Railway Recruitment Boards (RRB) Exams Questions Papers Questions

Railway Recruitment Boards (RRB) Exams

Questions Papers Questions

General Science

Q.1. Which of the following is not a bone in the human body?
(a) Sternum
(b) Humerus
(c) Pericardium
(d) Tibia
Ans. c

Q.2. Rennin and lactase, the enzymes required to digest milk, disappear in the human body by the age of
(a) two
(b) three
(c) five
(d) eight
Ans. a

Q3. Duodenum is situated
(a) at the uppermost part of the small intestine
(b) near the lungs
(c) in the brain
(d) at the tail end of the intestine
Ans. a

Q.4. The heart is covered by a membrane called
(a) Epidermis
(b) Dermis
(c) Epicardium
(d) Pericardium
Ans. d

Q.5. About ……..of the total calcium present in the human body is in the blood.
(a) 99%
(b) 70%
(c) 5%
(d) 1%
Ans. d

Q.6. Phenylketonuria is an example of an inborn error of metabolism. This ‘error’ refers to
(a) hormonal overproduction
(b) non disjunction
(c) atrophy of endocrine glands
(d) inherited lack of an enzyme
Ans. c

Q.7. As in the arms and legs, blood flows against gravity and is prevented from flowing back by
(a) the extremely low pressure of venous blood
(b) valves
(c) movements in the surrounding muscles
(d) the narrowing down of the lumen of veins by the contraction of the muscle layer comprising their walls
Ans. b

Q.8. Identical twins arise when two
(a) cells develop independently from the same zygote
(b) gametes develop independently
(c) sperms develop independently
(d) ova develop independently
Ans. a

Q.9. Element that is not found in blood is
(a) iron
(b) copper
(c) chromium
(d) magnesium
Ans. c

Q.10. Scratching eases itching because
(a) it kills germs.
(b) it suppresses the production of enzymes which cause itching,
(c) it removes the outer dust in the skin.
(d) it stimulates certain nerves which direct the brain to increase the production of antihistaminic chemicals.
Ans. d

Q.11. The gland, which in relation to body size is largest at birth and then gradually shrinks after puberty, is?
(a) Thyroid
(b) Pituitary
(c) Thymus
(d) Adrenal
Ans. c

Q.12. A human sperm may contain ?
1. X-chromosome
2. Y-chromosome
3. XY-chromosome
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c)1 and 2
(d) l,2 and 3
Ans. c

Q.13. Which of the following is not a bone in the legs of human body?
(a) Radius
(b) Tibia
(c) Femur
(d) Fibula
Ans. a

Q.14. Bleeding from artery is characterized by which of the following?
1. Blood is red.
2. Blood is purple.
3. Bleeding is continuous.
4. Bleeding is intermittent.
(a) 1 and3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans. b

Q.15. Which of the following is not a vestigial organ?
(a) Centriole
(b) Molar tooth
(c) Appendix
(d) Diaphragm
Ans. d

Q.16. Which of the following bone articulations forms the gliding joint?
(a) Humenis and radius
(b) Carpals
(c) Hip girdle and femur
(d) Skull & neck verterbrae
Ans. b

Q.17. Pancreas secretes hormones which help in
(a) blood clotting
(b) production of antibodies
(c) growth of body
(d) keeping sugar balance in body
Ans. d

Q.18. S-A node of mammalian heart is known as
(a) Autoregulator
(b) Pace-maker
(c) Time controller
(d) Beat regulator
Ans. b

Q.19. Consider the following statements regarding blood pressure:
1. It is the pressure exerted by the blood on the walls of any vessel.
2. It decreases in the arteries as the distance from the heart increases,
3. It is lower in the capillaries than in the arteries.
4. It is usually lower in women than in men.
Of these, the correct ones are
(a) 1 and 4
(b) l, 2and 3
(c) 2,3 and 4
(d) l,2,3 and 4
Ans. d

Q.20. The hormone responsible for the secretion of milk in mothers, is?
(a) ACTH
(b) Leutinizing hormone
(c) Adrenalin
(d) Lactogenic hormone

Q.21. What is the correct sequence of the following in heart attack?
1. Narrowing of the inner orifice of the vessel
2. ‘Plaque’ from fibrous tissue and high cholesterol
3. Inadequate supply of blood and oxygen
4. Clots of blood carried into the coronary arteries
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2,4, 1,3
(c) 2, 3, 1, 4
(d) 4, 2, 1 3
Ans. b

Q.22. Bile juice is secreted by
(a) Pancreas
(b) Liver
(c) Spleen
(d) Gall bladder
Ans. b

Q.23. Veins differ from arteries in having
(a) thinner walls
(b) strong walls
(c) narrower lumen
(d) valves to control direction of flow
Ans. d

Q.24. What is the main function of insulin in the human body?
(a) To maintain blood pressure
(b) To help in digestion of food
(c) To control the level of sugar in the body
(d) To check the level of iodine in the body
Ans. c

Q.25. An enzyme that works in an acidic medium is
(a) pepsin
(b) tiypsin
(c) ptyalin
(d) maltose
Ans. a

Q.26. The blood pressure is the pressure of blood in
(a) arteries
(b) veins
(c) auricles
(d) ventricles
Ans. a

Q.27. The total number of bones in human skull are
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 30
(d) 32
Ans. c

Q.28. Which of the following glands controls the development of sex organs in humans?
(a) Paancreas
(b) Thyroid
(c) Adrenal
(d) Pituitary
Ans. d

Q.29. Oxygen is transported to every cell of the human body by?
(a) red blood cells
(b) blood platelets
(c) white blood cells
(d) hormones
Ans. a

Q.30. Which of the following components of blood protects human beings from infection?
(a) Plasma
(b) Blood Platelets
(c) Haemoglobin
(d) White Blood Corpuscles
Ans. d

Q.31. The normal temperature of the human body is
(a) 90 F
(b) 98 F
(c) 98.4 F
(d) 96.4 F
Ans. c

Q.32 .If a person can see an object clearly when it is placed at distance of about 25 cm away from him, he is suffering from
(a) myopia
(b) hypermetropia
(c) astigmatism
(d) None of these
Ans. d

Q.33. The blood pressure values of four persons are given below:
1. Mrs.X-90/60
2. Mr.X-160/120
3. Mr. Y-120/80
4. Mrs.Y-140/l00
Who among the following has normal blood pressure?
(a) Mrs. Y
(b) Mr. X
(c) Mrs. X
(d) Mr. Y
Ans. d

Q.34. In the case of a ‘Test-tube baby’?
(a) fertilization takes place inside the test tube.
(b) development of the baby takes place inside the test tube.
(c) fertilization takes place outside the mother body.
(d) unfertilized egg develops inside the test tube.
Ans. c

Q.35. Pituitary gland is present
(a) below the brain
(b) above the brain
(c) inside the brain
(d) nowhere near the brain
Ans. a

Q.36. Which of the following organs is used in the purification of blood in human body?
(a) Liver
(b) Kidney
(c) Spleen
(d) Lungs
Ans. d

Q.37. Cornea is a part of which of the following organs of human body?
(a) Eye
(b) Ear
(c) Nose
(d) Heart
Ans. a

Q.38. What is Funny Bone?
(a) A muscle
(b) A nerve
(c) A bone
(d) A blood vessel
Ans. b

Q.39. Man cannot digest cellulose whereas cows can do so because?
(a) their gut contains bacteria capable of digesting cellulose.
(b) they have a many – chambered stomach.
(c) they have efficient grinding molars.
(d) they produce an enzyme cellulose which can digest cellulose.
Ans. a

Q.40. Which of the following when taken by pregnant women, is found to be the cause of deformed children?
(a) Glycerol
(b) Xylidine
(c) Thalidomide
(d) None of these
Ans. c

Q.41. The diploid number of chromosomes in human body is ?
(a) 24
(b) 40
(c) 46
(d) 48
Ans. c

Q.42. The largest cell in the human body is
(a) Nerve cell
(b) Muscle cell
(c) Liver cell
(d) Kidney cell
Ans. a

Q.43. Lichens are formed due to the symbiotic association of
(a) moss and fungi
(b) bacteria and fungi
(c) algae and fungi
(d) None of these
Ans. c

Q.44. Insects form the largest class of animals living on land and sea. They are grouped into
(a) 22 orders
(b) 26 orders
(c) 29 orders
(d) 32 orders
Ans. c

Q.45. Which of the following statements is true for planktons?
(a) They live on the surface of lake water.
(b) They live on the bottom of lakes.
(c) They live on the plants growing in water.
(d) They live in the water column.
Ans. b

Q.46. Which of the following has the smallest egg?
(a) Ostrich
(b) Humming bird
(c) Pigeon
(d) Homo sapiens
Ans. c

Q.47. The population of which of the following is maximum on the earth?
(a) Reptiles
(b) Fishes
(c) Birds
(d) Beetles
Ans. d

Q.48. Poison glands of snakes are homologous to
(a) stings of rays
(b) salivary glands of vertebrates
(c) electric organs of fishes
(d) sebaccous glands of mammals
Ans. b

Q.49. The phylum chordata is characterized by the presence of
(a) spinal cord
(b) notochord
(c) nerve chord
(d) None of these
Ans. d

Q.50. Which of the following activities is suppressed by the presence of auxins in plants?
(a) Growth of lateral buds
(b) Cell division
(c) Root initiation
(d) Development of fleshy fruits
Ans. c

RRB TECHNICAL EXAM PAPER

Railway Engineering

1. The bent-up length of rail used in front of nose of crossing which help in channelising the train wheels in their proper routes are known as:

(a) lead rail (b) point rail (c) wing rail (d) splice rail

Ans:- C

2.The point up to which the new railway track laid, at any time is called:

(a) terminal (b) station (c) rail-head (d) base

Ans:- C

3.The good quality wood for sleeper is:

(a) Deodar (b) Sheesham (c) Teak (d) Sal

Ans:- C

4.Generally the life of wooden sleepers is taken as:

(a) 2 to 3 years (b) 12 to 15 years

(c) 35 to 50 years (d) 5 to 8 years

Ans:- B

5.The gradual or tapered widening of the flangeway which is formed by bending and splaying the end of check rail or wing rail away from the gauge line is known as:

(a) Flare (b) Toe (c) Heel (d) Loop

Ans:- A

6.The minimum height of embankment above the highest flood mark in the area should be:

(a) zero cm (b) 30 cm (c) 100 cm (d) 60 cm

Ans:- D

7.The recommended depth of ballast cushion on a curved portion of a track is provided under the ........ edge of the sleeper.

(a) upper (b) middle (c) inner (d) outer

Ans:- C

8. An outward slope provided on the tread of the wheel is:

(a) 1 in 5 (b) 1 in 10 (c) 1 in 20 (d) 1 in 25

Ans:- C

9.The granular material spread on the formation of a railway track for the sleepers to rest upon is known as:

(a) anchors (b) ballast (c) subgrade (d) chairs

Ans:- B

10.Bone shaped section of fish plate is commonly used for connecting:

(a) double headed rails (b) flat footed rails

(c) bull headed rails (d) all above are correct

Ans:- B

11.The members laid transversely under the rails for supporting and fixing them at the gauge distance apart are known as:

(a) fastenings (b) sleepers (c) ballast (d) fish plate

Ans:- B

12.The bottom width of foot in a flat footed rail is:

(a) 78.6 mm (b) 136.5 mm (c) 66.7 mm (d) 70 mm

Ans:- B

13.The rectangular pits in which wheels of the locomotives are taken out for repairs, are known as:

(a) Track pits (b) Inspection pits

(c) Drop pits (d) Siding pits

Ans:- C

14. The wheels are coned to prevent from rubbing the inside face of the rail head and to prevent lateral movement of the axle with its wheels. The slope of cone is:

(a) 1 in 5 (b) 1 in 20 (c) 1 in 10 (d) 1 in 15

Ans:- B

15. Gauge is the distance measured in place of the between which faces of two parallel rails in a track.

(a) inner faces

(b) centre line of one rail to inner face of other rail

(c) centre lines (d) outer faces

Ans:- A

16. Most significant which imposes limitations in raising the high speeds is:

(a) adhesion of wheels (b) resistance due to oscillations

(c) flange resistance (d) air or wind resistance

Ans:- A

17. The rails are welded by:

(a) Thermit welding (b) Gas welding

(c) Arc welding (d) MIG welding

Ans:- A

18. Steel sleepers are ..... shaped in section.

(a) oval (b) rectangular (c) trough (d) semi-spherical

Ans:- C

19. In India generally the sleeper density of sleepers per rail length used is:

(a) 18 (b) 30 (c) 12 (d) 24

Ans:- A

20. The extra rails provided over bridge to prevent damage and danger in case of derailment on the bridge are known as:

(a) Stock rails (b) Guard rails (c) Check rails (d) Wing rails

Ans:- B

21. The phenomenon of misalignment of rails due to temperature change is known as:

(a) cropping (b) creeping (c) bulging (d) buckling

Ans:- D

22. Creep is the ..... movement of rails.

(a) longitudinal (b) diagonal (c) horizontal (d) vertical

Ans:- A

23. Ballast best suited to steel sleepers is:

(a) sand (b) Gravel (c) Quartzite (d) All the above

Ans:- C

24. The section of a rail is decided on the basis of:

(a) Type of rails (b) Spacing of the sleepers

(c) Speed of trains (d) All of the above

Ans:- D

25. While preparing sub-grade of a railway line, the grubbing operation means:

(a) checking of subgrade

(b) filling or cutting of earth work in railway subgrade

(c) compaction and consolidation of earth work

(d) removal and disposal of stumps and roots trees

Ans:- D

26. The sinuous path taken by an engine as against the alignment of the track is known as:

(a) Rolling motion (b) Nosing motion

(c) Lurching motion (d) Vibration

Ans:- B

27. The mechanical device which transfer chemical energy of fuel into mechanical energy in the form of motion is called:

(a) rolling stock (b) railway (c) wagon (d) locomotive

Ans:- D

28. Integrated coach factory is located in:

(a) Chennai (b) Bangalore (c) Jamshedpur (d) Mumbai

Ans:- A

29. C.T.C. stands for:

(a) Critical Track Control

(b) Critical Traffic Channeliser

(c) Centralised Traffic Control

(d) None of these

Ans:- C

30. To reduce the intensity of pressure particularly on soft variety of sleepers, a rectangular plate is introduced between the rails and the sleepers. This is known as:

(a) Fish plate (b) Chair

(c) Saddle plate (d) Bearing plate

Ans:- D

31. Generally the rail sections used in India is:

(a) flat footed (b) double headed

(c) bull headed (d) all above

Ans:- A

32. The arrangement consisting of three tracks used for changing the direction of engine is called:

(a) three ladder track (b) turn table

(c) three throw switch (d) triangle

Ans:- B

33. The length of a wooden sleeper for broad gauge track is:

(a) 1.83 m (b) 1.52 m (c) 2.74 m (d) 1.676 m

Ans:- C

34. The technical officer of the rank of sectional officer in the maintenance organisation of Indian Railways is called:

(a) Permanent Way Inspector

(b) Gangmate

(c) Assistant Permanent Way Inspector

(d) None of these are correct

Ans:- C

35. The depth of ballast section under sleeper for broad gauge track as per Indian standard should be:

(a) 250 to 300 mm (b) 200 to 250 mm

(c) 150 to 200 mm (d) 150 mm

Ans:- B

36. The completed and finished railway line on which wheeled vehicles are drawn by locomotive is known as:

(a) steel way (b) rails (c) railway (d) permanent way

Ans:- D

37. The horse power to weight ratio steam engine is generally of the order of:

(a) 10-15 kg/HP (b) 60-80 kg/HP

(c) 20-30 kg/HP (d) 100-150 kg/HP

Ans:- B

38. The cause of formation of kinks in a rail is:

(a) Loose packing at joints

(b) Defect in gauge and alignment

(c) Defect in cross level joints

(d) Any of the above

Ans:- D

39. The horizontal distance from the material depot to the rail head is called:

(a) lift (b) site distance (c) rail-head (d) lead

Ans:- D

40. On curves, to counteract the effect of centrifugal force, the level of outer rail is raised above the inner rail by a certain amount. This is called:

(a) Track gradient (b) Track slope

(c) Super elevation (d) Horizontal gradient

Ans:- C

41. The measure of stiffness of track required to produce a unit depression in the track is known as:

(a) Tractive force (b) Load capacity

(c) Gauge (d) Track modulus

Ans:- D

42. The head of a gang in maintenance organisation of railway is called:

(a) P.W.I (b) Keyman (c) Ganger (d) A.P.W.I

Ans:- C

43. The fixed rail in a railway track against which the tongue rail fits s known as:

(a) wing rail (b) stock rail (c) lead rail (d) point rail

Ans:- B

44. The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge track in India is:

(a) 19.2 m (b) 25.6 m (c) 11.8 m (d) 12.8 m

Ans:- D

45. The thickness of fish plate generally used in Indian Railway is:

(a) 16 mm (b) 10 mm (c) 25 mm (d) 20 mm

Ans:- D

46. Thermal efficiency of a diesel engine may be expected to be in the range of:

(a) 50-65% (b) 25-35% (c) 15-20% (d) 10-15%

Ans:- B

47. Wear on top or head of rail occurs due to:

(a) Abrasion of rolling wheels

(b) Heavy axle load

(c) Constant brake application

(d) Any or all of the above

Ans:- D

48. Any movement of the locomotive in different planes, e.g., vertical, longitudinal, transversal etc., is known as:

(a) Oscillating motion (b) Lurching motion

(c) Shutting motion (d) Vibration

Ans:- A

49. In rainy season the dust in the ballast becomes mud and comes up by suction from below the rail joint. Such joint is called:

(a) Wet joint (b) Water joint

(c) Pumping joint (d) Blowing joint

Ans:- C

50. Accidents can be avoided by adopting:

(a) interlocking (b) C.T.C. system

(c) pilot guard system (d) A.T.C. system

Ans:- A

RRB TECHNICAL EXAM QUESTIONS

Fluid Mechanics


1. A single acting reciprocating pump, running at 60 r.p.m, delivers 0.01 m2/sec of water. The area of the piston is 0.05m2 and stroke length is 40 cm. Then theoretical discharge of the pump will be
(a) 0.015 m3/sec (b) 0.02 m3/sec
(c) 0.025 m3/sec (d) 0.03 m3/sec
Ans:- B

2.B. In question (A), the co-efficient of discharge would be
(a) 0.9 (b) 0.8 (c) 0.6 (d) 0.5
Ans:- D

3. In question (A), the slip of the pump would be
(a) 0.02 m3/sec (b) 0.01 m3/sec
(c) 0.005 m3/sec (d) 0.003 m3/sec
Ans:- B

4.The possibility of negative slip in reciprocating pump is when
(a) delivery pipe is short (b) suction pipe is long
(c) pump is running at high speed (d) all of the above
Ans:- D

5. The slip in the reciprocating pump will be negative if
(a) Qth > Qact (b) Qth < Qact
(c) Qth = Qact (d) none of the above
Ans:- B

6. The power required to drive a single acting reciprocating pump is equal to
(a) w.A.L.N / 4500 (b) w.A.L.N.(hs + hd)4500
(c) A.L.N. (hs + hd)/4500 (d) w.L.N/4500
where w = specific weight of water
Ans:- B

7. The rate of flow of water through a double acting reciprocating pump is equal to
(a) A.L.N /60 (b) 2 AL.N/60 (c) A.L.N./2×60 (d) 3 A.L.N./60
Ans:- B

8. The rate of flow of water through a single acting reciprocating pump is equal to
(a) A.L.N /60 (b) 2 AL.N/60 (c) A.L.N./2×60 (d) 3 A.L.N./60
Ans:- A

9. The pump, which works on the principle of water hammer, is known as
(a) centrifugal pump (b) reciprocating pump
(c) hydraulic ram (d) none of the above
Ans:- C

10. The pump which raises water without any external power for its operation, is known as
(a) centrifugal pump (b) reciprocating pump
(c) hydraulic ram (d) hydraulic intensifier
Ans:- C

11. The power at the shaft of a centrifugal pump is 100 KW, and the power available at the impeller is 900 KW. If water horse power is 720 KW, then overall efficiency of the centrifugal pump will be
(a) 90% (b) 80% (c) 75% (d) 72%
Ans:- D

12. In the question (A), the manometric efficiency would be
(a) 90% (b) 80% (c) 75% (d) 72%
Ans:- B

13. In question (A), the mechanical efficiency would be
(a) 90% (b) 80% (c) 75% (d) 72%
Ans:- A

14. The term W.Q.Hm / (75 S.H.P) for a centrifugal pump is known as
(a) mechanical efficiency (b) manometric efficiency
(c) overall efficiency (d) none of the above
Ans:- C

15. If a circular chamber is introduced between the casing and the impeller, then casing is known as
(a) vortex casing (b) volute casing
(c) casing with guide blades (d) none of the above
Ans:- A

16. The rotating part of a turbine is known as
(a) Impeller (b) Guide mechanism
(c) Runner (d) None of the above
Ans:- A

17. The rotating part of a turbine is known as
(a) Impeller (b) Guide mechanism
(c) Runner (d) None of the above
Ans:- C

18. In case of Kaplan turbine, velocity of flow at inlet is
(a) less than that at outlet
(b) more than that at outlet
(c) equal of that at outlet
(d) none of the above
Ans:- C

19.Francis turbine is a
(a) radially inward flow turbine
(b) radially outward flow turbine
(c) axial flow turbine
(d) none of the above
Ans:- A

20. The main advantage of the draft-tube is to convert
(a) pressure energy into kinetic energy
(b) kinetic energy into pressure energy
(c) pressure energy into electrical energy
(d) none of the above
Ans:- B

21. The pressure at the exist of the runner of a reaction turbine is generally
(a) more than atmospheric pressure
(b) equal to atmospheric pressure
(c) less than atmospheric pressure
(d) none of the above
Ans:- C

22.In case of draft tube, are of cross-section of the draft tube
(a) increases from inlet to outlet
(b) decreases from inlet to outlet
(c) remains constant
(d) none of the above
Ans:- A

23. Draft tube is used in case of
(a) Pelton turbine (b) Pelton and Francis turbine
(c) Kaplan and Pelton turbine (d) Francis and Kaplan turbine
Ans:- D

24.The pressure energy goes on changing into kinetic energy in case of
(a) Pelton turbine (b) Francis turbine
(c) Kaplan turbine (d) Francis and Kaplan
Ans:- D

25. A turbine is having specific speed of 400. Then the turbine would be
(a) Kaplan turbine (b) Francis turbine
(c) Pelton turbine (d) None of the above
Ans:- A

26.A turbine is having specific speed as 100. Then the turbine would be
(a) Kaplan turbine (b) Francis turbine
(c) Pelton turbine (d) Steam turbine
Ans:- B

27. The axial flow reaction turbine, in which vanes are fixed to the hub and they are not adjustable, is known as
(a) Kaplan turbine (b) Francis turbine
(c) propeller turbine (d) Pelton turbine
Ans:- C

28.In case reaction turbine, the total head at the inlet of a turbine consists of
(a) pressure energy and kinetic energy
(b) kinetic energy only
(c) pressure energy only
(d) none of the above
Ans:- A

29. In case of reaction turbine, the total head at the inlet of a turbine consists of
(a) pressure energy and kinetic energy
(b) kinetic energy only
(c) pressure energy only
(d) none of the above
Ans:- B

30. Kaplan turbine is a
(a) reaction turbine (b) impulse turbine
(c) radial flow turbine (d) none of the above
Ans:- A

31. Francis turbine is a
(a) reaction turbine (b) impulse turbine
(c) axial flow turbine (d) none of the above
Ans:- A

32. Pelton turbine is a
(a) reaction turbine (b) radial inward flow turbine
(c) impulse turbine (d) axial flow turbine
Ans:- C

33. The relation between overall efficiency. mechanical efficiency and hydraulic efficiency is given by
(a) h0 = hmech / hhyd (b) h0 = hmech / hhyd
(c) h0 = 1.0 / (hmech × hhyd) (d) h0 = hhyd / hmech
Ans:- B

34.The ratio of power at the shaft of a turbine to the power supplied by water at inlet of a turbine is known as
(a) hydraulic efficiency (b) mechanical efficiency
(c) overall efficiency (d) none of the above
Ans:- C

35. The ratio of power available at the shaft of a turbine to the power developed by the runner of the turbine is known as
(a) hydraulic efficiency (b) mechanical efficiency
(c) overall efficiency (d) volumetric efficiency
Ans:- B

36. A jet water of area of cross-section 20 cm2, having a velocity of 20 m/sec strikes a curved plate which is moving with a velocity of 10 m/sec in the direction of the jet. The jet leaves the vane at an angle of 600 to the direction of motion of vane at outlet as shown in Fig. Z3. The relative velocity at inlet will be
(a) 20 m/sec (b) 10 m/sec (c) 15 m/sec (d) 16 m/sec
Ans:- B

37. The velocity of whirl at inlet in the question (A), will be
(a) 20 m/sec (b) 16 m/sec (c) 15 m/sec (d) 10 m/sec
Ans:- A

38. In the FIG Z3, angle f will be
(a) 300 (b) 450 (c) 600 (d) 750
Ans:- C

39. In Fig Z2 shows the velocity triangles triangles at inlet and outlet of a turbine, V1 represents the absolute velocity at inlet and u1 represents vane velocity at inlet. The relative velocity at inlet is represented by
(a) length BD (b) Length AD
(c) length CD (d) length CB
Ans:- D

40. In Fig. Z2 the velocity of whirl at inlet is given by
(a) length DB (b) length AD
(c) length CD (d) length CB
Ans:- B

41. In fig. Z2, angle BAC is known as
(a) vane angle at inlet (b) nozzle angle at inlet
(c) vane angle at outlet (d) none of the above
Ans:- B

42. In fig. Z2, angle BCD is known as
(a) vane angle at inlet (b) nozzle angle at inlet
(c) vane angle at outlet (d) none of the above
Ans:- A

43. A jet water of area 40 cm2 moving with a velocity of 10 m/sec strikes normally a fixed vertical plate. The force exerted by the jet on the plate in the direction of jet will be
(a) 500 N (b) 400 N (c) 300 N (d) 200 N
Ans:- B

44. Pump is a machine which converts
(a) hydraulic energy to mechanical energy
(b) mechanical energy to hydraulic energy
(c) mechanical energy to electrical energy
(d) none of the above
Ans:- B

RRB Ahmedabad TC Exam Paper

1.) Terminal colours of Rainbow?
a: Violet&Red

2.) First lady in INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS?
a: Indira Gandhi
b: Sarogini naidu etc

3.) First Nuclear plant in INDIA is situated in
a: Bombay
b: Nellore etc

4.) 2 capacitances are in parallel gives 6 micro farad & in series gives 25 what will be the value of individual capacitance.

5.) Who invented THERMOMETER?
ANS: Farenheit

6.) Electrostatic potential is a Scalar Quantity or Vector Quantity?

7.) Among values 1 to100 Probability of occurance of numbers ending with 9 is?
a:1/10 b:9/10 c:1 d:0

8.) Si, Ge lie in ….. block of periodic table
a: III b: V c: IVA(ANS) d: IV B

9.) Some eqn was given x=20 sin 157t then calculate frequency

10.) Which Filter is used for passing ONLY HIGH frequency
a: LADDER b. crystal

11.) In Zener breakdown is proportional to
Ans -ive coefficient of temperature

12.) If water is heated from 0degree to 10 degree effect on volume
a: increase steadily
b: remain same
c: decrease steadily

13.) If we dig EARTH FROM North to South pole and a stone is dropped in it then efffect on its velocity
a: increase continously
b: First increase and become Zero in center
c. It Will Start Oscillate

14.) Dandi march was related to ……..
a: Salt b: Sugar etc

15.) Radiation pattern of loop antenna
a: cardioid b. semicircular c. circle d. none

16.) DENMARK lie in which continent

17.) Cooks island is situated in which continent?

18.) Range of AM Signal?

19.) In an Electrolyte if rod is immersed then mass on rod will be proportional to
a: current passed in it

20.) largest unit in energy

21.) spelling check of SATELLITE

22.) plural of “DIBIYA” IN HINDI

23.) Sarvnam chatiye

24.) RADDISH is a
a: modified root
b: bulb
c; stem

25.) X Rays are ….. Rays
Ans emw

26.) ass:bray::sheep BLEAT

27.) In Hindi Pehle Janma (AGRAJ, ARGAJA/AAGRAJETC)

28.) Lord Shankar is related to originaetor of …. river

29.) ………is also called JALDHAR

30) fsk is used in
a: telegraphy
b: telephony
c: radio transmission etc

VARIOUS RRB EXAMS QUESTIONS

1. When a ray of light passes from an optically denser medium to a rarer medium, it
(a) Remains undeviated (b) Bends towards normal
(c) Bends away from normal (d) None of these
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
2.Who is the author of "Anandmath" ?
(a) Rabindranath Tagore (b) Bankim chandra Chattopadhyaya
(c) Sarojini Nayadu (d) Jyotiba Phule
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
3. Thimpu is the capital of -
(a) Nepal (b) Bhutan
(c) Thailand (d) Myanmar
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
4. The time period of a seconds pendulum is
(a) 1 second (b) 4 seconds
(c) 3 seconds (d) 2 seconds
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
5. The nuclear fuel in the sun is
(a) Helium (b) Uranium
(c) Hydrogen (d) Oxygen
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
6. The second’s hand of a watch is 2 cm long. The velocity of its tip is
(a) 0.21 cm/sec. (b) 2.1 cm/sec.
(c) 21 cm/sec. (d) None of these
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
7. In diesel engine, ignition is caused by
(a) Spark (b) Automatic starter
(c) Compression (d) Friction
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
8. The mass-energy equivalence, relationship E = mc2 was propounded by
(a) Max Plank (b) Einstein
(c) Newton (d) Hertz
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
9. The filament of bulb is made of
(a) Tungsten (b) Iron
(c) Nichrome (d) Carbon
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
10. Anti-knocking can be lessened by
(a) Iso Octane (b) N Heptane
(c) TEL (d) Benzene
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
11. In which of the following oxidation shows a positive oxidation state.
(a) CO (b) N2O
(c) NO (d) F2O
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
12. Which of the following is used in photography?
(a) Silver Bromide (b) Sodium Bromide
(c) Potassium Chloride (d) Sodium Sulphate
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
13. Which of the following is used in accumulator cell?
(a) Copper (b) Iron
(c) Lead (d) Zinc
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
14. Choose the wrong statement :
(a) Single magnetic poles can exist
(b) Magnetic poles are always of equal strength
(c) Like poles repel each other
(d) None of these
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
15. Laws of electrolysis are given by:
(a) Farady (b) Maxwell
(c) Lenz (d) Bohr
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
16. Flemings left hand rule is used to fine out:
(a) Direction of magnetic field due to flow of current
(b) Direction of induced current due to effect of magnetic field
(c) Direction of motion of a current carrying conductor in magnetic field
(d) None of these
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
17. The pH of a neutral solution at 250C is :
(a) 0 (b) 1.0
(c) 7.0 (d) 1.4
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
18. The raw material used for the manufacture of Portland cement is :
(a) Limestone and clay (b) Alumina, clay and gypsum
(c) Gypsum and limestone (d) Gypsum and clay19. CaOCI2 is the chemical formula for a compound commonly known as :(a) Soda Ash (b) Lime
(c) Bleaching Powder (d) Plaster of Paris
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
20. The glass used for making laboratory apparatus is :(a) Pyrex glass (b) Hard glass
(c) Soft glass (d) Safety glass
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
21. The iron produced in blast furnace is :
(a) Pig iron (b) Wrought iron
(c) Stainless steel (d) Steel
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
22. Formation is a 40% solution of :
(a) Methanol (b) Methenal
(c) Methanoic acid (d) None of these
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
23. Which of the following is not an ore of aluminium :
(a) Cryolite (b) Feldspar
(c) Bauxite (d) Azurite
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
24. Rhombic monoclinic and plastic sulphur are:
(a) Isomers (b) Isotopes
(c) Allotropes (d) Hydrides of sulphur25. The alkaline hydrolysis of oils or fats gives soap and :
(a) Glycerol (b) Ethenol
(c) Glycol (d) Ethanoic acid
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
26. The sight of a delicious food usually makes month watery. It is a :
(a) Hormonal response (b) Neural response
(c) Optic response (d) Olfactory response
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
27. Nitrogen fixing bacteria are normally found in :
(a) Parasitic plants (b) Epiphytic plants
(c) Leguminous plants (d) Aquatic plants
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
28. Powdery mildew of wheat is caused by:
(a) Bacteria (b) Virus
(c) Fungi (d) Protozoans
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
29. Septic sore throat is caused by :
(a) Bacteria (b) Virus
(c) Fungi (d) Protozoans
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
30. A person of blood group AB can give blood to :
(a) ‘A’ and ‘B’ (b) Only ‘AB’
(c) ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘O’ (d) All of these
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
31. Cell activities are controlled by :
(a) Chloroplast (b) Nitochondria
(c) Cytoplasm (d) Nucleus
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
32. Which of the following helps eye to adjust the focal length of the eye lens :
(a) Cornea (b) Conjunctiva
(c) Ciliary body (d) Iris
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
33. When pollen of a flower is transferred to the stigma of the same plant, pollination type is referred to as :
(a) Autogamy (b) Allogamy
(c) Xenogamy (d) Geitonogamy
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
34. Respiration is a :
(a) Catabolic process (b) Anabolic process
(c) Both of these (d) None of these
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
35. The structural and functional unit of kidneys are :
(a) Neurons (b) Nephrons
(c) Medula (d) None of these
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
36. Which of the following enzymes is generally nor present in adult human :
(a) Renin (b) Pepsin
(c) Trypsin (d) Amylopsin
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
37. The part of the plant which is responsible for carrying water and solutes from roots to various parts of plants is :
(a) Phloem (b) Xylem
(c) Duodenum (d) Sclercids
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
38. ‘Widal test’ is used for susceptibility of :
(a) Malaria (b) Typhoid
(c) Cholera (d) Yellow fever
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
39. Exchange of gases in plants takes place through :
(a) Stomata (b) Lenticels
(c) Cuticle (d) All of these
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
40. ‘Lieutenant’ in army is equivalent to following rank in navy :
(a) Lieutenant (b) Sub Lieutanant
(c) Lieutenant Commander (d) None of these
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
41. Pankaj Advani is associated with :
(a) Snooker (b) Golf
(c) Shooting (d) Archery
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
42. Which city in the world is known as the forbidden city :
(a) Aberdeen (b) Jerusalem
(c) Mecca (d) Lhasa
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
43. Rajeev Gandhi Khel Ratna Award carries a sum of :
(a) Rs. 3 lakns (b) Rs. 5 lakhs
(c) Rs. 1 lakh (d) Rs. 7 lakhs
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
44. Who is known as ‘Nightingale of India’ :
(a) Asha Bhonsle (b) Begum Akhtar
(c) Sarojini Naidu (d) Vijaylaxmi Pandit
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
45. Which one of the following is not included in the UNESCO’s list of world heritage site :
(a) Kaziranga National Park (b) Qutab Minar
(c) Champaner Pavagarh (d) None of these
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
46. Which of the following is not an electric resistant?
(a) Lead (b) Ebonite
(c) Charcoal (d) Lac
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
47. Which of the following is a complementary colour?
(a) Blue (b) Yellow
(c) Magenta (d) Yellow and Magenta
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
48. The velocity of sound increases in air by ……… for every degree Celsius increase of temperature.
(a) 60 m/sec. (b) 0.61 m/sec.
(c) 60 ft/sec. (d) 0.61 km/sec.
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
49. Henry is a unit of
(a) Capacity (b) Magnetic field
(c) Inductance (d) Frequency
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
50. The velocity of rotation of Earth is
(a) 28 km/min (b) 30 km/min
(c) 25 km/min (d) 39.5 km/min
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
51. What is Hubble?
(a) Warship (b) Star
(c) Telescope (d) Missile
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
52. Which acid is normally found in lemon and grape fruits?
(a) Citric acid (b) Tartaric acid
(c) Ascorbic acid (d) Lactic acid
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
53. At which temperature Fahrenheit and Celsius show same reading?
(a) -400 (b) 00
(c) -574.250 (d) 2730
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
54. Limestone is metamorphosed to form
(a) Graphite (b) Quartz
(c) Granite (d) Marble
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
55. Rift valley is formed by
(a) Earthquake (b) Folding
(c) Faulting (d) All of these
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
56. If a piece of ice at 00C is mixed with water at 00C, then
(a) Whole ice melts (b) Some ice melts
(c) No ice melts (d) Temperature decreases
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
57. Mettur Dam is built on the river
(a) Krishna (b) Cauvery
(c) Narmada (d) Mahanadi
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
58. Mahendra Giri peak is situated in the
(a) Eastern Ghats (b) Western Ghats
(c) Shiwaliks (d) Vindhyachal
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
59. In what time a sum will double itself at 20% per annum rate of interest?
(a) 2 years (b) 3 years
(c) 4 years (d) 5 years
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
60. The famous Dilwara Temple is situated in
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra
(c) Gujarat (d) Rajasthan
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
61. Pneumonia affects
(a) Lungs (b) Tongue
(c) Liver (d) Kidney
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
62. The chemical name of Vitamin A is
(a) Retinol (b) Jhiamin
(c) Biotic (d) Riboflavin
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
63. A 130m long train crosses a bridge in 30 seconds at 45 kmph. The length of the bridge is
(a) 200m (b) 225m
(c) 245m (d) 250m
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
64. By selling an article at some price a person gains 10%. If the article is sold at twice of the price, the gain percent will be
(a) 20% (b) 60%
(c) 100% (d) 120%
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
65. Atoms are electrically charged as
(a) Positive (b) Negative
(c) Bi-positive (d) Neutral
66. Ionic bond exists in
(a) Kcl (b) H2O
(c) NH3 (d) Cl3
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
67. Which force is required to increase the momentum of an object to 40 kg m/s in 5 seconds?
(a) 2N (b) 4N
(c) 8N (d) 10N
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
68. The river that does not form delta is
(a) Mahanadi (b) Tapti
(c) Krishna (d) Cauvery
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
69. The ratio of the redius and height of a cone is 5 : 12, respectively. Its volume is 23147cc. Find its slant height.
(a) 13cm (b) 14cm
(c) 17cm (d) 26cm
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
70. 27 students took part in a debate of a college. What is the probability that at least 3 of them have their birth days in the same month?
(a) 3/27 (b) 3/12
(c) 12 (d) 1
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
71. Who was the first winner of Dada Saheb Phalke Award?
(a) B.N.Sarkar (b) Prithvi Raj Kapoor
(c) Devika Rani (d) Kanan Devi
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
72. How many members are nominated by the President in the Rajya Sabha?
(a) 12 (b) 15
(c) 10 (d) 20
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
73. Who was the founder of Brahmo Samaj?
(a) Raja Rammohan Roy (b) Aurobindo Ghosh
(c) Vivekanand (d) Dyanand Saraswati
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
74. The Parliamentary System in India has been taken from
(a) America (b) Britain
(c) Australia (d) Ireland
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
75. The electric supply in India was first started in
(a) Kolkata (b) Chennai
(c) Mumbai (d) Darjeeling
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
76. Bhatnagar Prize is given in the field of
(a) Peace (b) Music and dance
(c) Science & technology (d) Fine arts
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
77. Who discovered the solar system?
(a) Copernicus (b) Kepler
(c) Aryabhatta (d) Newton
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
78. The Nobel Prize in Economics was started in
(a) 1901 (b) 1936
(c) 1957 (d) 1967
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
79. In India, the second largest in
(a) Bengali (b) Urdu
(c) Telugu (d) Marathi
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
80. The first Asian Games were held in
(a) Manila (b) Tokyo
(c) Jakarta (d) New Delhi
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
81. The Islam was established in
(a) 7th A.D. (b) 5th A.D.
(c) 3rd B.C. (d) 5th B.C.
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
82. The Olympic Games 2012 will be held in
(a) Moscow (b) Paris
(c) New York (d) London
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
83. The main factor of air pollution is
(a) Lead (b) Copper
(c) Zinc (d) Gold
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
84. The bauxite ore is found in
(a) Musabani (b) Karnapura
(c) Koderma (d) Palamu
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
85. The first fertilizer plant in India was established in
(a) Trombay (b) Nangal
(c) Alwaye (d) Sindri
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
86. Which of the following had strong navy?
(a) Bahmani (b) Chalukya
(c) Chola (d) Rashtrakuta
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
87. The last king of Maurya Dynastry was
(a) Brihdarth (b) Kunal
(c) Samprati (d) Salishuk
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
88. How will the image formed by a convex lens be affected if the central part of the lens is covered by black paper?
(a) Remaining part of the lens will form no image
(b) The central position of the image is absent
(c) There will be no effect
(d) The full image will be formed with lessened brightness
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
89. The force between two parallel wires conducting current is used to define
(a) Ampere (b) Coulomb
(c) Volt (d) Newton
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
90. A body is thrown vertically upward and it reaches 10m high. Find the velocity with which the body was thrown? (g = 9.8 m/s)
(a) 10 m/sec. (b) 18 m/sec.
(c) 14 m/sec. (d) 7 m/sec.
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers
91. The buoyancy depends on the
(a) Depth of the fluid (b) Density of the fluid
(c) Volume of the fluid (d) Weight of the fluid
Category :Chennai rrb model Papers

ANSWERS

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (a)
13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (d)
24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (a & b) 30. (b) 31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (a)
35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (b) 41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (a)
47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (a) 51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (a)
59. (d) 60. (d) 61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (c) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (a) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (c)
71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (d) 76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (c) 80. (d) 81. (a) 82. (d)
83. (a) 84. (d) 85. (d) 86. (c) 87. (a) 88. (d) 89. (a) 90. (c) 91. (b)

RRB GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS

1. The only Indian Governor General was—
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
2. . Which plan became the basis for Indian independence ?
(A) Cripps Plan
(B) Wavell Plan
(C) Mountbatten Plan
(D) None of the above
3. Which part of Indian Constitution has been described as the soul of the Constitution ?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principle of State Policy
(C) The Preamble
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
4. Name the Indian who attended all the Three Round Table Conferences—
(A) B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(D) Tej Bahadur Sapru
5. Rabindranath Tagore relinquished his Nighthood as a measure of protest against—
(A) Partition of Bengal
(B) Press Act of 1910
(C) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(D) Salt Laws
6. The 52nd amendment to the Constitution of India deals with—
(A) Defection
(B) Reservation
(C) Election
(D) Protection of minorities
7. The Panchayati Raj was recommended by—
(A) The Government of India Act, 1935
(B) The Cripps Mission of 1942
(C) The Indian Independence Act, 1947
(D) Balwantrai Mehta Committee Report, 1957
8. The President of India can nominate—
(A) 10 members to Rajya Sabha
(B) 2 members to Rajya Sabha
(C) 15 members to Rajya Sabha
(D) 12 members to Rajya Sabha
9. UNO has fixed the target for ‘Education for All’ till the year—
(A) 2012
(B) 2013
(C) 2014
(D) 2015
10. The subjects on which both the Centre and State Governments can legislate are contained in—
(A) The Union List
(B) The State List
(C) The Concurrent List
(D) Residuary List
11. Which State Legislative Assembly has the maximum strength (number of members) ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) West Bengal
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Uttar Pradesh
12. The concept of ‘Fundamental Rights’ enshrined in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from
which country’s constitution ?
(A) France
(B) Britain
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Russia
13. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha has been fixed at—
(A) 540
(B) 545
(C) 552
(D) 555
14. The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on—
(A) August 15, 1947
(B) June 30, 1948
(C) November 26, 1949
(D) January 26, 1950
15. In India the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is appointed by—
(A) President of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
16. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the introduction of money bill ?
(A) Money bill is introduced in Rajya Sabha
(B) It can be introduced in either of the Houses of Parliament
(C) It cannot be introduced in the Lok Sabha
(D) It is introduced in the Lok Sabha
17. Who is the Chairman of the Planning Commission ?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Governor of Reserve Bank
18. The minimum age required for election to Rajya Sabha is—
(A) 25 years
(B) 30 years
(C) 32 years
(D) 35 years
19. Which one of the following taxes is levied and collected by the Union but distributed between
Union and States ?
(A) Corporation tax
(B) Tax on income other than on agricultural income
(C) Tax on railway fares and freights
(D) Customs
20. Sikkim became a new state by–
(A) 30th Amendment
(B) 34th Amendment
(C) 35th Amendment
(D) 36th Amendment
21. On which Indian river is the highest bridge of the world being constructed ?
(A) Chenab
(B) Satluj
(C) Jhelum
(D) Beas
22. Match ListI (category) with ListII (54th National Film Award winners) and select the correct
answer from the codes given below the lists—
ListI
(a) Best Feature Film
(b) Best Popular Film
(c) Best Children Film
(d) Best Hindi Film
ListII
1. Care of Footpath
2. Khosla ka Ghosla
3. Pullijaman
4. Lage Raho Munnabhai
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 4 2 1 3
23. In which district of Uttar Pradesh has the first Police Museum of the country been established ?
(A) Allahabad
(B) Agra
(C) Ghaziabad
(D) Lucknow
24. The Commercial Banks were Nationalised in—
(A) 1947
(B) 1951
(C) 1969
(D) 1992
25. Asia’s first human DNA Bank has been set up in—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Lucknow
(D) Mumbai
26. The distribution of finances between centre and states is done on the recommendation of—
(A) Finance Ministry
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Reserve Bank of India
(D) NABARD
27. In which one of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh has the Indian Carpet Technology
Institute been established ?
(A) Agra
(B) Mirzapur
(C) Moradabad
(D) Sant Ravi Das Nagar
28. Which of the following Banks is first in establishing its branch in China ?
(A) Bank of Baroda
(B) Punjab National Bank
(C) State Bank of India
(D) UCO Bank
29. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan covers—
(A) all children in the age group 3–10
(B) all children in the age group 4–8
(C) all children in the age group 5–15
(D) all children in the age group 6–14
30. Swavalamban Scheme is concerned with providing—
(A) employment to rural women folk
(B) employment to urban women folk
(C) employment to disabled persons
(D) providing training and skills to women
31. Mixed economy means—
(A) existence of both small and big industries
(B) existence of both private and public sectors
(C) existence of both primary and secondary sectors
(D) none of the above
32. How many IITs will be set up in the 11th Five Year Plan ?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
33. Among the following which country has the highest life expectancy at birth (in years) ?
(A) Japan
(B) Denmark
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Switzerland
34. Match ListI with ListII and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
ListI (Place)
(a) Vishakhapatnam
(b) Muri
(c) Gurgaon
(d) Panki
ListII (Industry)
1. Automobile
2. Shipbuilding
3. Fertiliser
4. Aluminium
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 4 3 1
35. Which among the following is a public sector Commercial Bank ?
(A) ICICI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) Indian Overseas Bank
(D) UTI Bank
36. Match ListI with ListII and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
ListI (Mineral Production)
(a) Mineral Oil
(b) Gypsum
(c) Gold
(d) Bauxite
ListII (State)
1. Orissa
2. Karnataka
3. Gujarat
4. Rajasthan
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 3 4 2 1
37. Consider the following statements—
Assertion (A) : Atomic energy in India promises to meet the future energy demand of the
country.
Reason (R) : Atomic minerals are ubiquitous in India.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
38. Which of the following states has the longest coast line ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Kerala
(D) Tamil Nadu
39. Which of the following rock systems in India is the main source of coal deposits ?
(A) Dharwar system
(B) Gondwana system
(C) Cudappa system
(D) Vindhyan system
40. Laterite soil is found in—
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) Maharashtra
41. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Kirghiz — Central Asia
(B) Masai — West Africa
(C) Red Indians — North America
(D) Eskimos — Greenland
42. Chilka lake is situated in—
(A) West Bengal
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Tamil Nadu
43. Damodar is a tributary of river—
(A) Ganga
(B) Hugli
(C) Padma
(D) Suvarn Rekha
44. Sangam Yojana is concerned with—
(A) provision for clean drinking water
(B) provision for cleaning rivers
(C) promoting communal harmony
(D) helping the invalids
45. National Dairy Development Board is located in—
(A) Anand
(B) Gandhinagar
(C) Vadodara
(D) Valsad
46. Economic Planning is included in the Constitution of India in—
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Special List
47. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Kimberley — Diamond
(B) Havana — Meat packing
(C) Milan — Silk
(D) Sheffield — Cutlery
48. Dudhawa National Park is situated in the district of—
(A) Lalitpur
(B) Pilibhit
(C) Lakhimpur Khiri
(D) Sonbhadra
49. The correct descending order of major states of India in terms of density of population (2001)
is—
(A) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar, Kerala
(B) West Bengal, Kerala, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, West Bengal, Bihar
(D) West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala
50. The major coffee producing state in India is—
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal
51. Which one of the following is the most urbanized states of India according to 2001 Census ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) West Bengal
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Kerala
52. According to 2001 Census the least densely populated states of India in ascending order are—
(A) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Nagaland and Sikkim
(B) Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram and Sikkim
(C) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Sikkim and Nagaland
(D) Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Nagaland
53. Among the following which fruit is a rich source of iron ?
(A) Jamun
(B) Karonda
(C) Loquat
(D) Guava
54. Vitamin which promotes wound healing is—
(A) Vitamin B
(B) Vitamin C
(C) Vitamin A
(D) Vitamin D
55. Bauxite is an ore of—
(A) Aluminium
(B) Boron
(C) Lead
(D) Silver
56. Which of the following methods is used to determine the age of the earth ?
(A) Carbon dating
(B) Germanium dating
(C) Uranium dating
(D) All the above
57. Name the gas which under normal conditions produces pollution in the atmosphere ?
(A) Carbon monoxide (CO)
(B) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
(C) Nitrogen (N2)
(D) Oxygen (O2)
58. Electronvolt is the unit for—
(A) energy
(B) charge of electron
(C) potential difference
(D) power
59. An atom bomb is based on the principle of—
(A) nuclear fission
(B) nuclear fusion
(C) nuclear spallation
(D) none of these
60. Titan is the largest moon or satellite of—
(A) Mars
(B) Venus
(C) Jupiter
(D) Saturn
61. The most toxic metal pollutant of the automobile exhaust is—
(A) Copper
(B) Lead
(C) Cadmium
(D) Mercury
62. Which of the following disease is caused by a virus ?
(A) Diphtheria
(B) Malaria
(C) Cholera
(D) Hepatitis
63. If the circumference of a circle is increased by 50%, then the area will be increased by—
(A) 50%
(B) 100%
(C) 125%
(D) 225%
64. The term ‘Siamese Twins’ is used for—
(A) twins in which there is one male and one female
(B) twins in which both are females
(C) twins suffering from a common disease of siam
(D) twins physically attached to each other
65. Every solar eclipse takes place on—
(A) full moon only
(B) new moon only
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) neither (A) nor (B)
66. The headquarter of which of the following is correctly given ?
(A) UNO — London
(B) WTO — Geneva
(C) ILO — New York
(D) FAO — Chicago
67. White bud of maize is caused due to deficiency of—
(A) N
(B) Zn
(C) Cu
(D) Mn
68. A number is 20 more than its 20%. The number is—
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 50
(D) 80
69. The train which was started on April 14, 2008 between Kolkata (India) and Dhaka (Bangladesh)
has been named—
(A) Sadbhavna Express
(B) Shanti Express
(C) Maitri Express
(D) Aman Express
70. Thailand’s Ponsana Boonsak won the men’s singles of the India open Grand Prix Badminton
championship held in Hyderabad in April 2008. In the final he defeated—
(A) Anand Pawar
(B) Arvind Bhat
(C) Chetan Anand
(D) Zhendong Guo
71. Indian Institute of Remote sensing is located at—
(A) Ahmedabad
(B) Dehradun
(C) Shriharikota
(D) None of the above
72. The winner of the 62nd Santosh Trophy, held in June 2008, was—
(A) Karnataka
(B) West Bengal
(C) Services
(D) Punjab
73. Who among the following was the Chief Guest on the occasion of Republic Day, 2008 ?
(A) British Prime Minister Gardon Brown
(B) French President Nicolas Sarcozy
(C) Danish Prime Minister Anders Fogh Rasmussen
(D) Russian President Vladimir Putin
74. In April 2008 fourth convention of Nuclear safety was held in—
(A) Vienna
(B) London
(C) Paris
(D) Rome
75. Who among the following received Padma Vibhushan Award of 2008 ?
1. Madhuri Dixit
2. Ratan Tata
3. Sachin Tendulkar
4. Viswanathan Anand
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
(A) 1, 2
(B) 2, 3
(C) 3, 4
(D) 2, 3, 4
76. March 24 (2008) was observed as—
(A) World AIDS Day
(B) World Disabled Day
(C) World Environment Day
(D) World Tuberculosis (TB) Day
77. Which one of the following pairs of Harappan sites and their locations is not correctly
matched ?
(A) Alamgirpur — Uttar Pradesh
(B) Banawali — Haryana
(C) Diamabad — Maharashtra
(D) Rakhigarhi — Rajasthan
78. Jivaka, the famous physician of the time of Gautama Buddha, was associated with the court of
(A) Bimbisara
(B) Chanda Pradyota
(C) Prasenajeta
(D) Udayana
79. After President’s signature on the recommendation of Delimitation Commission, Parliamentary
and Assembly Constituencies with certain exemptions, will be redefined. Which of the
following are exempted ?
1. Arunachal Pradesh and Manipur
2. Assam
3. Nagaland
4. Jharkhand
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
80. The winner of French Open, 2008 (Ladies singles) was—
(A) Dinara Safina
(B) Ana Ivanovic
(C) Jelena Jankovic
(D) Svetlana Kuznetsova
81. Who among the following was of the view that the Earth revolves round the Sun ?
(A) Aryabhatta
(B) Brahmagupta
(C) Varahamihira
(D) None of the above
82. What is the difference (in years) between the Vikrama and Saka eras ?
(A) 57 years
(B) 78 years
(C) 135 years
(D) 320 years
83. Who among the following rulers paid attention to the water resource management in Girnar
region some centuries before the Christian era ?
1. Mahapadma Nanda
2. Chandragupta Maurya
3. Ashoka
4. Rudradaman
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
(A) 1, 2
(B) 2, 3
(C) 3, 4
(D) 2, 3, 4
84. Ptolemy Philadelphus with whom Ashoka had diplomatic relations was the ruler of—
(A) Cyrene
(B) Egypt
(C) Macedonia
(D) Syria
85. The inscription belonging to which one of the following dynasties confirms the tradition that
Lumbini was the birth place of Sakyamuni Buddha ?
(A) Maurya
(B) Sunga
(C) Satavahana
(D) Kushana
86. Which literature had its classical age under Krishnadeva Raya, the famous Vijayanagara king ?
(A) Konkani
(B) Malayalam
(C) Tamil
(D) Telugu
87. The city of Jaunpur was founded by—
(A) MohammadbinTughlaq
(B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(C) Ibrahim Shah Sharqi
(D) Sikandar Lodi
88. The department of Public Works was established for the first time by—
(A) Alauddin Khalji
(B) Balban
(C) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(D) Iltutmish
89. . Who were the ‘Nayanars’ ?
(A) Saivites
(B) Saktas
(C) Vaishnavites
(D) Sun worshippers
90. Who among the following kings had strong leaning towards Jainism ?
(A) Dasratha
(B) Brihadratha
(C) Kharavela
(D) Huvishka
91. Which one of the following rulers had granted Diwani to the East India Company ?
(A) Farrukhsiyar
(B) Shah AlamI
(C) Shah AlamII
(D) Shujaud Daula
92. The transfer of capital of British India from Calcutta to Delhi was effected during the period of
(A) Lord Minto
(B) Lord Hardinge
(C) Lord Chelmsford
(D) Lord Reading
93. The Durand line demarcated India’s border with—
(A) Afghanistan
(B) Burma
(C) Nepal
(D) Tibet
94. What was the rate of exchange between the Copper Dam and Silver Rupaya under Sher Shah ?
(A) 16 : 1
(B) 32 : 1
(C) 40 : 1
(D) 64 : 1
95. Arrange the following events of Akbar’s reign in a chronological order :
1. Abolition of Jazia
2. Construction of Ibadatkhana
3. Signing of Mahzar
4. Foundation of DiniIlahi
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 2, 3, 4, 1
(C) 1, 3, 2, 4
(D) 3, 4, 1, 2
96. After the arrest of Gandhiji during the Salt Satyagraha, who took his place as leader of the
movement ?
(A) Abbas Tyabji
(B) Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Vallabhbhai Patel
97. Which one of the following revolutionaries involved in Kakori case had escaped the trial ?
(A) Sachindra Nath Bakshi
(B) Mukundi Lal
(C) Chandra Shekhar Azad
(D) Manmath Nath Gupta
98. Who changed the name of Hindustan Republic Association founded by Sachindra Sanyal to
‘Hindustan Socialist Republic Association’ ?
(A) Ras Behari Bose
(B) Batukeshwar Datt
(C) Sardar Bhagat Singh
(D) Chandra Shekhar Azad
99. Which one of the following revolutionaries was executed in the Gorakhpur Jail ?
(A) Ramprasad Bismil
(B) Rajendra Lahiri
(C) Roshan Singh
(D) Ashfaqullah Khan
100.Whose sustained efforts led to the establishment of the first women’s university in Bombay ?
(A) Dayaram Gidumal
(B) D. K. Karve
(C) Ramabai
(D) Mahadev Govind Ranade

ANSWERS:
1. (A) 41. (B) 81. (A)
2. (C) 42. (C) 82. (C)
3. (D) 43. (B) 83. (D)
4. (A) 44. (D) 84. (B)
5. (C) 45. (A) 85. (A)
6. (A) 46. (C) 86. (D)
7. (D) 47. (C) 87. (B)
8. (D) 48. (C) 88. (C)
9. (D) 49. (B) 89. (A)
10. (C) 50. (B) 90. (C)
11. (D) 51. (C) 91. (C)
12. (C) 52. (C) 92. (B)
13. (C) 53. (A) 93. (A)
14. (C) 54. (C) 94. (C)
15. (C) 55. (A) 95. (A)
16. (D) 56. (C) 96. (A)
17. (B) 57. (A) 97. (A)
18. (B) 58. (A) 98. (C)
19. (B) 59. (A) 99. (A)
20. (C) 60. (D) 100.(B)
21. (A) 61. (B)
22. (B) 62. (D)
23. (C) 63. (D)
24. (C) 64. (D)
25. (C) 65. (B)
26. (B) 66. (B)
27. (D) 67. (B)
28. (C) 68. (B)
29. (D) 69. (C)
30. (D) 70. (C)
31. (B) 71. (D)
32. (C) 72. (D)
33. (A) 73. (B)
34. (B) 74. (A)
35. (C) 75. (B)
36. (D) 76. (D)
37. (C) 77. (D)
38. (A) 78. (A)
39. (B) 79. (D)
40. (D) 80. (B)