RRB PARA MEDICAL EXAM SOLVED PAPER

RRB PARA MEDIACAL STAFF EXAM SOLVED PAPER

RRB Secunderabad Staff Nurse Exam Solved Paper (Exam Held on 08-02-2015)

INDIAN RAILWAY RECRUITMENT OF PARA MEDICAL POSTS

Applications in the common prescribed format are invited from eligible Indian Nationals for filling up  following Para-Medical posts in different Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs) and Zonal Railways  and other Railway organisation. 

1. Staff Nurse : 438 posts in various RRB, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 Grade Pay Rs. 4600/-, Age : 20-40 years
2. Health & Malaria Inspector : 227 posts in various RRB, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 Grade Pay Rs. 4200/-, Age : 18-33 years
3. Pharmacist III : 168 posts in various RRB, Pay Scale : Rs. 5200-20200 Grade Pay Rs. 2800/-, Age : 20-35 years
4. ECG Technician : 06 posts in various RRB, Pay Scale : Rs. 5200-20200 Grade Pay Rs. 2400/-, Age : 18-33 years
5. Radiographer : 25 posts in various RRB, Pay Scale : Rs. 5200-20200 Grade Pay Rs. 2800/-, Age : 18-33 years
6. Lab. Assistant Gr.II : 26 posts in various RRB, Pay Scale : Rs. 5200-20200 Grade Pay Rs. 2000/-, Age : 18-33 years
7. Lab Superintendent Gr.III : 31 posts in various RRB, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 Grade Pay Rs. 4200/-, Age : 18-33 years
8. Haemo Dialysis : 01 post, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 Grade Pay Rs. 4200/-, Age : 20-33 years
9. Cardiology Technician : 04 posts in various RRB, Pay Scale : Rs. 5200-20200 Grade Pay Rs. 2400/-, Age : 18-33 years
10. Audiologist cum Speech Therapist : 01 post, Pay Scale : Rs. 5200-20200 Grade Pay Rs. 2800/-, Age : 18-33 years
11. Physiotherapist : 09 posts in various RRBs, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 Grade Pay Rs. 4200/-, Age : 18-33 years
12. Districts Extension Educator : 02 posts in various RRBs, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 Grade Pay Rs. 4200/-, Age : 22-35 years 
13. Dietician : 03 posts in various RRBs, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 Grade Pay Rs. 4200/-, Age : 18-33 years 
14. Ophthalmic Technician cum Optician : 01 post, Pay Scale : Rs. 5200-20200 Grade Pay Rs. 2400/-, Age : 18-33 years 
15. Male Field Worker : 01 post, Pay Scale : Rs. 5200-20200 Grade Pay Rs. 1900/-, Age : 18-30 years 
16. Dental Hygienist: 01 post, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 Grade Pay Rs. 4200/-, Age : 18-35 years 
17. Optometrist  : 02 posts in various RRBs, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 Grade Pay Rs. 4200/-, Age : 18-33 years 
18. Audiometry Technician : 02 posts in various RRBs, Pay Scale : Rs. 5200-20200 Grade Pay Rs. 4200/-, Age : 18-33 years 
19. X-Ray Technician : 01 post, Pay Scale : Rs. 5200-20200 Grade Pay Rs. 2800/-, Age : 18-33 years 
20. Cath Lab Technician : 01 post, Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 Grade Pay Rs. 4200/-, Age : 18-33 years

How to Apply : Apply online at any RRB website from 01/11/2014 to 01/12/2014  only.

For more Details Click Here

Central Railway, Solapur Division Recruitment of Para Medical Staff

Applications are invited for filling up of Para Medical Staff in Group C on contract basis:

Health Inspector: 01 Post Qualifications: B.Sc. with Chemistry from recognised university one year Diploma of Health / Sanitary Inspector.  Staff Nurse: 04 Posts Qualifications: Certificate as registered Nurse and Mid wife having pass 3 years course in Genl. Nursing & midwifery from a School of Nursing or other institutions recognised in the Indian Nursing council or B.Sc. (Nursing).  Pharmacist: 05 Posts Qualifications: 10+2 in science or its equivalent with two years Diploma in Pharmacy council of India or with State Pharmacy Council. How to Apply: Candidates can attend walk-in-interview at Dr. Kotnis Memorial Central Railway Hospital, Solapur Division. Along with original certificates and attested photo copies of caste, birth and educational / academic qualification certificates work experience along with bio-data and two photographs. Walk-in-interview: 17/09/2013 For more details Click here

RRB PARAMEDICAL EXAM HEALTH INSPECTOR QUESTIONS

1. For education of measles, immunization coverage should be at least
(a) 80% (b) 85% (c) 96% (d) 100%

2. Period of maximum infectivity in mumps is during
(a) incubation period (b) onset of swelling (c) after swelling appears
(d) prodromal period

3. Major epidemics of influenza A occur at intervals of
(a) 1 year (b) 2-3 years (c) 10-15 years (d) 20-25 years

4. The most common source of infection for diphtheria is a
(a) case (b) sub clinical case (c) carrier (d) all of the above

5. Shick test is done in
(a) meningitis (b) diphtheria (c) pertussis (d) polimyelitis
6. Adjuvant present in DPT vaccine is

(a) aluminium phosphate (b) aluminium hydroxide (c) zinc phosphate (d) magnesium
phosphate
7. Recommended site of administration of DPT in infants is

(a) gluteal (b) deltoid (c) lateral aspect of thigh (d) forearm
8. The most severe complications following DPT are due to …….. component

(a) diphtheria (b) pertussis (c) tetanus (d) adjuvant
9. The vaccine usually given to pilgrims to the Middle East is

(a) DPT (b) influenza (c) yellow fever (d) meningitis
10. Best index to estimate case load of T.B. in a community is

(a) incidence of infection (b) prevalence of infection (c) incidence of disease
(d) prevalence of disease
11. Prevalence of T.B. infection in a community is estimated by

(a) tuberculin test (b) sputum microscopy (c) culture (d) chest X-ray
12. The amount of PPD used in mantoux test in India is

(a) 1 TU (b) 5 TU (c) 25 TU (d) 250 TU
13. Result of mantoux test is read after

(a) 6 hours (b) 24 hours (c) 48 hours (d) 72 hours
14. Present day BCG vaccine is supplied as

(a) liquid vaccine (b) freeze dried vaccine (c) both (d) none of the above
15. The diluent used for reconstituting BCG vaccine is

(a) normal saline (b) distilled water (c) dextrose (d) none of the above
16. Reconstituted BCG vaccine should be used with in

(a) 3 hours (b) 6 hours (c) 18 hours (d) 24 hours
17. The age for BCG vaccination is recommended at

(a) birth or at 6th week (b) only 6th week (c) 6-8 weeks (d) within 1 year
18. At the village level sputum for AFB is collected and fixed by

(a) anganwadi worker (b) village health guide (c) health worker male (d) health
worker female
19. Source of most polio infections are

(a) clinical cases (b) sub clinical cases (c) carrier (d) both (b)&(c)
20. Risk factors for development of paralytic polio include

(a) 1/M injections (b) Tonsillectomy (c) DPT (d) all of the above
21. Major route of transmission of Hepatitis A is

(a) Facco oral route (b) parentral route (c) sexual transmission (d) perinatal
transmission
22. Vaccine vial monitor is present on which of these vaccines

(a) BCG (b) DPT (c) OPV (d) Measles
23. Immunity after Hepatitis A lasts for

(a) 6 months (b) 1 year (c) 6 years (d) life long
24. Following methods destroy vibrio cholerae except

(a) boiling (b) drying (c) bleaching powder 1 mg/L (d) cresol
25. Best method of collecting choleric stools for diagnosis is by

(a) rectal catheter (b) rectal swab (c) disinfected stool (d) all of the above
26. All are vaccines included under the Universal Immunization Programme
except

(a) diphtheria (b) pertussis (c) measles (d) MMR
27. The MTP act was passed in the year

(a) 1975 (b) 1971 (c) 1986 (d) 2000
28. All are Anti Rabies vaccine currently used in Kerala except

(a) chick embryo cell vaccine (b) human diploid cell vaccine (c) vero cell
vaccine (d) neural tissue vaccine
29. Annual Parasitic incidence is used to measure the problem of

(a) Filariasis (b) Dengue fever (c) Malaria (d) Japanese encephalitis
30. The causative organism of plague is

(a) Y pestis (b) R. Prowazeki (c) Coryne bacterium (d) Arbovirus
31. Which of these is a Conventional Contraceptive

(a) Combined pill (b) IUD (c) Condom (d) Mini pill
32. Which of these insecticides is used as a space spray

(a) paris green (b) abate (c) pyrethrum (d) mineral oil
33. Chemical ideally used for disinfecting sputum is

(a) cresol (b) dettol (c) savlon (d) phenol
34. Census is carried out at regular intervals of

(a) 5 years (b) 10 years (c) 7 years (d) 15 years
35. Vaccine carrier should ideally have number of ice packs

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
36. The dose of elemental iron in Folifer tablet given to pregnant women
under the RCH programme is

(a) 60 mg (b) 80 mg (c) 50 mg (d) 100 mg
37. Sanitary latrine should be located at least …. feet from source of
contamination

(a) 15 (b) 25 (c) 50 (d) 75
38. For calculating Bacterial index in Leprosy a minimum of ….. sites
should be examined

(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 9
39. Number of Tetanus toxoid doses to be given to an antenatal mother with
last child birth 2 years back is

(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) none
40. As per the Birth and Deaths Registration Act all births are to be
registered with in a period of

(a) 7 days (b) 14 days (c) 21 days (d) 1 month
41. Dengue fever is transmitted by the bite of ……. mosquito

(a) anopheles (b) aedes (c) mansonia (d) culex
42. Route of administration of BCG vaccine is

(a) intramuscular (b) intradermal (c) subcutaneous (d) intrathecal
43. Pasteurisation of milk kills all organisms except

(a) Anthrax (b) M. Tuberculosis (c) Streptococcus (d) Brucella
44. Prevalence of hook worm infection in a community is assessed by

(a) pearl index (b) breteaux index (c) chandler index (d) none of the above
45. The level of iodisation of iodised salt at the consumer level as
specified under the IDD control programme is

(a) 40 ppm (b) 30 ppm (c) 15 ppm (d) 50 ppm
46. All are steps in Primary Prevention of diseases except

(a) promotion of healthy life styles (b) good nutrition (c) immunization (d)
treatment
47. Communicability of measles declines

(a) after onset of fever (b) during prodromal period (c) at the time of eruption
(d) after appearance of rash
48. After effective chlorination of water free residual chlorine should
not be less than

(a) 0.5 mg/L (b) 1 mg/L (c) 50 mg/L (d) 200 mg/L
49. All are side effects of oral contraceptives except

(a) hypertension (b) cervical cancer risk (c) gall bladder disease (d) iron
deficiency anameia
50. World AIDS day is observed on

(a) December 1st (b) January 31st (c) May 1st (d) October 1st
51. Highest source of vitamin A is seen in

(a) Cod liver oil (b) green leafy vegetables (c) papaya (d) carrot
52. Which is a live vaccine

(a) Hepatitis B vaccine (b) Hepatitis A vaccine (c) Oral polio vaccine (d) DPT
vaccine
53. Scurvy is a deficiency disease due to

(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin D (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin B12
54. Number of sputum smears to be taken for confirmation of tuberculosis
under the Revised National Tuberculosis control

programme is

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
55. The target population under the Universal Immunization Programme is

(a) infants and antenatal mothers (b) infants (c) under fives (d) under fives
and antenatal mothers
56. RCH programme was launched in the year

(a) 1997 (b) 1992 (c) 1990 (d) 1998
57. Additional energy requirement to be supplemented for a lactating
mother is

(a) 200 calories (b) 550 calories (c) 350 calories (d) 100 calories
58. Dental caries is caused due to deficiency of

(a) Iodine (b) Iron (c) Fluorine (d) Copper
59. Most ideal equipment for vaccine storage in a PHC is

(a) domestic refrigerator (b) ice lined refrigerator (c) cold box (d) vaccine
carrier
60. Village Health Guide is present in all these states except

(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar (c) Orissa (d) Kerala
61. Route of transmission of pneumonic plague is

(a) Vector (b) Droplet (c) Formite (d) Food
62. Most simple way of data presentation to a common man is

(a) Bar chart (b) Line diagram (c) Pictogram (d) Histogram
63. The best method for operation theatre disinfection is

(a) dettol (b) phenol (c) lysol (d) fromaldehyde
64. Primary schedule of hepatitis B immunization is

(a) 0,1,6 months (b) 1,3,6 months (c) 1,2,12 months (d) 0,1,5 years
65. The control of ….. has led to the eradication of guinea worm disease

(a) mosquito (b) rat flea (c) sand fly (d) cyclops
66. The confirmatory test for paralytic poliomyelitis is a

(a) stool examination (b) CSF examination (c) blood examination (d) nerve
examination
67. The drug given to peripheral health worker under the Actute
Respiratory infection Control Programme is

(a) Tetracycline (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Doxy cycline (d) Chloroquine
68. The fitration technique in modern water treatment plant is

(a) slow sand filter (b) rapid sand filter (c) activated sludge process (d)
double pot method
69. World Health Day is observed every year on

(a) May 9th (b) July 11th (c) April 7th (d) July 1st
70. Health education technique most suited for introducing the correct use
of O.R.S. among Rural mothers is

(a) group discussion (b) flash card (c) demonstration (d) flannel graph
71. All are anti scabies preparations except

(a) BHC (b) permethrin (c) benzyl benzoate (d) malathion
72. All are tests used for bacteriological quality testing of drinking water
except

(a) multiple tube method (b) membrane filtration technique (c) colony count (d)
biological oxygen demand
73. During an epidemic of cholera, wells should be disinfected ideally

(a) Every day (b) 2 days (c) 3 days (d) 1 week
74. All are components of under five clinic except

(a) immunization (b) growth monitoring (c) oral rehydration (d) referral
treatment
75. All are true of prevention of Food Adulteration Act except

(a) prescribes minimum standards (b) is not mandatory

(c) punishment includes imprisonment (d) latest amendment was in the year 1986
76. Physical quality of life index includes all except

(a) infant mortality (b) life expectancy at age one (c) per capita GNP (d)
literacy
77. Incubation period is less than 3 days in all the following except

(a) influenza (b) cholera (c) mumps (d) staphylococcal food poisoning
78. The type of influenza virus causing epidemics every year is

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) Any one of the above
79. The incubation period of Rabies in men is determined by

(a) Site of bite (b) Severity of bite (c) Number of wounds (d) All of the above
80. Noso comial infection means

(a) infection of nose (b) hospital acquired infection (c) notifiable disease (d)
new disease
81. All of the following are mosquito borne diseases except

(a) Malaria (b) Filaria (c) Kysanur forest disease (d) Dengue fever
82. Which is not true of small pox

(a) No animal reservoir (b) No carrier stage (c) No sub-clinical infection (d)
No air borne transmission
83. ORS contains all except

(a) sodium chloride (b) potassium sulphate (c) trisodium citrate (d) glucose
84. The danger zone for bacterial growth in food is

(a) 10-49 degree C (b) 20-49 degree C (c) 10-60 degree C (d) 20-60 degree C
85. Aldehyde test is used for the diagnosis of

(a) Malaria (b) Kala Azar (c) Japanese encephalitis (d) Typhus fever
86. The period from disease initiation to disease detection in chronic
disease is called

(a) incubation period (b) serial interval (c) latent period (d) median period
87. Herd immunity does not protect an individual in

(a) Diphtheria (b) Poliomyelitis (c) Small pox (d) Tetanus
88. Vaccines which should not be frozen include

(a) Typhoid (b) DPT (c) TT (d) All of the above
89. ILR stands for

(a) Income Literacy Ratio (b) Illiteracy- Literacy Ratio

(c) Ice Lined Refrigerator (d) Infant Living Rate
90. Cold chain equipment used at out reach sites is

(a) cold box (b) vaccine carrier (c) ice pack (d) freezer
91. Most heat sensitive vaccine is

(a) BCG (b) Polio (c) Measles (d) DPT
92. Zero dose of polio vaccine means

(a) no vaccination (b) dose before first dose (c) no antibody response (d)
vaccination at mobile camps
93. Pasteurisation of milk is an example disinfection

(a) Pre current (b) Con current (c) Terminal (d) Absolute
94. Boiling for 5-10 minutes kills

(a) bacteria (b) spores (c) virus (d) none of the above
95. All of the following can be sterilized by Auto claving except

(a) gloves (b) culture media (c) plastics (d) linen
96. All are suitable for disinfection of faces and urine except

(a) 8% bleaching powder (b) 1% crude phenol (c) 5% cresol (d) 1-2% formalin
97. Ideally bed pans and urinals are sterilized using

(a) 1% cresol (b) bleaching powder (c) steam (d) all of the above
98. Sputum is best disposed by

(a) burning (b) boiling (c) 5% cresol (d) any of the above
99. Immunity conferred by an attack of small pox is for

(a) 10 years (b) 15 years (c) 20 years (d) life long
100. Which is not true regarding measles

(a) source of infection is a case (b) secondary attack rate is 80%

(c) carries do not occur (d) sub clinical measles not known

Answers:

1 B 11 A 21 A 31 C 41 B 51 A 61 B 71 D 81 C 91 B
2 A 12 A 22 B 32 C 42 A 52 C 62 C 72 D 82 C 92 B
3 D 13 C 23 A 33 A 43 B 53 C 63 D 73 A 83 B 93 A
4 B 14 B 24 D 34 B 44 C 54 C 64 A 74 D 84 C 94 D
5 A 15 A 25 A 35 D 45 C 55 C 65 D 75 B 85 B 95 C
6 C 16 B 26 C 36 C 46 D 56 B 66 A 76 D 86 A 96 D
7 C 17 A 27 B 37 D 47 D 57 B 67 B 77 C 87 B 97 B
8 D 18 A 28 C 38 C 48 A 58 C 68 A 78 B 88 D 98 C
9 C 19 C 29 A 39 C 49 A 59 B 69 C 79 D 89 C 99 D
10C 20 D 30 A 40 C 50 A 60 C 70 C 80 D 90 B 100B

RRB PARAMEDICAL EXAM HEALTH INSPECTOR QUESTION PAPER

1. For education of measles, immunization coverage should be at least
(a) 80%  
(b) 85%  
(c) 96%  
(d) 100%
2. Period of maximum infectivity in mumps is during
(a) incubation period  
(b) onset of swelling  
(c) after swelling appears  
(d) prodromal period
3. Major epidemics of influenza A occur at intervals of
(a) 1 year  
(b) 2-3 years  
(c) 10-15 years  
(d) 20-25 years
5. The most common source of infection for diphtheria is a
(a) case  
(b) sub clinical case  
(c) carrier  
(d) all of the above
5. Shick test is done in
(a) meningitis
(b) diphtheria  
(c) pertussis  
(d) polimyelitis
6. Adjuvant present in DPT vaccine is
(a) aluminium phosphate  
(b) aluminium hydroxide  
(c) zinc phosphate
(d) magnesium phosphate
7. Recommended site of administration of DPT in infants is
(a) gluteal
(b) deltoid  
(c) lateral aspect of thigh  
(d) forearm
8. The most severe complications following DPT are due to …….. component
(a) diphtheria  
(b) pertussis  
(c) tetanus
(d) adjuvant
9. The vaccine usually given to pilgrims to the Middle East is
(a) DPT
(b) influenza  
(c) yellow fever  
(d) meningitis
10. Best index to estimate case load of T.B. in a community is
(a) incidence of infection
(b) prevalence of infection  
(c) incidence of disease
(d) prevalence of disease
11. Prevalence of T.B. infection in a community is estimated by
(a) tuberculin test
(b) sputum microscopy  
(c) culture  
(d) chest X-ray
12. The amount of PPD used in mantoux test in India is
(a) 1 TU  
(b) 5 TU  
(c) 25 TU
(d) 250 TU
13. Result of mantoux test is read after
(a) 6 hours  
(b) 24 hours  
(c) 48 hours  
(d) 72 hours
14. Present day BCG vaccine is supplied as
(a) liquid vaccine
(b) freeze dried vaccine  
(c) both  
(d) none of the above
15. The diluent used for reconstituting BCG vaccine is
(a) normal saline  
(b) distilled water  
(c) dextrose
(d) none of the above
16. Reconstituted BCG vaccine should be used with in
(a) 3 hours
(b) 6 hours  
(c) 18 hours  
(d) 24 hours
17. The age for BCG vaccination is recommended at
(a) birth or at 6th week
(b) only 6th week  
(c) 6-8 weeks  
(d) within 1 year
18. At the village level sputum for AFB is collected and fixed by
(a) anganwadi worker  
(b) village health guide  
(c) health worker male  
(d) health worker female
19. Source of most polio infections are
(a) clinical cases  
(b) sub clinical cases  
(c) carrier  
(d) both (b)&(c)
20. Risk factors for development of paralytic polio include
(a) 1/M injections  
(b) Tonsillectomy
(c) DPT  
(d) all of the above
21. Major route of transmission of Hepatitis A is
(a) Facco oral route  
(b) parentral route  
(c) sexual transmission  
(d) perinatal transmission
22. Vaccine vial monitor is present on which of these vaccines
(a) BCG  
(b) DPT
(c) OPV  
(d) Measles
23. Immunity after Hepatitis A lasts for
(a) 6 months  
(b) 1 year  
(c) 6 years  
(d) life long
24. Following methods destroy vibrio cholerae except
(a) boiling
(b) drying
(c) bleaching powder 1 mg/L  
(d) cresol
25. Best method of collecting choleric stools for diagnosis is by
(a) rectal catheter  
(b) rectal swab  
(c) disinfected stool  
(d) all of the above
26. All are vaccines included under the Universal Immunization Programme except
(a) diphtheria
(b) pertussis  
(c) measles  
(d) MMR
27. The MTP act was passed in the year
(a) 1975
(b) 1971
(c) 1986  
(d) 2000
28. All are Anti Rabies vaccine currently used in Kerala except
(a) chick embryo cell vaccine  
(b) human diploid cell vaccine
(c) vero cell vaccine  
(d) neural tissue vaccine
29. Annual Parasitic incidence is used to measure the problem of
(a) Filariasis  
(b) Dengue fever  
(c) Malaria
(d) Japanese encephalitis
30. The causative organism of plague is
(a) Y pestis
(b) R. Prowazeki  
(c) Coryne bacterium  
(d) Arbovirus
31. Which of these is a Conventional Contraceptive
(a) Combined pill  
(b) IUD
(c) Condom  
(d) Mini pill
32. Which of these insecticides is used as a space spray
(a) paris green  
(b) abate
(c) pyrethrum  
(d) mineral oil
33. Chemical ideally used for disinfecting sputum is
(a) cresol  
(b) dettol  
(c) savlon  
(d) phenol
34. Census is carried out at regular intervals of
(a) 5 years  
(b) 10 years
(c) 7 years  
(d) 15 years
35. Vaccine carrier should ideally have number of ice packs
(a) 1  
(b) 2  
(c) 3  
(d) 4
36. The dose of elemental iron in Folifer tablet given to pregnant women under the RCH programme is
(a) 60 mg  
(b) 80 mg  
(c) 50 mg
(d) 100 mg
37. Sanitary latrine should be located at least …. feet from source of contamination
(a) 15  
(b) 25  
(c) 50  
(d) 75
38. For calculating Bacterial index in Leprosy a minimum of ….. sites should be examined
(a) 4  
(b) 6  
(c) 7  
(d) 9
39. Number of Tetanus toxoid doses to be given to an antenatal mother with last child birth 2 years back is
(a) 2  
(b) 1  
(c) 3  
(d) none
40. As per the Birth and Deaths Registration Act all births are to be registered with in a period of
(a) 7 days  
(b) 14 days
(c) 21 days  
(d) 1 month
41. Dengue fever is transmitted by the bite of ……. mosquito
(a) anopheles  
(b) aedes  
(c) mansonia  
(d) culex
42. Route of administration of BCG vaccine is
(a) intramuscular  
(b) intradermal
(c) subcutaneous  
(d) intrathecal
43. Pasteurisation of milk kills all organisms except
(a) Anthrax  
(b) M. Tuberculosis  
(c) Streptococcus  
(d) Brucella
44. Prevalence of hook worm infection in a community is assessed by
(a) pearl index  
(b) breteaux index  
(c) chandler index  
(d) none of the above
45. The level of iodisation of iodised salt at the consumer level asspecified under the IDD control programme is
(a) 40 ppm  
(b) 30 ppm  
(c) 15 ppm  
(d) 50 ppm
46. All are steps in Primary Prevention of diseases except
(a) promotion of healthy life styles  
(b) good nutrition  
(c) immunization  
(d) treatment
47. Communicability of measles declines
(a) after onset of fever  
(b) during prodromal period  
(c) at the time of eruption  
(d) after appearance of rash
48. After effective chlorination of water free residual chlorine should not be less than
(a) 0.5 mg/L  
(b) 1 mg/L  
(c) 50 mg/L  
(d) 200 mg/L
49. All are side effects of oral contraceptives except
(a) hypertension  
(b) cervical cancer risk  
(c) gall bladder disease
(d) iron deficiency anameia
50. World AIDS day is observed on
(a) December 1st  
(b) January 31st  
(c) May 1st  
(d) October 1st
51. Highest source of vitamin A is seen in
(a) Cod liver oil  
(b) green leafy vegetables  
(c) papaya  
(d) carrot
52. Which is a live vaccine
(a) Hepatitis B vaccine  
(b) Hepatitis A vaccine  
(c) Oral polio vaccine  
(d) DPT vaccine
53.Scurvy is a deficiency disease due to
(a) Vitamin A  
(b) Vitamin D  
(c) Vitamin C  
(d) Vitamin B12
54. Number of sputum smears to be taken for confirmation of tuberculosis under the Revised National Tuberculosis control programme is
(a) 1  
(b) 2  
(c) 3  
(d) 4
55. The target population under the Universal Immunization Programme is
(a) infants and antenatal mothers  
(b) infants  
(c) under fives  
(d) under fives and antenatal mothers
56. RCH programme was launched in the year
(a) 1997
(b) 1992  
(c) 1990  
(d) 1998
57. Additional energy requirement to be supplemented for a lactatingmother is
(a) 200 calories  
(b) 550 calories
(c) 350 calories  
(d) 100 calories
58. Dental caries is caused due to deficiency of
(a) Iodine  
(b) Iron  
(c) Fluorine  
(d) Copper
59. Most ideal equipment for vaccine storage in a PHC is
(a) domestic refrigerator
(b) ice lined refrigerator  
(c) cold box  
(d) vaccinecarrier
60. Village Health Guide is present in all these states except
(a) Uttar Pradesh  
(b) Bihar  
(c) Orissa  
(d) Kerala
61. Route of transmission of pneumonic plague is
(a) Vector
(b) Droplet
(c) Formite  
(d) Food
62. Most simple way of data presentation to a common man is
(a) Bar chart  
(b) Line diagram  
(c) Pictogram  
(d) Histogram
63. The best method for operation theatre disinfection is
(a) dettol  
(b) phenol  
(c) lysol  
(d) fromaldehyde
64. Primary schedule of hepatitis B immunization is
(a) 0,1,6 months
(b) 1,3,6 months  
(c) 1,2,12 months
(d) 0,1,5 years
65. The control of ….. has led to the eradication of guinea worm disease
(a) mosquito
(b) rat flea  
(c) sand fly  
(d) cyclops
66. The confirmatory test for paralytic poliomyelitis is a
(a) stool examination  
(b) CSF examination  
(c) blood examination  
(d) nerve examination
67. The drug given to peripheral health worker under the Actute Respiratory infection Control Programme is
(a) Tetracycline  
(b) Cotrimoxazole  
(c) Doxy cycline  
(d) Chloroquine
68. The fitration technique in modern water treatment plant is
(a) slow sand filter  
(b) rapid sand filter  
(c) activated sludge process  
(d) double pot method
69. World Health Day is observed every year on
(a) May 9th  
(b) July 11th  
(c) April 7th  
(d) July 1st
70. Health education technique most suited for introducing the correct useof O.R.S. among Rural mothers is
(a) group discussion  
(b) flash card  
(c) demonstration  
(d) flannel graph
71. All are anti scabies preparations except
(a) BHC  
(b) permethrin  
(c) benzyl benzoate  
(d) malathion
72. All are tests used for bacteriological quality testing of drinking water except
(a) multiple tube method  
(b) membrane filtration technique  
(c) colony count  
(d) biological oxygen demand
73. During an epidemic of cholera, wells should be disinfected ideally
(a) Every day  
(b) 2 days  
(c) 3 days  
(d) 1 week
74. All are components of under five clinic except
(a) immunization
(b) growth monitoring  
(c) oral rehydration
(d) referral treatment
75. All are true of prevention of Food Adulteration Act except
(a) prescribes minimum standards  
(b) is not mandatory
(c) punishment includes imprisonment  
(d) latest amendment was in the year 1986
76. Physical quality of life index includes all except
(a) infant mortality  
(b) life expectancy at age one  
(c) per capita GNP
(d) literacy
77. Incubation period is less than 3 days in all the following except
(a) influenza  
(b) cholera  
(c) mumps  
(d) staphylococcal food poisoning
78. The type of influenza virus causing epidemics every year is
(a) A
(b) B  
(c) C
(d) Any one of the above
79. The incubation period of Rabies in men is determined by
(a) Site of bite  
(b) Severity of bite  
(c) Number of wounds
(d) All of the above
80. Noso comial infection means
(a) infection of nose  
(b) hospital acquired infection  
(c) notifiable disease  
(d)new disease
81. All of the following are mosquito borne diseases except
(a) Malaria  
(b) Filaria
(c) Kysanur forest disease
(d) Dengue fever
82. Which is not true of small pox
(a) No animal reservoir  
(b) No carrier stage  
(c) No sub-clinical infection  
(d) No air borne transmission
83. ORS contains all except
(a) sodium chloride  
(b) potassium sulphate  
(c) trisodium citrate  
(d) glucose
84. The danger zone for bacterial growth in food is
(a) 10-49 degree C  
(b) 20-49 degree C
(c) 10-60 degree C  
(d) 20-60 degree C
85. Aldehyde test is used for the diagnosis of
(a) Malaria  
(b) Kala Azar  
(c) Japanese encephalitis  
(d) Typhus fever
86. The period from disease initiation to disease detection in chronic disease is called
(a) incubation period  
(b) serial interval  
(c) latent period  
(d) median period
87. Herd immunity does not protect an individual in
(a) Diphtheria  
(b) Poliomyelitis  
(c) Small pox  
(d) Tetanus
88. Vaccines which should not be frozen include
(a) Typhoid  
(b) DPT  
(c) TT  
(d) All of the above
89. ILR stands for
(a) Income Literacy Ratio  
(b) Illiteracy- Literacy Ratio
(c) Ice Lined Refrigerator  
(d) Infant Living Rate
90. Cold chain equipment used at out reach sites is
(a) cold box  
(b) vaccine carrier  
(c) ice pack
(d) freezer
91. Most heat sensitive vaccine is
(a) BCG  
(b) Polio  
(c) Measles  
(d) DPT
92. Zero dose of polio vaccine means
(a) no vaccination  
(b) dose before first dose
(c) no antibody response
(d) vaccination at mobile camps
93. Pasteurisation of milk is an example disinfection
(a) Pre current  
(b) Con current  
(c) Terminal  
(d) Absolute
94. Boiling for 5-10 minutes kills
(a) bacteria  
(b) spores  
(c) virus  
(d) none of the above
95. All of the following can be sterilized by Auto claving except
(a) gloves
(b) culture media
(c) plastics  
(d) linen
96. All are suitable for disinfection of faces and urine except
(a) 8% bleaching powder  
(b) 1% crude phenol  
(c) 5% cresol  
(d) 1-2% formalin
97. Ideally bed pans and urinals are sterilized using
(a) 1% cresol  
(b) bleaching powder  
(c) steam  
(d) all of the above
98. Sputum is best disposed by
(a) burning  
(b) boiling  
(c) 5% cresol  
(d) any of the above
99. Immunity conferred by an attack of small pox is for
(a) 10 years  
(b) 15 years  
(c) 20 years  
(d) life long
100. Which is not true regarding measles
(a) source of infection is a case  
(b) secondary attack rate is 80%
(c) carries do not occur  
(d) sub clinical measles not known

Answers:
1. B 11 .A 21. A 31. C 41. B 51. A 61. B 71. D 81. C 91. B
2 .A 12. A 22. B 32. C 42. A 52. C 62. C 72. D 82. C 92. B
3. D 13. C 23. A 33. A 43. B 53. C 63. D 73. A 83. B 93. A
4. B 14. B 24. D 34. B 44. C 54. C 64. A 74. D 84. C 94. D
5. A 15. A 25. A 35. D 45 .C 55. C 65. D 75. B 85. B 95. C
6. C 16. B 26. C 36. C 46. D 56. B 66. A 76. D 86. A 96. D
7. C 17. A 27. B 37. D 47. D 57. B 67. B 77. C 87. B 97. B
8. D 18. A 28. C 38. C 48. A 58. C 68. A 78. B 88. D 98. C
9. C 19. C 29. A 39. C 49. A 59. B 69. C 79. D 89. C 99. D
10.C 20. D 30. A 40. C 50. A 60. C 70. C 80. D 90. B 100.B

Northern Railway Staff Nurse Notification 2011

Application are invited for Filling up the post of Staff Nurse for Northern Railway. Delhi Division for full time Purely on contract basis up to 30.06.2011 and on monthly remuneration basis till the availability of regularly selected candidates received from RRB/CDG or till Validity of the Scheme Whichever is earlier.

Name Of Post: Staff Nurse

Total Posts: 09

Age: 20-40 Years as On 01-01-2011

Pay Scale: Rs. 17,655/-

Qualification: Certificate as Registered Nurse and Midwife having passed three year course in general Nursing and Midwifery from a school of Nursing or other Institutions recognized by India Nursing Council or B.Sc

Last Date: 16.06.2011

Click Here For Notification 2011

RRB PARAMEDICAL EXAM Health Inspector QUESTIONS

1. For education of measles, immunization coverage should be at least
(a) 80% (b) 85% (c) 96% (d) 100%

2. Period of maximum infectivity in mumps is during
(a) incubation period (b) onset of swelling (c) after swelling appears (d)
prodromal period

3. Major epidemics of influenza A occur at intervals of
(a) 1 year (b) 2-3 years (c) 10-15 years (d) 20-25 years

4. The most common source of infection for diphtheria is a
(a) case (b) sub clinical case (c) carrier (d) all of the above

5. Shick test is done in
(a) meningitis (b) diphtheria (c) pertussis (d) polimyelitis
6. Adjuvant present in DPT vaccine is

(a) aluminium phosphate (b) aluminium hydroxide (c) zinc phosphate (d) magnesium
phosphate
7. Recommended site of administration of DPT in infants is

(a) gluteal (b) deltoid (c) lateral aspect of thigh (d) forearm
8. The most severe complications following DPT are due to …….. component

(a) diphtheria (b) pertussis (c) tetanus (d) adjuvant
9. The vaccine usually given to pilgrims to the Middle East is

(a) DPT (b) influenza (c) yellow fever (d) meningitis
10. Best index to estimate case load of T.B. in a community is

(a) incidence of infection (b) prevalence of infection (c) incidence of disease
(d) prevalence of disease
11. Prevalence of T.B. infection in a community is estimated by

(a) tuberculin test (b) sputum microscopy (c) culture (d) chest X-ray
12. The amount of PPD used in mantoux test in India is

(a) 1 TU (b) 5 TU (c) 25 TU (d) 250 TU
13. Result of mantoux test is read after

(a) 6 hours (b) 24 hours (c) 48 hours (d) 72 hours
14. Present day BCG vaccine is supplied as

(a) liquid vaccine (b) freeze dried vaccine (c) both (d) none of the above
15. The diluent used for reconstituting BCG vaccine is

(a) normal saline (b) distilled water (c) dextrose (d) none of the above
16. Reconstituted BCG vaccine should be used with in

(a) 3 hours (b) 6 hours (c) 18 hours (d) 24 hours
17. The age for BCG vaccination is recommended at

(a) birth or at 6th week (b) only 6th week (c) 6-8 weeks (d) within 1 year
18. At the village level sputum for AFB is collected and fixed by

(a) anganwadi worker (b) village health guide (c) health worker male (d) health
worker female
19. Source of most polio infections are

(a) clinical cases (b) sub clinical cases (c) carrier (d) both (b)&(c)
20. Risk factors for development of paralytic polio include

(a) 1/M injections (b) Tonsillectomy (c) DPT (d) all of the above
21. Major route of transmission of Hepatitis A is

(a) Facco oral route (b) parentral route (c) sexual transmission (d) perinatal
transmission
22. Vaccine vial monitor is present on which of these vaccines

(a) BCG (b) DPT (c) OPV (d) Measles
23. Immunity after Hepatitis A lasts for

(a) 6 months (b) 1 year (c) 6 years (d) life long
24. Following methods destroy vibrio cholerae except

(a) boiling (b) drying (c) bleaching powder 1 mg/L (d) cresol
25. Best method of collecting choleric stools for diagnosis is by

(a) rectal catheter (b) rectal swab (c) disinfected stool (d) all of the above
26. All are vaccines included under the Universal Immunization Programme
except

(a) diphtheria (b) pertussis (c) measles (d) MMR
27. The MTP act was passed in the year

(a) 1975 (b) 1971 (c) 1986 (d) 2000
28. All are Anti Rabies vaccine currently used in Kerala except

(a) chick embryo cell vaccine (b) human diploid cell vaccine (c) vero cell
vaccine (d) neural tissue vaccine
29. Annual Parasitic incidence is used to measure the problem of

(a) Filariasis (b) Dengue fever (c) Malaria (d) Japanese encephalitis
30. The causative organism of plague is

(a) Y pestis (b) R. Prowazeki (c) Coryne bacterium (d) Arbovirus
31. Which of these is a Conventional Contraceptive

(a) Combined pill (b) IUD (c) Condom (d) Mini pill
32. Which of these insecticides is used as a space spray

(a) paris green (b) abate (c) pyrethrum (d) mineral oil
33. Chemical ideally used for disinfecting sputum is

(a) cresol (b) dettol (c) savlon (d) phenol
34. Census is carried out at regular intervals of

(a) 5 years (b) 10 years (c) 7 years (d) 15 years
35. Vaccine carrier should ideally have number of ice packs

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
36. The dose of elemental iron in Folifer tablet given to pregnant women
under the RCH programme is

(a) 60 mg (b) 80 mg (c) 50 mg (d) 100 mg
37. Sanitary latrine should be located at least …. feet from source of
contamination

(a) 15 (b) 25 (c) 50 (d) 75
38. For calculating Bacterial index in Leprosy a minimum of ….. sites
should be examined

(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 9
39. Number of Tetanus toxoid doses to be given to an antenatal mother with
last child birth 2 years back is

(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) none
40. As per the Birth and Deaths Registration Act all births are to be
registered with in a period of

(a) 7 days (b) 14 days (c) 21 days (d) 1 month
41. Dengue fever is transmitted by the bite of ……. mosquito

(a) anopheles (b) aedes (c) mansonia (d) culex
42. Route of administration of BCG vaccine is

(a) intramuscular (b) intradermal (c) subcutaneous (d) intrathecal
43. Pasteurisation of milk kills all organisms except

(a) Anthrax (b) M. Tuberculosis (c) Streptococcus (d) Brucella
44. Prevalence of hook worm infection in a community is assessed by

(a) pearl index (b) breteaux index (c) chandler index (d) none of the above
45. The level of iodisation of iodised salt at the consumer level as
specified under the IDD control programme is

(a) 40 ppm (b) 30 ppm (c) 15 ppm (d) 50 ppm
46. All are steps in Primary Prevention of diseases except

(a) promotion of healthy life styles (b) good nutrition (c) immunization (d)
treatment
47. Communicability of measles declines

(a) after onset of fever (b) during prodromal period (c) at the time of eruption
(d) after appearance of rash
48. After effective chlorination of water free residual chlorine should
not be less than

(a) 0.5 mg/L (b) 1 mg/L (c) 50 mg/L (d) 200 mg/L
49. All are side effects of oral contraceptives except

(a) hypertension (b) cervical cancer risk (c) gall bladder disease (d) iron
deficiency anameia
50. World AIDS day is observed on

(a) December 1st (b) January 31st (c) May 1st (d) October 1st
51. Highest source of vitamin A is seen in

(a) Cod liver oil (b) green leafy vegetables (c) papaya (d) carrot
52. Which is a live vaccine

(a) Hepatitis B vaccine (b) Hepatitis A vaccine (c) Oral polio vaccine (d) DPT
vaccine
53. Scurvy is a deficiency disease due to

(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin D (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin B12
54. Number of sputum smears to be taken for confirmation of tuberculosis
under the Revised National Tuberculosis control

programme is

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
55. The target population under the Universal Immunization Programme is

(a) infants and antenatal mothers (b) infants (c) under fives (d) under fives
and antenatal mothers
56. RCH programme was launched in the year

(a) 1997 (b) 1992 (c) 1990 (d) 1998
57. Additional energy requirement to be supplemented for a lactating
mother is

(a) 200 calories (b) 550 calories (c) 350 calories (d) 100 calories
58. Dental caries is caused due to deficiency of

(a) Iodine (b) Iron (c) Fluorine (d) Copper
59. Most ideal equipment for vaccine storage in a PHC is

(a) domestic refrigerator (b) ice lined refrigerator (c) cold box (d) vaccine
carrier
60. Village Health Guide is present in all these states except

(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar (c) Orissa (d) Kerala
61. Route of transmission of pneumonic plague is

(a) Vector (b) Droplet (c) Formite (d) Food
62. Most simple way of data presentation to a common man is

(a) Bar chart (b) Line diagram (c) Pictogram (d) Histogram
63. The best method for operation theatre disinfection is

(a) dettol (b) phenol (c) lysol (d) fromaldehyde
64. Primary schedule of hepatitis B immunization is

(a) 0,1,6 months (b) 1,3,6 months (c) 1,2,12 months (d) 0,1,5 years
65. The control of ….. has led to the eradication of guinea worm disease

(a) mosquito (b) rat flea (c) sand fly (d) cyclops
66. The confirmatory test for paralytic poliomyelitis is a

(a) stool examination (b) CSF examination (c) blood examination (d) nerve
examination
67. The drug given to peripheral health worker under the Actute
Respiratory infection Control Programme is

(a) Tetracycline (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Doxy cycline (d) Chloroquine
68. The fitration technique in modern water treatment plant is

(a) slow sand filter (b) rapid sand filter (c) activated sludge process (d)
double pot method
69. World Health Day is observed every year on

(a) May 9th (b) July 11th (c) April 7th (d) July 1st
70. Health education technique most suited for introducing the correct use
of O.R.S. among Rural mothers is

(a) group discussion (b) flash card (c) demonstration (d) flannel graph
71. All are anti scabies preparations except

(a) BHC (b) permethrin (c) benzyl benzoate (d) malathion
72. All are tests used for bacteriological quality testing of drinking water
except

(a) multiple tube method (b) membrane filtration technique (c) colony count (d)
biological oxygen demand
73. During an epidemic of cholera, wells should be disinfected ideally

(a) Every day (b) 2 days (c) 3 days (d) 1 week
74. All are components of under five clinic except

(a) immunization (b) growth monitoring (c) oral rehydration (d) referral
treatment
75. All are true of prevention of Food Adulteration Act except

(a) prescribes minimum standards (b) is not mandatory

(c) punishment includes imprisonment (d) latest amendment was in the year 1986
76. Physical quality of life index includes all except

(a) infant mortality (b) life expectancy at age one (c) per capita GNP (d)
literacy
77. Incubation period is less than 3 days in all the following except

(a) influenza (b) cholera (c) mumps (d) staphylococcal food poisoning
78. The type of influenza virus causing epidemics every year is

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) Any one of the above
79. The incubation period of Rabies in men is determined by

(a) Site of bite (b) Severity of bite (c) Number of wounds (d) All of the above
80. Noso comial infection means

(a) infection of nose (b) hospital acquired infection (c) notifiable disease (d)
new disease
81. All of the following are mosquito borne diseases except

(a) Malaria (b) Filaria (c) Kysanur forest disease (d) Dengue fever
82. Which is not true of small pox

(a) No animal reservoir (b) No carrier stage (c) No sub-clinical infection (d)
No air borne transmission
83. ORS contains all except

(a) sodium chloride (b) potassium sulphate (c) trisodium citrate (d) glucose
84. The danger zone for bacterial growth in food is

(a) 10-49 degree C (b) 20-49 degree C (c) 10-60 degree C (d) 20-60 degree C
85. Aldehyde test is used for the diagnosis of

(a) Malaria (b) Kala Azar (c) Japanese encephalitis (d) Typhus fever
86. The period from disease initiation to disease detection in chronic
disease is called

(a) incubation period (b) serial interval (c) latent period (d) median period
87. Herd immunity does not protect an individual in

(a) Diphtheria (b) Poliomyelitis (c) Small pox (d) Tetanus
88. Vaccines which should not be frozen include

(a) Typhoid (b) DPT (c) TT (d) All of the above
89. ILR stands for

(a) Income Literacy Ratio (b) Illiteracy- Literacy Ratio

(c) Ice Lined Refrigerator (d) Infant Living Rate
90. Cold chain equipment used at out reach sites is

(a) cold box (b) vaccine carrier (c) ice pack (d) freezer
91. Most heat sensitive vaccine is

(a) BCG (b) Polio (c) Measles (d) DPT
92. Zero dose of polio vaccine means

(a) no vaccination (b) dose before first dose (c) no antibody response (d)
vaccination at mobile camps
93. Pasteurisation of milk is an example disinfection

(a) Pre current (b) Con current (c) Terminal (d) Absolute
94. Boiling for 5-10 minutes kills

(a) bacteria (b) spores (c) virus (d) none of the above
95. All of the following can be sterilized by Auto claving except

(a) gloves (b) culture media (c) plastics (d) linen
96. All are suitable for disinfection of faces and urine except

(a) 8% bleaching powder (b) 1% crude phenol (c) 5% cresol (d) 1-2% formalin
97. Ideally bed pans and urinals are sterilized using

(a) 1% cresol (b) bleaching powder (c) steam (d) all of the above
98. Sputum is best disposed by

(a) burning (b) boiling (c) 5% cresol (d) any of the above
99. Immunity conferred by an attack of small pox is for

(a) 10 years (b) 15 years (c) 20 years (d) life long
100. Which is not true regarding measles

(a) source of infection is a case (b) secondary attack rate is 80%

(c) carries do not occur (d) sub clinical measles not known
Answers:

1 B 11 A 21 A 31 C 41 B 51 A 61 B 71 D 81 C 91 B
2 A 12 A 22 B 32 C 42 A 52 C 62 C 72 D 82 C 92 B
3 D 13 C 23 A 33 A 43 B 53 C 63 D 73 A 83 B 93 A
4 B 14 B 24 D 34 B 44 C 54 C 64 A 74 D 84 C 94 D
5 A 15 A 25 A 35 D 45 C 55 C 65 D 75 B 85 B 95 C
6 C 16 B 26 C 36 C 46 D 56 B 66 A 76 D 86 A 96 D
7 C 17 A 27 B 37 D 47 D 57 B 67 B 77 C 87 B 97 B
8 D 18 A 28 C 38 C 48 A 58 C 68 A 78 B 88 D 98 C
9 C 19 C 29 A 39 C 49 A 59 B 69 C 79 D 89 C 99 D
10C 20 D 30 A 40 C 50 A 60 C 70 C 80 D 90 B 100B

RRB PARA MEDICAL EXAM QUESTIONS

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