Showing posts with label TECHNICAL. Show all posts
Showing posts with label TECHNICAL. Show all posts

Saturday, June 27, 2015

RRB Centralised Employment Notice No.01/2015

Online applications are invited for the following posts of Jr. Engineer, Depot Material Superintendent, Chemical & Metallurgical Assistant, Sr. Section Engineer and Chief Depot Material Superintendent.

Post Details:
1. Jr. Engineer/ Research Engineer:  935 Posts
2. Depot Material Superintendent: 35 Posts
3. Chemical & Metallurgical Assistant: 75 Posts
4. Sr. Section Engineer: 1165 Posts
5. Chief Depot Material Superintendent: 25 Posts


Qualification: Bachelor’s degree (Civil/ Mechanical/ Electrical/ Electronics/ Manufacturing/ Industrial/ Machining/ Instrumentations & Control/ Tools & Machining/ Tools & Die Making/ Automobile/ Production Engineering/ Information Technology/ Communication Engineering)/ M.Sc. Electronics. Or Degree in Engineering in any discipline. Or Diploma (Civil/ Mechanical/ Electrical/ Electronics/ Manufacturing/ Mechatronics/ Industrial/ Machining/ Instrumentation & Control/ Tools & Machining/ Tools & Die Making/ Automobile/ Production Engineering or B.Sc. (Civil Engineering/ Computers). Or PGDCA/ BCA.


How to Apply: Candidates are required to apply through Online mode.


Last date for receipt of applications: 26.07.2015.


Date of Publication (Employment News): 27.06.2015. 

For Notification Click Here

Sunday, September 2, 2012

RRB JUNIOR ENGINEERS (MECHANICAL ENGINEERING) PREVIOUS EXAMS QUESTIONS

1. A feeler gauge is used to check
a. Radius
b. Screw pitch
c. Surface roughness
d. Unsymmetrical shape
e. Thickness of clearance
Ans :: e
 
2. The possibility of negative slip in reciprocating pump is when
(a) delivery pipe is short
(b) suction pipe is long
(c) pump is running at high speed
(d) all of the above
Ans:- D

3. A single acting reciprocating pump, running at 60 r.p.m, delivers 0.01 m2/sec of water. The area of the piston is 0.05m2 and stroke length is 40 cm. Then theoretical discharge of the pump will be
(a) 0.015 m3/sec
(b) 0.02 m3/sec
(c) 0.025 m3/sec
(d) 0.03 m3/sec
Ans:- B 
 
4.  In question (A), the co-efficient of discharge would be
(a) 0.9
(b) 0.8
(c) 0.6
(d) 0.5
Ans:- D
 
5. In question (A), the slip of the pump would be
(a) 0.02 m3/sec
(b) 0.01 m3/sec
(c) 0.005 m3/sec
(d) 0.003 m3/sec
Ans:- B
  
6. The impact strength of an material is an index of its
a. Toughness
b. Tensile strength
c. Capability of being cold worked
d. Hardness
e. Fatigue strength
Ans :: a
 
7. The slip in the reciprocating pump will be negative if
(a) Qth > Qact
(b) Qth < Qact
(c) Qth = Qact
(d) none of the above
Ans:- B

Sunday, March 4, 2012

RRB Junior engineer(electrical) Model Questions

1. A resistance of 10 ohm is connected across a supply of 200V. If resistance R is now connected in parallel with a 10 ohm resistance, the current drawn from the supply gets doubled. The value of unknown resistance R is
(a) 5 ohm
(b) 20 ohm
(c) 10 ohm
(d) 15 ohm
Ans : c
2. Kirchhoff’s first law is also called as
(a) voltage law
(b) Current law
(c) Mesh Current law
(d) All the above
Ans : b
3. Find the total resistance when four 3 Ohm resistance are connected in series
(a) 3 ohm
(b) 12 ohm
(c) 14 ohm
(d) 8 ohm
Ans : b
4. The practical unit of power is
(a) Joule
(b) Ampere
(c) Watt
(d) Weber
Ans : c
5. Form factor of a sine wave is
(a) 1.414
(b) 1
(c) 0
(d) 1.11
Ans : d
6. The unit of resistance is
(a) Mho
(b) ohm-m
(c) Ohms
(d) Amps
Ans :c
7. Unit of impedance is
(a) Ampere
(b) Volt
(c) Ohm
(d) mho
Ans : c
8. The close path of the flux around any current carrying circuit is referred as
Circuit.
(a) Magnetic
(b) Electric
(c) Electromagnetic
(d) None of these
Ans : a
9. The current flowing in an electrical circuit is due to the existence of
(a) mmf
(b) emf
(c) Resistance
(d) Reluctance
Ans : b
10. The magnetic flux flow through a magnetic circuit is due to
(a) mmf
(b) emf
(c) Resistance
(d) Reluctance
Ans : a
11. The on-line UPS is also called as
a. Stand-by UPS
b. Line Interactive UPS
c. Off line UPS
d. Current line UPS
Ans. b
12. ________ is used to convert alternating current to direct current.
a. Transformer
b. Diode
c. Resistor
d. Transistor
Ans. b
13. The supply voltage varies sinusoid ally and has a frequency __________ Hz.
a. 60
b. 50
c. 20
d. 10
Ans. b
14. Expression for magneto-motive force is
(a) N/I
(b) 1/NI
(c) I/N
(d) IN
Ans : d
15. Unit of mmf is
(a) Ampere /Volt
(b) Ampere- turns
(c) Volt
(d) Volt/Ampere
Ans : b
16. Magnetic field strength is equal to
(a) mmf. L
(b) L/ mmf
(c) mmf/ L
(d) 1/mmf.L
Ans : c
17. Peak inverse voltage of bridge rectifier is as that of centre-tap circuit.
a. Same
b. Twice
c. Half
d. Four times
Ans. c
18. Peak Resistance of the diode is increased when
a. Forward biased
b. Reverse biased
c. Both forward and reverse biased
d. Either a or b
Ans. b
19. The number of lines of force passing through the secondary coil S when unit current changes in the primary coil P are called
(a) Self inductance
(b) Mutual inductance
(c) Self induction
(d) Mutual induction
Ans : c
20. Unit of flux
(a) Amp- turns
(b) Weber
(c) Volts
(d) Amps
Ans : b

RRB Junior engineer(electrical) Model Questions

1. The frequency of DC current
(a) Equal to voltage magnitude
(b) 0
(c) Double of AC frequency
(d) 50 HZ
Ans : b
2. The current flowing in a purely inductive circuit of 30 mH on application of 230 V,
50 Hz single phase supply is 24.4 A. If the frequency of the applied voltage is
increased to 100 Hz the current flowing in the same circuit will be
(a) 24.4 A
(b) 48.8 A
(c) 12.2 A
(d) 6.1 A
Ans : c
3. Find the total resistance when two 3 Ohm resistances are connected in parallel.
(a) 1.11 ohms
(b) 1.5 ohms
(c) 0.707 ohms
(d) 1.23 ohms
Ans : b
4. Voltage drop in a resistance given by
(a) mmf/reluctance
(b) IR
(c) I/R
(d) VI
Ans : b
5. Off-line converter, SMPS has
a. AC input and dc output
b .DC input and dc output
c. AC input and ac output
d. None
Ans. a
6. Filter circuits are constructed by means of
a. Diode
b. Resistors
c. Transformers
d. Capacitor and inductors
Ans. d
7. Resistance of the diode is decreased when
a. Forward biased
b. Reverse biased
c. Both forward and reverse biased
d. Either a or b
Ans. a
8. In earlier time is used for voltage regulation.
a. Diode
b. Transistors
c. Vacuum tubes and glow bulbs
d. SMPS
Ans. c
9. is the equipment used during power failure.
a. Rectifier
b. Voltage regulators
c. UPS
d. SMPS
Ans. c
10. Peak factor of the sine wave is equal to
(a) 0.901
(b) 1.414
(c) 1.1
(d) 1.11
Ans :b
11. The amplitude of current of full wave rectified sinusoidal wave is 80 A, its average
value will be
(a) 25.44A
(b) 80A
(c) 40A
(d) 56.56A
Ans : a
12.Find the total current supplied to the lamp rated 100w .when supply voltage is 200 v.
(a) 1.75A
(b) 2A
(c) 0.5A
(d) 1A
(e) Ans : c
13. The power factor of a inductive circuit is
(a) Lagging
(b) Leading
(c) Zero lagging
(d) Unity
Ans : a
14. The power factor of a purely capacitive circuit is always
(a) Lagging
(b) Leading
(c) Unity
(d) Zero lagging
Ans : b
15. The overall circuit power factor of a RLC series circuit is found to be 0.898 lagging. The nature of the resultant circuit is
(a) Resistive
(b) Inductive
(c) Capacitive
(d) None of these
Ans : b
16. The maximum, rms and average value of a periodic current wave form is 100 A,
64.42A and 57.5A, respectively. The peak factor of this wave is
(a) 0.644
(b) 1.552
(c) 1.12
(d) None of these
Ans : b
17. In a parallel resistance circuit
(a) Power is same in all resistance
(b) Current is same in all resistance
(c) Voltage is same in all resistance
(d) Resistances are same
Ans : c
18. Find the total resistance when 2 Ohm and 4 Ohm resistances are in parallel.
(a) 1.33 Ohms
(b) 0.33 Ohms
(c) 2.33 Ohms
(d) 1 Ohm
Ans : a
19. Expression for mmf in terms of field strength is
(a) HI
(b) H/I
(c) HL
(d) H/L
Ans : c
20. is the property of magnetic which opposes the flow of flux through it.
(a) Resistance
(b) MMF
(c) Reluctance
(d) emf
Ans : c
21. is the property of electrical conductor which oppose the flow of current through it
(a) Reluctance
(b) emf
(c) mmf
(d) Resistance
Ans : d
22. Reluctance is expressed in
(a) Ampere Weber
(b) Ohm
(c) Ampere/Weber
(d) Volt/Ampere
Ans : c
23. Reciprocal of reluctance is termed as
(a) Conductance
(b) Permenance
(c) Permeability
(d) None of these
Ans : b
24. Ohm’s law for electric circuit will be
(a) emf= current/resistance
(b) emf= current X resistance
(c) emf= resistance/current
(d) emf= 1/( resistance X current)
Ans : b
25. Ohm’s law for magnetic circuit will be
(a) mmf= flux /resistance
(b) flux= mmf X resistance
(c) reluctance = mmf/ flux
(d) Resistance= mmf X flux
Ans : c

Sunday, February 20, 2011

RRB Engineering Solved Questions


1. A parabolic curve introduced between straight and a circular curve or between two branches of a compound curve for ease, comfort and safety of movement of trains on curve is called:
(a) Spur curve (b) Transition curve
(c) Summit curve (d) Valley curve
Ans : B

2. The staggered rails joints are usually provided on:
(a) Bridge (b) Curves (c) Branching (d) Tangents
Ans : B

3. The track capacity can be increased by:
(a) Faster movement of trains on the track
(b) By using more powerful engines
(c) All the above
(d) None of the above
Ans : C

4. The railway station at which a track line meets a main line is called:
(a) terminal station (b) flag station
(c) way side station (d) junction station
Ans : D

5. The limiting value of super elevation of board gauge in Indian Railways is:
(a) 16.50 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 10 cm
Ans : A

6. The chart used for recording the condition of track is known as:
(a) Rolling chart (b) Track chart
(c) Hallade chart (d) Vibro chart
Ans: C

7. The most common system of signaling in India is the …… system.
(a) automatic block (b) section clear system
(c) absolute block (d) pilot guard system
Ans : C

8. The feeder gauge …. is commonly used for feeding raw materials to big Government manufacturing concerns as well as to private factories such as steel plants, oil refineries, sugar factories etc.
(a) 0.6096 m (b) 0.792 m (c) 1m (d) 1.676 m
Ans : A

9. Which one of the following bolts is not used in rail track:
(a) Fang bolt (b) Eye bolt (c) Rag bolt (d) Fish bolt
Ans : B

10. The gradient which requires one or more additional locomotive for hauling the load over the gradient is called:
(a) Up-gradient (b) Pusher gradient
(c) Steep gradient (d) Momentum gradient
Ans : B

11. Points and crossings are provided for change of ….on permanent ways.
(a) gauge (b) direction and gradient
(c) direction (d) gradient
Ans : C

12. In locomotive ‘hunting’ is:
(a) Movement of locomotive in vertical plane perpendicular to its movement along the track
(b) Sinuous path taken by engine as against the alignment of the track
(c) Motion after brakes have been applied
(d) Combination of A and B above
Ans : D

13. The rails which get battered due to action of wheels over the end of the rails are called:
(a) Hogged rails (b) Roaring rails
(c) Creep rails (d) Bucking rails
Ans : A

14. In broad gauge, the clear horizontal distance between the inner faces of two parallel rails forming the track is:
(a) 1 m (b) 1.676 m (c) 0.6096 m (d) 0.792 m
Ans : B

15. As per Indian standard, the recommended width of ballast section at foot level of rails for broad gauge tracks should be:
(a) 4.38 m (b) 3.35 m (c) 1.83 m (d) 2.25 m
Ans : B

16. The minimum length of a passenger platform for broad gauge railway should not be less than:
(a) 305 m (b) 183 m (c) 495 m (d) 250 m
Ans : A

17. Generally the shape of fish plate is:
(a) elliptical (b) bone shaped (c) circular (d) rectangular
Ans : B

18. For wooden sleepers, size of the ballast should be:
(a) 2.54 cm (b) 10.16 cm (c) 3.8 cm (d) 5.1 cm
Ans : C

69. The length of track under the control of a Ganger is:
(a) 10 to 15 Km (b) 5 to 6 KM
(c) 3 to 5 KM (d) 1 to 2 KM
Ans : B

20. The maximum rising gradient which is provided keeping the power of locomotive in view, is called
(a) Momentum gradient (b) Pusher gradient
(c) Down gradient (d) Ruling gradient
Ans : D

21. The latest system of signaling introduced is:
(a) C.T.C. system (b) pilot guard system
(c) section clear system (d) automatic block system
Ans : A

22. Detonating signals are used:
(a) for noisy engines
(b) during foggy and cloudy weather
(c) for deaf drivers
(d) not now, were in use in nineteenth century only
Ans : B

23. The number of fish bolts used for joining the rails with the help of fish plates, is generally:
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 6
Ans : A

24. The Railways provided underground at a depth of about 18 m or more are called:
(a) Mono railway (b) Underground railway
(c) Railway (d) Tube railway
Ans : D

25. The art of providing an outward slope of …. to the treads of wheels of rolling stock is known as coning of wheels.
(a) 1 in 30 (b) 1 in 10 (c) 1 in 4 (d) 1 in 20
Ans : D

26. The process of connecting a track length by an electric circuit is known as track circuiting and the sleepers which are suitable for it are:
(a) cast iron sleepers (b) steel sleepers
(c) wooden sleepers (d) all above are suitable
Ans : C

27. The movable tapered end of the tongue rail is known as:
(a) heel of switch (b) toe of switch
(c) stretcher bar (d) throw of switch
Ans : B

28. The yard where trains and other loads are received, sorted out, trains formed and dispatched onwards are known as:
(a) locomotive yard (b) goods yard
(c) marshalling yard (d) station yard
Ans : C

29. Wider gauge permits:
(a) sleeper gradients (b) low axle load
(c) higher operating speeds (d) sharp curves
Ans : C

30. Which one of the following is expected to have shorter life?
(a) Steam engine (b) Diesel engine
(c) Electric engine (d) Shunting engine
And : B

31. The movable end of the tapered rail, by means of which the flanged wheels of the train are diverted from one track to another is known as:
(a) Toe (b) Stud (c) Heel (d) Flare
Ans : A

32. The creep in rails is measured in:
(a) cm/kg (b) cm (c) Kg/cm (d) kg cm
Ans : B

33. When a rail loses its weight by 5%, it should be renewed and the old one can be used on unimportant tracks, but the rails which have lost their weight by more than …., should not be used on any track under any circumstances.
(a) 8% (b) 33.3% (c) 10% (d) 20%
Ans : C

34. In railways, super elevation is provided to:
(a) facilitate drainage
(b) counteract the centrifugal push
(c) counteract the centripetal pull
(d) have all the effects mentioned above
Ans : B

35. The additional track connected to main line at both of its ends is called:
(a) running line (b) loop line
(c) main line (d) none are correct
Ans : B

36. The rails which help in channelising the wheels in their proper routes are known as:
(a) Guard rails (b) Wing rails? (c) Check rails (d) Lead rails
Ans : B

37. The shape of wheels of rolling stock is:
(a) Tapered with flange on outside
(b) Parallel with flange on inside
(c) Tapered with flange on inside
(d) Parallel with flange on outside
Ans : C

38. The maximum gradient for broad gauge in station yards in Indian Railways is:
(a) 1 in 100 (b) 1 in 1000 (c) 1in 200 (d) 1 in 400
Ans : D

39. The force which resists the forward movement and speed of train is called:
(a) Track modulus (b) Hauling resistance
(c) friction (d) Tractive resistance
Ans : D

4. The tractive resistance of the route in railways as compared to roadways will be:
(a) same (b) more (c) low (d) not comparable
Ans : C

41. Sand is used as ballast incase of:
(a) steel sleepers
(b) wooden sleepers
(c) reinforced concrete sleepers
(d) cast iron sleepers
Ans : D

42. Arm type fixed signals, fitted on a vertical post fixed at the side of a track, are called:
(a) Warner signals (b) Starter signals
(c) Semaphore signals (d) Cab signals
Ans : C

43. The Railway provided just below the ground level are called:
(a) Tube railway (b) Underground railway
(c) Mono railway (d) Railway
Ans : B

44. When a railway line crosses a valley, a ridge like structure consisting of a series of piers, piles or trestles on which steel girders are placed and which is constructed usually for small spans is known as:
(a) Bridge (b) Tunnel (c) Viaduct (d) Aqueduct
Ans : C

45. Creeping of rails will be reduced by using:
(a) Bearing plates (b) Spikes (c) Chairs (d) Anchors
Ans : D

46. The railway track from which a train is to be diverted is called:
(a) branch track (b) points and crossing
(c) main or through track (d) all above
Ans : C

47. An expansion gap of …. is usually kept between the adjoining rail ends to allow for expansion of rail, due to variation in temperature.
(a) 1 to 3 mm (b) 10 to 15 mm
(c) 6 to 8 mm (d) 3 to 5 mm
Ans : C

48. Generally the weight/metre of the rails used in broad gauge is:
(a) 55 kg (b) 45 kg (c) 35 kg (d) 65 kg
Ans : A

49. A dynamometer car is used for:
(a) Tourists (b) Dinning facilities
(c) Inspection of administrative officers
(d) Recording the condition of track
Ans : D

50. Which of the following is not a part of rail engine?
(a) Tender (b) Stream turbine (c) Boiler (d) Fire box
Ans : B

Monday, February 7, 2011

RRB JUNIOR ENGINEERS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Railway Engineering Exam Solved Questions:


1. The limiting value of super elevation of board gauge in Indian Railways is:
(a) 16.50 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 10 cm
Ans : A

2. Which of the following is not a part of rail engine?
(a) Tender (b) Stream turbine (c) Boiler (d) Fire box
Ans : B

3. The staggered rails joints are usually provided on:
(a) Bridge (b) Curves (c) Branching (d) Tangents
Ans : B

4. In broad gauge, the clear horizontal distance between the inner faces of two parallel rails forming the track is:
(a) 1 m (b) 1.676 m (c) 0.6096 m (d) 0.792 m
Ans : B

5. Generally the shape of fish plate is:
(a) elliptical (b) bone shaped (c) circular (d) rectangular
Ans : B

6. The track capacity can be increased by:
(a) Faster movement of trains on the track
(b) By using more powerful engines
(c) All the above
(d) None of the above
Ans : C

7. Detonating signals are used:
(a) for noisy engines
(b) during foggy and cloudy weather
(c) for deaf drivers
(d) not now, were in use in nineteenth century only
Ans : B

8. Wider gauge permits:
(a) sleeper gradients (b) low axle load
(c) higher operating speeds (d) sharp curves
Ans : C

9. The railway station at which a track line meets a main line is called:
(a) terminal station (b) flag station
(c) way side station (d) junction station
Ans : D

10. Points and crossings are provided for change of ….on permanent ways.
(a) gauge (b) direction and gradient
(c) direction (d) gradient
Ans : C

11. The chart used for recording the condition of track is known as:
(a) Rolling chart (b) Track chart
(c) Hallade chart (d) Vibro chart
Ans: C

12. The most common system of signaling in India is the …… system.
(a) automatic block (b) section clear system
(c) absolute block (d) pilot guard system
Ans : C

13. The feeder gauge …. is commonly used for feeding raw materials to big Government manufacturing concerns as well as to private factories such as steel plants, oil refineries, sugar factories etc.
(a) 0.6096 m (b) 0.792 m (c) 1m (d) 1.676 m
Ans : A

14. A parabolic curve introduced between straight and a circular curve or between two branches of a compound curve for ease, comfort and safety of movement of trains on curve is called:
(a) Spur curve (b) Transition curve
(c) Summit curve (d) Valley curve
Ans : B

15. The railway track from which a train is to be diverted is called:
(a) branch track (b) points and crossing
(c) main or through track (d) all above
Ans : C

16. An expansion gap of …. is usually kept between the adjoining rail ends to allow for expansion of rail, due to variation in temperature.
(a) 1 to 3 mm (b) 10 to 15 mm
(c) 6 to 8 mm (d) 3 to 5 mm
Ans : C

17. Which one of the following bolts is not used in rail track:
(a) Fang bolt (b) Eye bolt (c) Rag bolt (d) Fish bolt
Ans : B

18. The gradient which requires one or more additional locomotive for hauling the load over the gradient is called:
(a) Up-gradient (b) Pusher gradient
(c) Steep gradient (d) Momentum gradient
Ans : B

19. In locomotive ‘hunting’ is:
(a) Movement of locomotive in vertical plane perpendicular to its movement along the track
(b) Sinuous path taken by engine as against the alignment of the track
(c) Motion after brakes have been applied
(d) Combination of A and B above
Ans : D

20. The rails which get battered due to action of wheels over the end of the rails are called:
(a) Hogged rails (b) Roaring rails
(c) Creep rails (d) Bucking rails
Ans : A

21. As per Indian standard, the recommended width of ballast section at foot level of rails for broad gauge tracks should be:
(a) 4.38 m (b) 3.35 m (c) 1.83 m (d) 2.25 m
Ans : B

22. The minimum length of a passenger platform for broad gauge railway should not be less than:
(a) 305 m (b) 183 m (c) 495 m (d) 250 m
Ans : A

23. For wooden sleepers, size of the ballast should be:
(a) 2.54 cm (b) 10.16 cm (c) 3.8 cm (d) 5.1 cm
Ans : C

24. The length of track under the control of a Ganger is:
(a) 10 to 15 Km (b) 5 to 6 KM
(c) 3 to 5 KM (d) 1 to 2 KM
Ans : B

5. The maximum rising gradient which is provided keeping the power of locomotive in view, is called
(a) Momentum gradient (b) Pusher gradient
(c) Down gradient (d) Ruling gradient
Ans : D

26. The latest system of signaling introduced is:
(a) C.T.C. system (b) pilot guard system
(c) section clear system (d) automatic block system
Ans : A

27. The maximum gradient for broad gauge in station yards in Indian Railways is:
(a) 1 in 100 (b) 1 in 1000 (c) 1in 200 (d) 1 in 400
Ans : D

28. The force which resists the forward movement and speed of train is called:
(a) Track modulus (b) Hauling resistance
(c) friction (d) Tractive resistance
Ans : D

29. The number of fish bolts used for joining the rails with the help of fish plates, is generally:
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 6
Ans : A

30. The Railways provided underground at a depth of about 18 m or more are called:
(a) Mono railway (b) Underground railway
(c) Railway (d) Tube railway
Ans : D

31. The creep in rails is measured in:
(a) cm/kg (b) cm (c) Kg/cm (d) kg cm
Ans : B

32. The art of providing an outward slope of …. to the treads of wheels of rolling stock is known as coning of wheels.
(a) 1 in 30 (b) 1 in 10 (c) 1 in 4 (d) 1 in 20
Ans : D

33. The process of connecting a track length by an electric circuit is known as track circuiting and the sleepers which are suitable for it are:
(a) cast iron sleepers (b) steel sleepers
(c) wooden sleepers (d) all above are suitable
Ans : C

34. The yard where trains and other loads are received, sorted out, trains formed and dispatched onwards are known as:
(a) locomotive yard (b) goods yard
(c) marshalling yard (d) station yard
Ans : C

35. Which one of the following is expected to have shorter life?
(a) Steam engine (b) Diesel engine
(c) Electric engine (d) Shunting engine
And : B

36. The movable end of the tapered rail, by means of which the flanged wheels of the train are diverted from one track to another is known as:
(a) Toe (b) Stud (c) Heel (d) Flare
Ans : A

37. When a rail loses its weight by 5%, it should be renewed and the old one can be used on unimportant tracks, but the rails which have lost their weight by more than …., should not be used on any track under any circumstances.
(a) 8% (b) 33.3% (c) 10% (d) 20%
Ans : C

38. A dynamometer car is used for:
(a) Tourists (b) Dinning facilities
(c) Inspection of administrative officers
(d) Recording the condition of track
Ans : D

39. When a railway line crosses a valley, a ridge like structure consisting of a series of piers, piles or trestles on which steel girders are placed and which is constructed usually for small spans is known as:
(a) Bridge (b) Tunnel (c) Viaduct (d) Aqueduct
Ans : C

40. The movable tapered end of the tongue rail is known as:
(a) heel of switch (b) toe of switch
(c) stretcher bar (d) throw of switch
Ans : B

41. In railways, super elevation is provided to:
(a) facilitate drainage
(b) counteract the centrifugal push
(c) counteract the centripetal pull
(d) have all the effects mentioned above
Ans : B

42. The rails which help in channelising the wheels in their proper routes are known as:
(a) Guard rails (b) Wing rails? (c) Check rails (d) Lead rails
Ans : B

43. The shape of wheels of rolling stock is:
(a) Tapered with flange on outside
(b) Parallel with flange on inside
(c) Tapered with flange on inside
(d) Parallel with flange on outside
Ans : C

44. The tractive resistance of the route in railways as compared to roadways will be:
(a) same (b) more (c) low (d) not comparable
Ans : C

45. Sand is used as ballast incase of:
(a) steel sleepers
(b) wooden sleepers
(c) reinforced concrete sleepers
(d) cast iron sleepers
Ans : D

46. Arm type fixed signals, fitted on a vertical post fixed at the side of a track, are called:
(a) Warner signals (b) Starter signals
(c) Semaphore signals (d) Cab signals
Ans : C

47. The Railway provided just below the ground level are called:
(a) Tube railway (b) Underground railway
(c) Mono railway (d) Railway
Ans : B

48. Creeping of rails will be reduced by using:
(a) Bearing plates (b) Spikes (c) Chairs (d) Anchors
Ans : D

49. Generally the weight/metre of the rails used in broad gauge is:
(a) 55 kg (b) 45 kg (c) 35 kg (d) 65 kg
Ans : A

50. The additional track connected to main line at both of its ends is called:
(a) running line (b) loop line
(c) main line (d) none are correct
Ans : B

Sunday, January 16, 2011

RRB TECHNICAL QUESTIONS

1. The bent-up length of rail used in front of nose of crossing which help in channelising the train wheels in their proper routes are known as:
(a) lead rail (b) point rail (c) wing rail (d) splice rail
Ans:- C

2.The point up to which the new railway track laid, at any time is called:
(a) terminal (b) station (c) rail-head (d) base
Ans:- C

3.The good quality wood for sleeper is:
(a) Deodar (b) Sheesham (c) Teak (d) Sal
Ans:- C

4.Generally the life of wooden sleepers is taken as:
(a) 2 to 3 years (b) 12 to 15 years
(c) 35 to 50 years (d) 5 to 8 years
Ans:- B

5.The gradual or tapered widening of the flangeway which is formed by bending and splaying the end of check rail or wing rail away from the gauge line is known as:
(a) Flare (b) Toe (c) Heel (d) Loop
Ans:- A

6.The minimum height of embankment above the highest flood mark in the area should be:
(a) zero cm (b) 30 cm (c) 100 cm (d) 60 cm
Ans:- D

7.The recommended depth of ballast cushion on a curved portion of a track is provided under the ........ edge of the sleeper.
(a) upper (b) middle (c) inner (d) outer
Ans:- C

8. An outward slope provided on the tread of the wheel is:
(a) 1 in 5 (b) 1 in 10 (c) 1 in 20 (d) 1 in 25
Ans:- C

9.The granular material spread on the formation of a railway track for the sleepers to rest upon is known as:
(a) anchors (b) ballast (c) subgrade (d) chairs
Ans:- B

10.Bone shaped section of fish plate is commonly used for connecting:
(a) double headed rails (b) flat footed rails
(c) bull headed rails (d) all above are correct
Ans:- B

11.The members laid transversely under the rails for supporting and fixing them at the gauge distance apart are known as:
(a) fastenings (b) sleepers (c) ballast (d) fish plate
Ans:- B

12.The bottom width of foot in a flat footed rail is:
(a) 78.6 mm (b) 136.5 mm (c) 66.7 mm (d) 70 mm
Ans:- B

13.The rectangular pits in which wheels of the locomotives are taken out for repairs, are known as:
(a) Track pits (b) Inspection pits
(c) Drop pits (d) Siding pits
Ans:- C

14. The wheels are coned to prevent from rubbing the inside face of the rail head and to prevent lateral movement of the axle with its wheels. The slope of cone is:
(a) 1 in 5 (b) 1 in 20 (c) 1 in 10 (d) 1 in 15
Ans:- B

15. Gauge is the distance measured in place of the between which faces of two parallel rails in a track.
(a) inner faces
(b) centre line of one rail to inner face of other rail
(c) centre lines (d) outer faces
Ans:- A

16. Most significant which imposes limitations in raising the high speeds is:
(a) adhesion of wheels (b) resistance due to oscillations
(c) flange resistance (d) air or wind resistance
Ans:- A

17. The rails are welded by:
(a) Thermit welding (b) Gas welding
(c) Arc welding (d) MIG welding
Ans:- A

18. Steel sleepers are ..... shaped in section.
(a) oval (b) rectangular (c) trough (d) semi-spherical
Ans:- C

19. In India generally the sleeper density of sleepers per rail length used is:
(a) 18 (b) 30 (c) 12 (d) 24
Ans:- A

20. The extra rails provided over bridge to prevent damage and danger in case of derailment on the bridge are known as:
(a) Stock rails (b) Guard rails (c) Check rails (d) Wing rails
Ans:- B

21. The phenomenon of misalignment of rails due to temperature change is known as:
(a) cropping (b) creeping (c) bulging (d) buckling
Ans:- D

22. Creep is the ..... movement of rails.
(a) longitudinal (b) diagonal (c) horizontal (d) vertical
Ans:- A

23. Ballast best suited to steel sleepers is:
(a) sand (b) Gravel (c) Quartzite (d) All the above
Ans:- C

24. The section of a rail is decided on the basis of:
(a) Type of rails (b) Spacing of the sleepers
(c) Speed of trains (d) All of the above
Ans:- D

25. While preparing sub-grade of a railway line, the grubbing operation means:
(a) checking of subgrade
(b) filling or cutting of earth work in railway subgrade
(c) compaction and consolidation of earth work
(d) removal and disposal of stumps and roots trees
Ans:- D

26. The sinuous path taken by an engine as against the alignment of the track is known as:
(a) Rolling motion (b) Nosing motion
(c) Lurching motion (d) Vibration
Ans:- B

27. The mechanical device which transfer chemical energy of fuel into mechanical energy in the form of motion is called:
(a) rolling stock (b) railway (c) wagon (d) locomotive
Ans:- D

28. Integrated coach factory is located in:
(a) Chennai (b) Bangalore (c) Jamshedpur (d) Mumbai
Ans:- A

29. C.T.C. stands for:
(a) Critical Track Control
(b) Critical Traffic Channeliser
(c) Centralised Traffic Control
(d) None of these
Ans:- C

30. To reduce the intensity of pressure particularly on soft variety of sleepers, a rectangular plate is introduced between the rails and the sleepers. This is known as:
(a) Fish plate (b) Chair
(c) Saddle plate (d) Bearing plate
Ans:- D

31. Generally the rail sections used in India is:
(a) flat footed (b) double headed
(c) bull headed (d) all above
Ans:- A

32. The arrangement consisting of three tracks used for changing the direction of engine is called:
(a) three ladder track (b) turn table
(c) three throw switch (d) triangle
Ans:- B

33. The length of a wooden sleeper for broad gauge track is:
(a) 1.83 m (b) 1.52 m (c) 2.74 m (d) 1.676 m
Ans:- C

34. The technical officer of the rank of sectional officer in the maintenance organisation of Indian Railways is called:
(a) Permanent Way Inspector
(b) Gangmate
(c) Assistant Permanent Way Inspector
(d) None of these are correct
Ans:- C

35. The depth of ballast section under sleeper for broad gauge track as per Indian standard should be:
(a) 250 to 300 mm (b) 200 to 250 mm
(c) 150 to 200 mm (d) 150 mm
Ans:- B

36. The completed and finished railway line on which wheeled vehicles are drawn by locomotive is known as:
(a) steel way (b) rails (c) railway (d) permanent way
Ans:- D

37. The horse power to weight ratio steam engine is generally of the order of:
(a) 10-15 kg/HP (b) 60-80 kg/HP
(c) 20-30 kg/HP (d) 100-150 kg/HP
Ans:- B

38. The cause of formation of kinks in a rail is:
(a) Loose packing at joints
(b) Defect in gauge and alignment
(c) Defect in cross level joints
(d) Any of the above
Ans:- D

39. The horizontal distance from the material depot to the rail head is called:
(a) lift (b) site distance (c) rail-head (d) lead
Ans:- D

40. On curves, to counteract the effect of centrifugal force, the level of outer rail is raised above the inner rail by a certain amount. This is called:
(a) Track gradient (b) Track slope
(c) Super elevation (d) Horizontal gradient
Ans:- C

41. The measure of stiffness of track required to produce a unit depression in the track is known as:
(a) Tractive force (b) Load capacity
(c) Gauge (d) Track modulus
Ans:- D

42. The head of a gang in maintenance organisation of railway is called:
(a) P.W.I (b) Keyman (c) Ganger (d) A.P.W.I
Ans:- C

43. The fixed rail in a railway track against which the tongue rail fits s known as:
(a) wing rail (b) stock rail (c) lead rail (d) point rail
Ans:- B

44. The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge track in India is:
(a) 19.2 m (b) 25.6 m (c) 11.8 m (d) 12.8 m
Ans:- D

45. The thickness of fish plate generally used in Indian Railway is:
(a) 16 mm (b) 10 mm (c) 25 mm (d) 20 mm
Ans:- D

46. Thermal efficiency of a diesel engine may be expected to be in the range of:
(a) 50-65% (b) 25-35% (c) 15-20% (d) 10-15%
Ans:- B

47. Wear on top or head of rail occurs due to:
(a) Abrasion of rolling wheels
(b) Heavy axle load
(c) Constant brake application
(d) Any or all of the above
Ans:- D

48. Any movement of the locomotive in different planes, e.g., vertical, longitudinal, transversal etc., is known as:
(a) Oscillating motion (b) Lurching motion
(c) Shutting motion (d) Vibration
Ans:- A

49. In rainy season the dust in the ballast becomes mud and comes up by suction from below the rail joint. Such joint is called:
(a) Wet joint (b) Water joint
(c) Pumping joint (d) Blowing joint
Ans:- C

50. Accidents can be avoided by adopting:
(a) interlocking (b) C.T.C. system
(c) pilot guard system (d) A.T.C. system
Ans:- A

RRB ELECTRICAL SIGNAL MAINTAINER SOLVED PAPER

FOR RRB ELECTRICAL SIGNAL MAINTAINER SOLVED PAPER CLICK HERE

Wednesday, October 27, 2010

RRB TECHNICAL EXAM PAPER

Railway Engineering

1. The bent-up length of rail used in front of nose of crossing which help in channelising the train wheels in their proper routes are known as:

(a) lead rail (b) point rail (c) wing rail (d) splice rail

Ans:- C

2.The point up to which the new railway track laid, at any time is called:

(a) terminal (b) station (c) rail-head (d) base

Ans:- C

3.The good quality wood for sleeper is:

(a) Deodar (b) Sheesham (c) Teak (d) Sal

Ans:- C

4.Generally the life of wooden sleepers is taken as:

(a) 2 to 3 years (b) 12 to 15 years

(c) 35 to 50 years (d) 5 to 8 years

Ans:- B

5.The gradual or tapered widening of the flangeway which is formed by bending and splaying the end of check rail or wing rail away from the gauge line is known as:

(a) Flare (b) Toe (c) Heel (d) Loop

Ans:- A

6.The minimum height of embankment above the highest flood mark in the area should be:

(a) zero cm (b) 30 cm (c) 100 cm (d) 60 cm

Ans:- D

7.The recommended depth of ballast cushion on a curved portion of a track is provided under the ........ edge of the sleeper.

(a) upper (b) middle (c) inner (d) outer

Ans:- C

8. An outward slope provided on the tread of the wheel is:

(a) 1 in 5 (b) 1 in 10 (c) 1 in 20 (d) 1 in 25

Ans:- C

9.The granular material spread on the formation of a railway track for the sleepers to rest upon is known as:

(a) anchors (b) ballast (c) subgrade (d) chairs

Ans:- B

10.Bone shaped section of fish plate is commonly used for connecting:

(a) double headed rails (b) flat footed rails

(c) bull headed rails (d) all above are correct

Ans:- B

11.The members laid transversely under the rails for supporting and fixing them at the gauge distance apart are known as:

(a) fastenings (b) sleepers (c) ballast (d) fish plate

Ans:- B

12.The bottom width of foot in a flat footed rail is:

(a) 78.6 mm (b) 136.5 mm (c) 66.7 mm (d) 70 mm

Ans:- B

13.The rectangular pits in which wheels of the locomotives are taken out for repairs, are known as:

(a) Track pits (b) Inspection pits

(c) Drop pits (d) Siding pits

Ans:- C

14. The wheels are coned to prevent from rubbing the inside face of the rail head and to prevent lateral movement of the axle with its wheels. The slope of cone is:

(a) 1 in 5 (b) 1 in 20 (c) 1 in 10 (d) 1 in 15

Ans:- B

15. Gauge is the distance measured in place of the between which faces of two parallel rails in a track.

(a) inner faces

(b) centre line of one rail to inner face of other rail

(c) centre lines (d) outer faces

Ans:- A

16. Most significant which imposes limitations in raising the high speeds is:

(a) adhesion of wheels (b) resistance due to oscillations

(c) flange resistance (d) air or wind resistance

Ans:- A

17. The rails are welded by:

(a) Thermit welding (b) Gas welding

(c) Arc welding (d) MIG welding

Ans:- A

18. Steel sleepers are ..... shaped in section.

(a) oval (b) rectangular (c) trough (d) semi-spherical

Ans:- C

19. In India generally the sleeper density of sleepers per rail length used is:

(a) 18 (b) 30 (c) 12 (d) 24

Ans:- A

20. The extra rails provided over bridge to prevent damage and danger in case of derailment on the bridge are known as:

(a) Stock rails (b) Guard rails (c) Check rails (d) Wing rails

Ans:- B

21. The phenomenon of misalignment of rails due to temperature change is known as:

(a) cropping (b) creeping (c) bulging (d) buckling

Ans:- D

22. Creep is the ..... movement of rails.

(a) longitudinal (b) diagonal (c) horizontal (d) vertical

Ans:- A

23. Ballast best suited to steel sleepers is:

(a) sand (b) Gravel (c) Quartzite (d) All the above

Ans:- C

24. The section of a rail is decided on the basis of:

(a) Type of rails (b) Spacing of the sleepers

(c) Speed of trains (d) All of the above

Ans:- D

25. While preparing sub-grade of a railway line, the grubbing operation means:

(a) checking of subgrade

(b) filling or cutting of earth work in railway subgrade

(c) compaction and consolidation of earth work

(d) removal and disposal of stumps and roots trees

Ans:- D

26. The sinuous path taken by an engine as against the alignment of the track is known as:

(a) Rolling motion (b) Nosing motion

(c) Lurching motion (d) Vibration

Ans:- B

27. The mechanical device which transfer chemical energy of fuel into mechanical energy in the form of motion is called:

(a) rolling stock (b) railway (c) wagon (d) locomotive

Ans:- D

28. Integrated coach factory is located in:

(a) Chennai (b) Bangalore (c) Jamshedpur (d) Mumbai

Ans:- A

29. C.T.C. stands for:

(a) Critical Track Control

(b) Critical Traffic Channeliser

(c) Centralised Traffic Control

(d) None of these

Ans:- C

30. To reduce the intensity of pressure particularly on soft variety of sleepers, a rectangular plate is introduced between the rails and the sleepers. This is known as:

(a) Fish plate (b) Chair

(c) Saddle plate (d) Bearing plate

Ans:- D

31. Generally the rail sections used in India is:

(a) flat footed (b) double headed

(c) bull headed (d) all above

Ans:- A

32. The arrangement consisting of three tracks used for changing the direction of engine is called:

(a) three ladder track (b) turn table

(c) three throw switch (d) triangle

Ans:- B

33. The length of a wooden sleeper for broad gauge track is:

(a) 1.83 m (b) 1.52 m (c) 2.74 m (d) 1.676 m

Ans:- C

34. The technical officer of the rank of sectional officer in the maintenance organisation of Indian Railways is called:

(a) Permanent Way Inspector

(b) Gangmate

(c) Assistant Permanent Way Inspector

(d) None of these are correct

Ans:- C

35. The depth of ballast section under sleeper for broad gauge track as per Indian standard should be:

(a) 250 to 300 mm (b) 200 to 250 mm

(c) 150 to 200 mm (d) 150 mm

Ans:- B

36. The completed and finished railway line on which wheeled vehicles are drawn by locomotive is known as:

(a) steel way (b) rails (c) railway (d) permanent way

Ans:- D

37. The horse power to weight ratio steam engine is generally of the order of:

(a) 10-15 kg/HP (b) 60-80 kg/HP

(c) 20-30 kg/HP (d) 100-150 kg/HP

Ans:- B

38. The cause of formation of kinks in a rail is:

(a) Loose packing at joints

(b) Defect in gauge and alignment

(c) Defect in cross level joints

(d) Any of the above

Ans:- D

39. The horizontal distance from the material depot to the rail head is called:

(a) lift (b) site distance (c) rail-head (d) lead

Ans:- D

40. On curves, to counteract the effect of centrifugal force, the level of outer rail is raised above the inner rail by a certain amount. This is called:

(a) Track gradient (b) Track slope

(c) Super elevation (d) Horizontal gradient

Ans:- C

41. The measure of stiffness of track required to produce a unit depression in the track is known as:

(a) Tractive force (b) Load capacity

(c) Gauge (d) Track modulus

Ans:- D

42. The head of a gang in maintenance organisation of railway is called:

(a) P.W.I (b) Keyman (c) Ganger (d) A.P.W.I

Ans:- C

43. The fixed rail in a railway track against which the tongue rail fits s known as:

(a) wing rail (b) stock rail (c) lead rail (d) point rail

Ans:- B

44. The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge track in India is:

(a) 19.2 m (b) 25.6 m (c) 11.8 m (d) 12.8 m

Ans:- D

45. The thickness of fish plate generally used in Indian Railway is:

(a) 16 mm (b) 10 mm (c) 25 mm (d) 20 mm

Ans:- D

46. Thermal efficiency of a diesel engine may be expected to be in the range of:

(a) 50-65% (b) 25-35% (c) 15-20% (d) 10-15%

Ans:- B

47. Wear on top or head of rail occurs due to:

(a) Abrasion of rolling wheels

(b) Heavy axle load

(c) Constant brake application

(d) Any or all of the above

Ans:- D

48. Any movement of the locomotive in different planes, e.g., vertical, longitudinal, transversal etc., is known as:

(a) Oscillating motion (b) Lurching motion

(c) Shutting motion (d) Vibration

Ans:- A

49. In rainy season the dust in the ballast becomes mud and comes up by suction from below the rail joint. Such joint is called:

(a) Wet joint (b) Water joint

(c) Pumping joint (d) Blowing joint

Ans:- C

50. Accidents can be avoided by adopting:

(a) interlocking (b) C.T.C. system

(c) pilot guard system (d) A.T.C. system

Ans:- A

RRB TECHNICAL EXAM QUESTIONS

Fluid Mechanics


1. A single acting reciprocating pump, running at 60 r.p.m, delivers 0.01 m2/sec of water. The area of the piston is 0.05m2 and stroke length is 40 cm. Then theoretical discharge of the pump will be
(a) 0.015 m3/sec (b) 0.02 m3/sec
(c) 0.025 m3/sec (d) 0.03 m3/sec
Ans:- B

2.B. In question (A), the co-efficient of discharge would be
(a) 0.9 (b) 0.8 (c) 0.6 (d) 0.5
Ans:- D

3. In question (A), the slip of the pump would be
(a) 0.02 m3/sec (b) 0.01 m3/sec
(c) 0.005 m3/sec (d) 0.003 m3/sec
Ans:- B

4.The possibility of negative slip in reciprocating pump is when
(a) delivery pipe is short (b) suction pipe is long
(c) pump is running at high speed (d) all of the above
Ans:- D

5. The slip in the reciprocating pump will be negative if
(a) Qth > Qact (b) Qth < Qact
(c) Qth = Qact (d) none of the above
Ans:- B

6. The power required to drive a single acting reciprocating pump is equal to
(a) w.A.L.N / 4500 (b) w.A.L.N.(hs + hd)4500
(c) A.L.N. (hs + hd)/4500 (d) w.L.N/4500
where w = specific weight of water
Ans:- B

7. The rate of flow of water through a double acting reciprocating pump is equal to
(a) A.L.N /60 (b) 2 AL.N/60 (c) A.L.N./2×60 (d) 3 A.L.N./60
Ans:- B

8. The rate of flow of water through a single acting reciprocating pump is equal to
(a) A.L.N /60 (b) 2 AL.N/60 (c) A.L.N./2×60 (d) 3 A.L.N./60
Ans:- A

9. The pump, which works on the principle of water hammer, is known as
(a) centrifugal pump (b) reciprocating pump
(c) hydraulic ram (d) none of the above
Ans:- C

10. The pump which raises water without any external power for its operation, is known as
(a) centrifugal pump (b) reciprocating pump
(c) hydraulic ram (d) hydraulic intensifier
Ans:- C

11. The power at the shaft of a centrifugal pump is 100 KW, and the power available at the impeller is 900 KW. If water horse power is 720 KW, then overall efficiency of the centrifugal pump will be
(a) 90% (b) 80% (c) 75% (d) 72%
Ans:- D

12. In the question (A), the manometric efficiency would be
(a) 90% (b) 80% (c) 75% (d) 72%
Ans:- B

13. In question (A), the mechanical efficiency would be
(a) 90% (b) 80% (c) 75% (d) 72%
Ans:- A

14. The term W.Q.Hm / (75 S.H.P) for a centrifugal pump is known as
(a) mechanical efficiency (b) manometric efficiency
(c) overall efficiency (d) none of the above
Ans:- C

15. If a circular chamber is introduced between the casing and the impeller, then casing is known as
(a) vortex casing (b) volute casing
(c) casing with guide blades (d) none of the above
Ans:- A

16. The rotating part of a turbine is known as
(a) Impeller (b) Guide mechanism
(c) Runner (d) None of the above
Ans:- A

17. The rotating part of a turbine is known as
(a) Impeller (b) Guide mechanism
(c) Runner (d) None of the above
Ans:- C

18. In case of Kaplan turbine, velocity of flow at inlet is
(a) less than that at outlet
(b) more than that at outlet
(c) equal of that at outlet
(d) none of the above
Ans:- C

19.Francis turbine is a
(a) radially inward flow turbine
(b) radially outward flow turbine
(c) axial flow turbine
(d) none of the above
Ans:- A

20. The main advantage of the draft-tube is to convert
(a) pressure energy into kinetic energy
(b) kinetic energy into pressure energy
(c) pressure energy into electrical energy
(d) none of the above
Ans:- B

21. The pressure at the exist of the runner of a reaction turbine is generally
(a) more than atmospheric pressure
(b) equal to atmospheric pressure
(c) less than atmospheric pressure
(d) none of the above
Ans:- C

22.In case of draft tube, are of cross-section of the draft tube
(a) increases from inlet to outlet
(b) decreases from inlet to outlet
(c) remains constant
(d) none of the above
Ans:- A

23. Draft tube is used in case of
(a) Pelton turbine (b) Pelton and Francis turbine
(c) Kaplan and Pelton turbine (d) Francis and Kaplan turbine
Ans:- D

24.The pressure energy goes on changing into kinetic energy in case of
(a) Pelton turbine (b) Francis turbine
(c) Kaplan turbine (d) Francis and Kaplan
Ans:- D

25. A turbine is having specific speed of 400. Then the turbine would be
(a) Kaplan turbine (b) Francis turbine
(c) Pelton turbine (d) None of the above
Ans:- A

26.A turbine is having specific speed as 100. Then the turbine would be
(a) Kaplan turbine (b) Francis turbine
(c) Pelton turbine (d) Steam turbine
Ans:- B

27. The axial flow reaction turbine, in which vanes are fixed to the hub and they are not adjustable, is known as
(a) Kaplan turbine (b) Francis turbine
(c) propeller turbine (d) Pelton turbine
Ans:- C

28.In case reaction turbine, the total head at the inlet of a turbine consists of
(a) pressure energy and kinetic energy
(b) kinetic energy only
(c) pressure energy only
(d) none of the above
Ans:- A

29. In case of reaction turbine, the total head at the inlet of a turbine consists of
(a) pressure energy and kinetic energy
(b) kinetic energy only
(c) pressure energy only
(d) none of the above
Ans:- B

30. Kaplan turbine is a
(a) reaction turbine (b) impulse turbine
(c) radial flow turbine (d) none of the above
Ans:- A

31. Francis turbine is a
(a) reaction turbine (b) impulse turbine
(c) axial flow turbine (d) none of the above
Ans:- A

32. Pelton turbine is a
(a) reaction turbine (b) radial inward flow turbine
(c) impulse turbine (d) axial flow turbine
Ans:- C

33. The relation between overall efficiency. mechanical efficiency and hydraulic efficiency is given by
(a) h0 = hmech / hhyd (b) h0 = hmech / hhyd
(c) h0 = 1.0 / (hmech × hhyd) (d) h0 = hhyd / hmech
Ans:- B

34.The ratio of power at the shaft of a turbine to the power supplied by water at inlet of a turbine is known as
(a) hydraulic efficiency (b) mechanical efficiency
(c) overall efficiency (d) none of the above
Ans:- C

35. The ratio of power available at the shaft of a turbine to the power developed by the runner of the turbine is known as
(a) hydraulic efficiency (b) mechanical efficiency
(c) overall efficiency (d) volumetric efficiency
Ans:- B

36. A jet water of area of cross-section 20 cm2, having a velocity of 20 m/sec strikes a curved plate which is moving with a velocity of 10 m/sec in the direction of the jet. The jet leaves the vane at an angle of 600 to the direction of motion of vane at outlet as shown in Fig. Z3. The relative velocity at inlet will be
(a) 20 m/sec (b) 10 m/sec (c) 15 m/sec (d) 16 m/sec
Ans:- B

37. The velocity of whirl at inlet in the question (A), will be
(a) 20 m/sec (b) 16 m/sec (c) 15 m/sec (d) 10 m/sec
Ans:- A

38. In the FIG Z3, angle f will be
(a) 300 (b) 450 (c) 600 (d) 750
Ans:- C

39. In Fig Z2 shows the velocity triangles triangles at inlet and outlet of a turbine, V1 represents the absolute velocity at inlet and u1 represents vane velocity at inlet. The relative velocity at inlet is represented by
(a) length BD (b) Length AD
(c) length CD (d) length CB
Ans:- D

40. In Fig. Z2 the velocity of whirl at inlet is given by
(a) length DB (b) length AD
(c) length CD (d) length CB
Ans:- B

41. In fig. Z2, angle BAC is known as
(a) vane angle at inlet (b) nozzle angle at inlet
(c) vane angle at outlet (d) none of the above
Ans:- B

42. In fig. Z2, angle BCD is known as
(a) vane angle at inlet (b) nozzle angle at inlet
(c) vane angle at outlet (d) none of the above
Ans:- A

43. A jet water of area 40 cm2 moving with a velocity of 10 m/sec strikes normally a fixed vertical plate. The force exerted by the jet on the plate in the direction of jet will be
(a) 500 N (b) 400 N (c) 300 N (d) 200 N
Ans:- B

44. Pump is a machine which converts
(a) hydraulic energy to mechanical energy
(b) mechanical energy to hydraulic energy
(c) mechanical energy to electrical energy
(d) none of the above
Ans:- B