years, how old is Mohan?

(1) 24 years

(2) 20 years

(3) 30 years

(4) 25 years

Ans. (3)

89. The per cent of 2 /45 is?

(1) 3&4/9 %

(2) 4&4/9 %

(3) 4 %

(4) 9 %

Ans. (2)

90. If a ^x=b;b ^y=c and c^z =a , then xyz =?

(1) 1

(2) -1

(3) 2

(4) 2

Ans. (1)

91. Match the name of countries in List-I with years of beginning of railways in List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List -I List—II

(Countries) (Year of beginning of railways)

(a) Britain 1. 1853

(b) America 2. 1829

(c) India 3. 1825

(d) France 4. 1830

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 4 1 3 2

(3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (3)

92. The length of Indian rails is

(1) More than 5000 km

(2) More than 5630 km

(3) More than 6000 km

(4) More than 6531 km

Ans. (4)

93. Match the items of List-I with List-II and select the-correct answer by using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Largest Population) (States)

(a) Jains 1. Nagaland

(b) Buddhas 2. Rajasthan

(c) Christians 3. Maharashtra

(d) Muslims 4. Lakshadwip

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 2 3 1 4

(3) 1 2 4 3

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (2)

94. The capital of the king of Punjab Ranjit Singh was

(1) Lahore

(2) Ludhiana

(3) Mathura

(4) Sri Nagar

Ans. (1)

95. Photosynthesis does not take place in

(1) plants

(2) fungi

(3) bacteria

(4) virus

Ans. (4)

96. In nucleuic protein, Uceriotic chromosomes are alike in

(1) prophase

(2) Metaphase

(3) Anaphase -

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

97. Which type of protein is found in virus?

(1) Lyco protein

(2) Secondary protein

(3) Primary protein

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

98. In ionic solid, the velocity of electricity is

(1) fast

(2) weak

(3) less than solid

(4) less than gas

Ans. (1)

99. The largest phase in cell division is

(1) Liptotin

(2) Zagotin

(3) Pacotin

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)