Showing posts with label MODEL PAPERS. Show all posts
Showing posts with label MODEL PAPERS. Show all posts

Tuesday, July 19, 2011

RRB PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER

1. An emulsion is a colloid of a—
(A) Gas in a liquid
(B) Liquid in a liquid
(C) Liquid in a gas
(D) Gas in a solid
2. Percentage of carbon in steel ranges from—
(A) 0.1 to 1.5
(B) 1.5 to 3.0
(C) 3.0 to 4.0
(D) 4.0 to 6.0
3. Which of the following is not present in German-silver ?
(A) Copper
(B) Nickel
(C) Silver
(D) Zinc
4. According to the latest estimates, the literacy rate (% of population) in India is—
(A) 63%
(B) 65%
(C) 67%
(D) 68%
5. Who won the U.S. Open (Lawn Tennis) in September 2007 ?
(A) Novak Djokovic
(B) Roger Federer
(C) Rafael Nadal
(D) None of the above
6. Who propounded the theory of ‘Economic Drain of India’ during British imperialism ?
(A) W. C. Bannerji
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Gopalkrishna Gokhale
(D) Gandhiji
7. First Indian Commander-in-Chief was—
(A) Gen. K.S. Thimayya
(B) Gen. K. M. Kariappa
(C) S. H. F. J. Manekshaw
(D) None of the above
8. A computer virus is—
(A) A chemical that attacks silicon.
(B) A micro-organism that destroys integrated circuits
(C) Data that the computer fails to handle
(D) A special kind of computer programme
9. India has a coastline of—
(A) 5500 km
(B) 6500 km
(C) 7500 km
(D) 8400 km
10. Jawahar Tunnel, the largest in India is located in the State of—
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Karnataka
(D) Himachal Pradesh
11. The most literate union territory in India is—
(A) Delhi
(B) Lakshadweep
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Puducherry
12. Which of the following is the smallest Parliamentary Constituency in terms of area ?
(A) Chandni Chowk (Delhi)
(B) Sadar (Delhi)
(C) Kolkata North West
(D) Mumbai South
13. Who is the author of the book ‘Two Lives’ ?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) James Patterson
(C) Ved Mehta
(D) Khushwant Singh
14. Which of the following sets of countries are referred to as ‘The Golden Crescent’ the largest opium industry in the world ?
(A) Myanmar, Laos and Thailand
(B) Afghanistan, Iran and Iraq
(C) Afghanistan, Pakistan and Iran
(D) Myanmar, Malaysia and Thailand
15. Which is the anti-coagulant substance in blood ?
(A) Fibrinogen
(B) Heparin
(C) Thrombin
(D) Globin
16. Which group of the following countries participated in the ‘Malabar 07,’ a six days joint naval exercise (September 4-9) involving 25 warships, in the Bay of Bengal ?
(A) India, U. S., Japan, Australia and South Korea
(B) India, U.S., Australia, Singapore and South Korea
(C) India, U.S., Japan, Singapore and Australia
(D) India, U.S., Japan, Singapore and South Korea
17. Who coined the term ‘Hindu rate of growth’ for Indian economy ?
(A) A. K. Sen
(B) Kirit S. Parikh
(C) Raj Krishna
(D) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
18. Sri ARVIND KEJRIWAL has been selected for the RAMON MAGSAYSAY AWARD for 2006 for his important contribution in the field—
(A) Formation of Pani (water) Panchayats in Rajasthan helping rural people in facing their acute water problem
(B) Effective implementation of the ‘National Minimum Employment Guarantee Scheme’ in rural areas
(C) ‘Right to Information’ movement and empowering citizens to fight corruption
(D) Extending education to children of slum dwellers in Delhi
19. The three day VIII World Hindi Conference was held in July, 2007 at—
(A) New Delhi
(B) London
(C) Now York
(D) Kathmandu
20. In which country is the volcano Mount Gamkonora, the highest peak of Halmahera island, which erupted in July, 2007 located ?
(A) Japan
(B) Indonesia
(C) Russia
(D) France
21. Name the Vice-captain of the Indian Cricket Team which toured South Africa in T-20 tournament recently—
(A) Virender Sehwag
(B) Anil Kumble
(C) Irfan Pathan
(D) Yuvraj Singh
22. The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) consists of—
(A) China, Russia, Kazhakistan, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan
(B) China, Russia, Mongolia, Kazhakistan, Uzbekistan and Tajikistan
(C) China, Russia, Mongolia, Iran, Kazhakistan and Uzbekistan
(D) China, Russia, Iran, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan
23. Which one of the following companies announced sometime back the launch of India’s first personal computer with one terabyte hard drive capacity ?
(A) Infosys Technologies
(B) Wipro
(C) HCL Infosystems
(D) IBM
24. Which of the following companies has become the highest ranked Indian company in the Fortune Global 500 list (at 135th position) in terms of sales ?
(A) Wipro
(B) Reliance
(C) Indian Oil Corporation
(D) ONGC
25. Which one of the following has not been included in the list of new seven wonders ?
(A) Roman Colosseum (Italy)
(B) Machu Picchu (Peru)
(C) Eiffel Tower in Paris (France)
(D) Christ the Redeemer (Brazil)
26. The Chairman of the Indian Censor Board of Film is—
(A) Shri Anupam Kher
(B) Shri Gulzar
(C) Smt. Sharmila Tagore
(D) Shri Sanjeev Kumar
27. The major harmful gas emitted by automobile vehicles which causes air pollution is—
(A) Carbon Monoxide
(B) Methane
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Ozone gas
28. Who among the following is not a classical economist ?
(A) David Ricardo
(B) John Stuart Mill
(C) Thomas Malthus
(D) John Maynard Keynes
29. According to the Employment Outlook 2007 reports of the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), the number of new jobs created in India every year from 2000 to 2005 is—
(A) 5 million
(B) 8 million
(C) 11 million
(D) 13 million
30. ‘World Bank’ is also known as—
(A) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(B) International Bank for Rehabilitation and Development
(C) International Bank for Refinance and Development
(D) International Bank for Research and Development
31. By which Bill does the Government propose collection of revenues for a year ?
(A) Economic Bill
(B) Finance Bill
(C) Supplementary Bill
(D) None of the above
32. Which is the oldest trade union organization in India ?
(A) Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC)
(B) Centre of Indian Trade Unions (CITU)
(C) All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC)
(D) Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh (BMS)
33. Prof. Amartya Sen was awarded Nobel Prize for his contribution to the field of—
(A) Food and Famines
(B) Welfare economics
(C) Indian economy
(D) Poverty
34. Which of the following items is a major item of Indian export ?
(A) Computer chips
(B) Potato chips
(C) Textile garments
(D) Car engines
35. Indian agriculture is typically characterised as—
(A) Land surplus, labour scarce economy
(B) Land surplus, labour surplus economy
(C) Land scarce, labour surplus economy
(D) Land scarce, labour scarce economy
36. The process of curing inflation by reducing money supply is called—
(A) Cost-push inflation
(B) Demand-pull inflation
(C) Disinflation
(D) Reflation
37. Which of the following pair of goods are close substitutes ?
(A) Milk and Sugar
(B) Sugar and Tea
(C) Tea and Coffee
(D) Coffee and Biscuits
38. Long-term funds in the capital market can be raised either by borrowing from certain institutions or through—
(A) Issue of note
(B) Taking loan from Government
(C) Issue of securities
(D) Taking loan from foreign institutions
39. As required by the WTO agreement, the Indian Patent Act was amended in 1999. The Act first came into force in the year—
(A) 1965
(B) 1970
(C) 1975
(D) 1980
40. The Indian Parliament is competent to enact law on a State subject if—
(A) Emergency under Article 352 is in operation
(B) All the State Assemblies of the country make such a request
(C) The President sends such a message to Parliament
(D) None of the above
41. The President of India enjoys emergency powers of—
(A) Four types
(B) Two types
(C) Five types
(D) Three types
42. Sarvodaya stands for—
(A) Total revolution
(B) Non-cooperation
(C) Upliftment of all
(D) Non-violence
43. Right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights during the rule of—
(A) Indira Gandhi Government
(B) Morarji Desai Government
(C) Narasimha Rao Government
(D) Vajpayee Government
44. The chapter or Fundamental Duties includes—
(A) Duty to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our freedom movement
(B) Duty to vote in General Election
(C) Duty to promote the sense of fraternity among the people
(D) Duty to stick to the political party on whose ticket one contested election
45. In which city of South Africa was Gandhi beaten up and thrown off the pavement by the white people ?
(A) Cape Town
(B) Durban
(C) Johannesburg
(D) Pretoria
46. A national political party is one which receives 4% of the total votes polled in—
(A) Two or more States
(B) The capital city
(C) Four or more States
(D) In all the States
47. The basic features of the Indian Constitution which are not amendable under Article 368 are—
(A) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system and judicial review
(B) Sovereignty, territorial integrity and parliamentary system of government
(C) Judicial review and the federal system
(D) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system, judicial review and parliamentary system of government
48. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy ?
(A) Part I
(B) Part III
(C) Part IV
(D) Part V
49. How many types of writs can be issued by the Supreme Court ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 6
50. Which of the following countries is not a member of the SAARC ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Bhutan
(C) Maldives
(D) Myanmar

Answers :
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (C)
4. (B) As per population census 2001 the literacy rate in India is 64•8%.
5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (C)
10. (A) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (C)
15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (C)
20. (B) 21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (C)
25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (C)
30. (A) 31. (B)
32. (C) AITUC was established is 1920, which was the first national level trade union organisation in India to organise workers in the country.
33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (C) 36. (C) 37. (C)
38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (A) 41. (D) 42. (C)
43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (B) 46. (C) 47. (D)
48. (C) 49. (C) 50. (D)

Tuesday, July 5, 2011

RRB PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. An emulsion is a colloid of a—
(A) Gas in a liquid
(B) Liquid in a liquid
(C) Liquid in a gas
(D) Gas in a solid

2. Percentage of carbon in steel ranges from—
(A) 0.1 to 1.5
(B) 1.5 to 3.0
(C) 3.0 to 4.0
(D) 4.0 to 6.0

3. Which of the following is not present in German-silver ?
(A) Copper
(B) Nickel
(C) Silver
(D) Zinc

4. According to the latest estimates, the literacy rate (% of population) in India is—
(A) 63%
(B) 65%
(C) 67%
(D) 68%

5. Who won the U.S. Open (Lawn Tennis) in September 2007 ?
(A) Novak Djokovic
(B) Roger Federer
(C) Rafael Nadal
(D) None of the above

6. Who propounded the theory of 'Economic Drain of India' during British imperialism ?
(A) W. C. Bannerji
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Gopalkrishna Gokhale
(D) Gandhiji

7. First Indian Commander-in-Chief was—
(A) Gen. K.S. Thimayya
(B) Gen. K. M. Kariappa
(C) S. H. F. J. Manekshaw
(D) None of the above

8. A computer virus is—
(A) A chemical that attacks silicon.
(B) A micro-organism that destroys integrated circuits
(C) Data that the computer fails to handle
(D) A special kind of computer programme

9. India has a coastline of—
(A) 5500 km
(B) 6500 km
(C) 7500 km
(D) 8400 km

10. Jawahar Tunnel, the largest in India is located in the State of—
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Karnataka
(D) Himachal Pradesh

11. The most literate union territory in India is—
(A) Delhi
(B) Lakshadweep
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Puducherry

12. Which of the following is the smallest Parliamentary Constituency in terms of area ?
(A) Chandni Chowk (Delhi)
(B) Sadar (Delhi)
(C) Kolkata North West
(D) Mumbai South

13. Who is the author of the book 'Two Lives' ?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) James Patterson
(C) Ved Mehta
(D) Khushwant Singh

14. Which of the following sets of countries are referred to as 'The Golden Crescent' the largest opium industry in the world ?
(A) Myanmar, Laos and Thailand
(B) Afghanistan, Iran and Iraq
(C) Afghanistan, Pakistan and Iran
(D) Myanmar, Malaysia and Thailand

15. Which is the anti-coagulant substance in blood ?
(A) Fibrinogen
(B) Heparin
(C) Thrombin
(D) Globin

16. Which group of the following countries participated in the 'Malabar 07,' a six days joint naval exercise (September 4-9) involving 25 warships, in the Bay of Bengal ?
(A) India, U. S., Japan, Australia and South Korea
(B) India, U.S., Australia, Singapore and South Korea
(C) India, U.S., Japan, Singapore and Australia
(D) India, U.S., Japan, Singapore and South Korea

17. Who coined the term 'Hindu rate of growth' for Indian economy ?
(A) A. K. Sen
(B) Kirit S. Parikh
(C) Raj Krishna
(D) Montek Singh Ahluwalia

18. Sri ARVIND KEJRIWAL has been selected for the RAMON MAGSAYSAY AWARD for 2006 for his important contribution in the field—
(A) Formation of Pani (water) Panchayats in Rajasthan helping rural people in facing their acute water problem
(B) Effective implementation of the 'National Minimum Employment Guarantee Scheme' in rural areas
(C) 'Right to Information' movement and empowering citizens to fight corruption
(D) Extending education to children of slum dwellers in Delhi

19. The three day VIII World Hindi Conference was held in July, 2007 at—
(A) New Delhi
(B) London
(C) Now York
(D) Kathmandu

20. In which country is the volcano Mount Gamkonora, the highest peak of Halmahera island, which erupted in July, 2007 located ?
(A) Japan
(B) Indonesia
(C) Russia
(D) France

21. Name the Vice-captain of the Indian Cricket Team which toured South Africa in T-20 tournament recently—
(A) Virender Sehwag
(B) Anil Kumble
(C) Irfan Pathan
(D) Yuvraj Singh

22. The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) consists of—
(A) China, Russia, Kazhakistan, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan
(B) China, Russia, Mongolia, Kazhakistan, Uzbekistan and Tajikistan
(C) China, Russia, Mongolia, Iran, Kazhakistan and Uzbekistan
(D) China, Russia, Iran, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan

23. Which one of the following companies announced sometime back the launch of India's first personal computer with one terabyte hard drive capacity ?
(A) Infosys Technologies
(B) Wipro
(C) HCL Infosystems
(D) IBM

24. Which of the following companies has become the highest ranked Indian company in the Fortune Global 500 list (at 135th position) in terms of sales ?
(A) Wipro
(B) Reliance
(C) Indian Oil Corporation
(D) ONGC

25. Which one of the following has not been included in the list of new seven wonders ?
(A) Roman Colosseum (Italy)
(B) Machu Picchu (Peru)
(C) Eiffel Tower in Paris (France)
(D) Christ the Redeemer (Brazil)

26. The Chairman of the Indian Censor Board of Film is—
(A) Shri Anupam Kher
(B) Shri Gulzar
(C) Smt. Sharmila Tagore
(D) Shri Sanjeev Kumar

27. The major harmful gas emitted by automobile vehicles which causes air pollution is—
(A) Carbon Monoxide
(B) Methane
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Ozone gas

28. Who among the following is not a classical economist ?
(A) David Ricardo
(B) John Stuart Mill
(C) Thomas Malthus
(D) John Maynard Keynes

29. According to the Employment Outlook 2007 reports of the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), the number of new jobs created in India every year from 2000 to 2005 is—
(A) 5 million
(B) 8 million
(C) 11 million
(D) 13 million

30. 'World Bank' is also known as—
(A) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(B) International Bank for Rehabilitation and Development
(C) International Bank for Refinance and Development
(D) International Bank for Research and Development

31. By which Bill does the Government propose collection of revenues for a year ?
(A) Economic Bill
(B) Finance Bill
(C) Supplementary Bill
(D) None of the above

32. Which is the oldest trade union organization in India ?
(A) Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC)
(B) Centre of Indian Trade Unions (CITU)
(C) All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC)
(D) Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh (BMS)

33. Prof. Amartya Sen was awarded Nobel Prize for his contribution to the field of—
(A) Food and Famines
(B) Welfare economics
(C) Indian economy
(D) Poverty

34. Which of the following items is a major item of Indian export ?
(A) Computer chips
(B) Potato chips
(C) Textile garments
(D) Car engines

35. Indian agriculture is typically characterised as—
(A) Land surplus, labour scarce economy
(B) Land surplus, labour surplus economy
(C) Land scarce, labour surplus economy
(D) Land scarce, labour scarce economy

36. The process of curing inflation by reducing money supply is called—
(A) Cost-push inflation
(B) Demand-pull inflation
(C) Disinflation
(D) Reflation

37. Which of the following pair of goods are close substitutes ?
(A) Milk and Sugar
(B) Sugar and Tea
(C) Tea and Coffee
(D) Coffee and Biscuits

38. Long-term funds in the capital market can be raised either by borrowing from certain institutions or through—
(A) Issue of note
(B) Taking loan from Government
(C) Issue of securities
(D) Taking loan from foreign institutions

39. As required by the WTO agreement, the Indian Patent Act was amended in 1999. The Act first came into force in the year—
(A) 1965
(B) 1970
(C) 1975
(D) 1980

40. The Indian Parliament is competent to enact law on a State subject if—
(A) Emergency under Article 352 is in operation
(B) All the State Assemblies of the country make such a request
(C) The President sends such a message to Parliament
(D) None of the above

41. The President of India enjoys emergency powers of—
(A) Four types
(B) Two types
(C) Five types
(D) Three types

42. Sarvodaya stands for—
(A) Total revolution
(B) Non-cooperation
(C) Upliftment of all
(D) Non-violence

43. Right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights during the rule of—
(A) Indira Gandhi Government
(B) Morarji Desai Government
(C) Narasimha Rao Government
(D) Vajpayee Government

44. The chapter or Fundamental Duties includes—
(A) Duty to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our freedom movement
(B) Duty to vote in General Election
(C) Duty to promote the sense of fraternity among the people
(D) Duty to stick to the political party on whose ticket one contested election

45. In which city of South Africa was Gandhi beaten up and thrown off the pavement by the white people ?
(A) Cape Town
(B) Durban
(C) Johannesburg
(D) Pretoria

46. A national political party is one which receives 4% of the total votes polled in—
(A) Two or more States
(B) The capital city
(C) Four or more States
(D) In all the States

47. The basic features of the Indian Constitution which are not amendable under Article 368 are—
(A) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system and judicial review
(B) Sovereignty, territorial integrity and parliamentary system of government
(C) Judicial review and the federal system
(D) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system, judicial review and parliamentary system of government

48. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy ?
(A) Part I
(B) Part III
(C) Part IV
(D) Part V

49. How many types of writs can be issued by the Supreme Court ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 6

50. Which of the following countries is not a member of the SAARC ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Bhutan
(C) Maldives
(D) Myanmar

51. The Supreme Court of India enjoys—
(A) Original jurisdictions
(B) Advisory jurisdictions
(C) Appellate and advisory jurisdictions
(D) Original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions

52. Who attended the Congress of Oppressed Nationalists at Brussels in 1927, on behalf of the National Congress ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Dr. Ansari
(D) Motilal Nehru

53. Who amongst the following made it possible for the Indians to enter the Indian Civil Service through an open competitive examination ?
(A) William Bentinck
(B) Dalhousie
(C) Mayo
(D) Ripon

54. In which year Lala Lajpat Rai was deported to Mandalay for organising the agrarian movement in Punjab ?
(A) 1905
(B) 1907
(C) 1909
(D) 1911

55. Which Governor General had entertained Ranjit Singh with great honour at Ropar ?
(A) Minto I
(B) William Bentinck
(C) Hastings
(D) Auckland

56. The Khajli Sultans of Delhi were—
(A) Mongols
(B) Afghans
(C) Turks
(D) A Jat tribe

57. The 'Arya Samaj' was founded by—
(A) Swami Dayananda Saraswati
(B) Swami Vivekananda
(C) Keshav Chandra Sen
(D) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

58. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad started an Urdu Weekly, The Al-Hilal in 1912, but, on its being banned by the Government, he founded the Al-Balagh in—
(A) 1913
(B) 1914
(C) 1915
(D) 1916

59. High Courts were established in Calcutta, Bombay and Madras in—
(A) 1935
(B) 1919
(C) 1892
(D) 1862

60. Who was the first Woman President of Indian National Congress ?
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Sucheta Kripalani
(C) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
(D) Annie Besant

61. Arabs were defeated in 738 A. D. by—
(A) Pratiharas
(B) Rashtrakutas
(C) Palas
(D) Chalukyas

62. Which of the following reform movements was the first to be started in the 19th century ?
(A) Prarthana Samaj
(B) Brahmo Samaj
(C) Arya Samaj
(D) Rama Krishna Mission

63. The rulers of Vijayanagar promoted—
(A) Hindi, Marathi and Sanskrit
(B) Malayalam, Tamil and Sanskrit
(C) Tamil, Telugu and Sanskrit
(D) Telugu, Urdu and Sanskrit

64. In India, the irrigation of agricultural land is carried out maximum by—
(A) Canals
(B) Wells
(C) Tubewells
(D) Tanks

65. The four largest planets of the Solar System in decreasing sizes are—
(A) Jupiter, Mercury, Saturn and Uranus
(B) Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn and Neptune
(C) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune
(D) Jupiter, Mercury, Saturn and Neptune

66. Which of the following produces maximum crude petroleum in India at present ?
(A) Assam
(B) Gujarat
(C) Off-shore Bombay High
(D) Coastal Tamil Nadu

67. India is one of the largest producers of manganese are in the world along with—
(A) China and Russia
(B) Brazil and Russia
(C) Australia and U.S.A.
(D) South Africa and U.S.A.

68. The 'Chipko Movement' is related to—
(A) Wildlife preservation
(B) Forest conservation
(C) Scientific agriculture
(D) Deforestation

69. Which of the following rivers makes an estuary ?
(A) Cauvery
(B) Krishna
(C) Narmada
(D) Ganga

70. Baltora glacier is located in—
(A) Karakoram ranges
(B) Pamir plateau
(C) Shivalik
(D) Alps

71. The largest producer of world's mica is—
(A) U.S.A.
(B) U.K.
(C) Canada
(D) India

72. The International Date Line is the—
(A) 180° Longitude
(B) 88½° East Longitude
(C) Equator
(D) 0° Longitude

73. Which of the following countries has highest percentage of land under cultivation ?
(A) China
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Canada
(D) India

74. Aryabhata was launched from—
(A) Sriharikota
(B) Mahe
(C) Chandipur
(D) Daman

75. How for does the Exclusive Economic Zone of a country extend from her coast ?
(A) 120 km
(B) 220 km
(C) 320 km
(D) 420 km

76. In which of the following groups, animals bear no teeth ?
(A) Peacock, Ostrich, Tortoise
(B) Owl, Loris, Crow
(C) Alligator, Turtle, Tortoise
(D) Turtle, Kiwi, Cow

77. Jaundice is a symptom of disease of—
(A) Kidney
(B) Liver
(C) Pancreas
(D) Thyroid

78. The vaccination against small pox involves the introduction of—
(A) Killed germs
(B) Weakened germs
(C) Live antibodies
(D) Activated germs

79. Deficiency of Vitamin B6 in man causes—
(A) Rickets
(B) Scurvy
(C) Beri-beri
(D) Anaemia

80. Which is the national flower of India ?
(A) Rose
(B) Lotus
(C) Lily
(D) Sunflower

81. First successful heart transplantation was done by—
(A) D. S. Paintal
(B) C. N. Barnard
(C) D. Shetty
(D) P. K. Sen

82. Yellow Fever is transmitted by—
(A) Aedes
(B) Anopheles
(C) House-fly
(D) Culex

83. Which one of the following is a major green house gas ?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Chloro fluorocarbon
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Freon

84. In atmosphere the lowermost layer is—
(A) Troposphere
(B) Exosphere
(C) Ionosphere
(D) Strato sphere

85. Washing of peeled vegetables removes the vitamin—
(A) A
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E

86. Pasteurisation is the process in which milk is heated to—
(A) 60° C for 10 minutes
(B) 63° C for 20 minutes
(C) 63° C for 30 minutes
(D) 72° C for 10 minutes

87. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer from the code given below :
List-I (Discoverer)
(a) Jenner
(b) Watson
(c) Landsteiner
(d) Flemming
List-II (Discoveries)
1. Blood grouping
2. Penicillin
3. Vaccination
4. Double helix
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 2 4 1

88. Which of the following is most elastic ?
(A) Rubber
(B) Wet clay
(C) Steel
(D) Plastic

89. The first ever robot spacecraft to probe planet Venus was named—
(A) Galileo
(B) Magellan
(C) Newton
(D) Challenger

90. A man with colour blindness will see red as—
(A) Yellow
(B) Blue
(C) Green
(D) Violet

91. Comets revolve around the—
(A) Earth
(B) Venus
(C) Sun
(D) Jupiter

92. When a person walking in bright Sunlight enters a dark room, he is not able to see clearly for a little while because—
(A) The eye muscles cannot immediately adjust the focal length of the eye lens
(B) The retina retains the bright images for sometime and becomes momentarily insensitive
(C) The iris is, unable to contract the pupil immediately
(D) The iris is unable to dilate the pupil immediately

93. The swing of a spinning cricket ball in air can be explained on the basis of—
(A) Sudden change in wind direction
(B) Buoyancy of air
(C) Turbulance caused by wind
(D) Bernoulli's theorem

94. The freezer in a refrigerator is fitted near the top—
(A) To keep it away from hot compressor which is nearer to the bottom
(B) Because of convenience
(C) It facilitates convection currents
(D) To minimise power consumption

95. The chemical name of 'Common salt' is—
(A) Sodium chloride
(B) Sodium nitrate
(C) Ammonium chloride
(D) Calcium chloride

96. Denatured spirit is ethanol mixed with—
(A) Petrol
(B) Kerosene
(C) Water
(D) Pyridine

97. The metal, which is a constituent of vitamin B12 is—
(A) Iron
(B) Magnesium
(C) Zinc
(D) Cobalt

98. The most abundant inert gas in the atmosphere is—
(A) Helium
(B) Neon
(C) Argon
(D) Krypton

99. Which metal is extracted from sea water ?
(A) Potassium
(B) Magnesium
(C) Aluminium
(D) Beryllium

100. Precentage of lead in lead pencils is—
(A) 0
(B) 31 – 66
(C) 40
(D) 80

Answers :
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (C)
4. (B) As per population census 2001 the literacy rate in India is 64•8%.
5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (C)
10. (A) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (C)
15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (C)
20. (B) 21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (C)
25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (C)
30. (A) 31. (B)
32. (C) AITUC was established is 1920, which was the first national level trade union organisation in India to organise workers in the country.
33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (C) 36. (C) 37. (C)
38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (A) 41. (D) 42. (C)
43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (B) 46. (C) 47. (D)
48. (C) 49. (C) 50. (D) 51. (D) 52. (A)
53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (B) 56. (C) 57. (A)
58. (C) 59. (D) 60. (D) 61. (A) 62. (B)
63. (C) 64. (A) 65. (C) 66. (A) 67. (A)
68. (B) 69. (D) 70. (A) 71. (D) 72. (A)
73. (D) In India cultivated land is nearly 55% while in USA it is only 44%.
74. First Indian satellite Aryabhata was launched on April 19, 1975 by the Soviet rocket, Cosmodrome (Soviet Union).
75. (C) 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (D)
80. (B) 81. (B) 82. (A) 83. (A) 84. (A)
85. (B) 86. (C) 87. (C) 88. (C) 89. (B)
90. (C) 91. (C) 92. (B) 93. (D) 94. (C)
95. (A) 96. (C) 97. (D) 98. (C) 99. (B)
100. (A)

Sunday, February 6, 2011

RRB ASM MODEL PAPER

1. The bent-up length of rail used in front of nose of crossing which help in channelising the train wheels in their proper routes are known as:
(a) lead rail
(b) point rail
(c) wing rail
(d) splice rail
Ans:- C

2. The point up to which the new railway track laid, at any time is called:
(a) terminal
(b) Station
(c) rail-head
(d) Base
Ans:- C

3. The good quality wood for sleeper is:
(a) Deodar
(b) Sheesham
(c) Teak
(d) Sal
Ans:- C

4. Generally the life of wooden sleepers is taken as:
(a) 2 to 3 years
(b) 12 to 15 years
(c) 35 to 50 years
(d) 5 to 8 years
Ans:- B

5. The gradual or tapered widening of the flange way which is formed by bending and splaying the end of check rail or wing rail away from the gauge line is known as:
(a) Flare
(b) Toe
(c) Heel
(d) Loop
Ans:- A

6. The minimum height of embankment above the highest flood mark in the area should be:
(a) zero cm
(b) 30 cm
(c) 100 cm
(d) 60 cm
Ans:- D

7. The recommended depth of ballast cushion on a curved portion of a track is provided under the …….. edge of the sleeper.
(a) upper
(b) middle
(c) inner
(d) outer
Ans:- C

8. An outward slope provided on the tread of the wheel is:
(a) 1 in 5
(b) 1 in 10
(c) 1 in 20
(d) 1 in 25
Ans:- C

9. The granular material spread on the formation of a railway track for the sleepers to rest upon is known as:
(a) anchors
(b) ballast
(c) subgrade
(d) chairs
Ans:- B

10. Bone shaped section of fish plate is commonly used for connecting:
(a) double headed rails
(b) flat footed rails
(c) bull headed rails
(d) all above are correct
Ans:- B

11. The members laid transversely under the rails for supporting and fixing them at the gauge distance apart are known as:
(a) fastenings
(b) sleepers
(c) ballast
(d) fish plate
Ans:- B

12. The bottom width of foot in a flat footed rail is:
(a) 78.6 mm
(b) 136.5 mm
(c) 66.7 mm
(d) 70 mm
Ans:- B

13. The rectangular pits in which wheels of the locomotives are taken out for repairs, are known as:
(a) Track pits
(b) Inspection pits
(c) Drop pits
(d) Siding pits
Ans:- C

14. The wheels are coned to prevent from rubbing the inside face of the rail head and to prevent lateral movement of the axle with its wheels. The slope of cone is:
(a) 1 in 5
(b) 1 in 20
(c) 1 in 10
(d) 1 in 15
Ans:- B

15. Gauge is the distance measured in place of the between which faces of two parallel rails in a track.
(a) inner faces
(b) centre line of one rail to inner face of other rail
(c) centre lines
(d) outer faces
Ans:- A

16. Most significant which imposes limitations in raising the high speeds is:
(a) adhesion of wheels
(b) resistance due to oscillations
(c) flange resistance
(d) air or wind resistance
Ans:- A

17. The rails are welded by:
(a) Thermit welding
(b) Gas welding
(c) Arc welding
(d) MIG welding
Ans:- A

18. Steel sleepers are ….. shaped in section.
(a) oval
(b) rectangular
(c) trough
(d) semi-spherical
Ans:- C

19. In India generally the sleeper density of sleepers per rail length used is:
(a) 18
(b) 30
(c) 12
(d) 24
Ans:- A

20. The extra rails provided over bridge to prevent damage and danger in case of derailment on the bridge are known as:
(a) Stock rails
(b) Guard rails
(c) Check rails
(d) Wing rails
Ans:- B

21. The phenomenon of misalignment of rails due to temperature change is known as:
(a) cropping
(b) creeping
(c) bulging
(d) buckling
Ans:- D

22. Creep is the ….. movement of rails.
(a) longitudinal
(b) diagonal
(c) horizontal
(d) vertical
Ans:- A

23. Ballast best suited to steel sleepers is:
(a) sand
(b) Gravel
(c) Quartzite
(d) All the above
Ans:- C

24. The section of a rail is decided on the basis of:
(a) Type of rails
(b) Spacing of the sleepers
(c) Speed of trains
(d) All of the above
Ans:- D

25. While preparing sub-grade of a railway line, the grubbing operation means:
(a) checking of subgrade
(b) filling or cutting of earth work in railway subgrade
(c) compaction and consolidation of earth work
(d) removal and disposal of stumps and roots trees
Ans:- D

26. The sinuous path taken by an engine as against the alignment of the track is known as:
(a) Rolling motion
(b) Nosing motion
(c) Lurching motion
(d) Vibration
Ans:- B

27. The mechanical device which transfer chemical energy of fuel into mechanical energy in the form of motion is called:
(a) rolling stock
(b) railway
(c) wagon
(d) locomotive
Ans:- D

28. Integrated coach factory is located in:
(a) Chennai
(b) Bangalore
(c) Jamshedpur
(d) Mumbai
Ans:- A

29. C.T.C. stands for:
(a) Critical Track Control
(b) Critical Traffic Channeliser
(c) Centralised Traffic Control
(d) None of these
Ans:- C

30. To reduce the intensity of pressure particularly on soft variety of sleepers, a rectangular plate is introduced between the rails and the sleepers. This is known as:
(a) Fish plate
(b) Chair
(c) Saddle plate
(d) Bearing plate
Ans:- D

31. Generally the rail sections used in India is:
(a) flat footed
(b) double headed
(c) bull headed
(d) all above
Ans:- A

32. The arrangement consisting of three tracks used for changing the direction of engine is called:
(a) three ladder track
(b) turn table
(c) three throw switch
(d) triangle
Ans:- B

33. The length of a wooden sleeper for broad gauge track is:
(a) 1.83 m
(b) 1.52 m
(c) 2.74 m
(d) 1.676 m
Ans:- C

34. The technical officer of the rank of sectional officer in the maintenance organisation of Indian Railways is called:
(a) Permanent Way Inspector
(b) Gangmate
(c) Assistant Permanent Way Inspector
(d) None of these are correct
Ans:- C

35. The depth of ballast section under sleeper for broad gauge track as per Indian standard should be:
(a) 250 to 300 mm
(b) 200 to 250 mm
(c) 150 to 200 mm
(d) 150 mm
Ans:- B

36. The completed and finished railway line on which wheeled vehicles are drawn by locomotive is known as:
(a) steel way
(b) rails
(c) railway
(d) permanent way
Ans:- D

37. The horse power to weight ratio steam engine is generally of the order of:
(a) 10-15 kg/HP
(b) 60-80 kg/HP
(c) 20-30 kg/HP
(d) 100-150 kg/HP
Ans:- B

38. The cause of formation of kinks in a rail is:
(a) Loose packing at joints
(b) Defect in gauge and alignment
(c) Defect in cross level joints
(d) Any of the above
Ans:- D

39. The horizontal distance from the material depot to the rail head is called:
(a) lift
(b) site distance
(c) rail-head
(d) lead
Ans:- D

40. On curves, to counteract the effect of centrifugal force, the level of outer rail is raised above the inner rail by a certain amount. This is called:
(a) Track gradient
(b) Track slope
(c) Super elevation
(d) Horizontal gradient
Ans:- C

41. The measure of stiffness of track required to produce a unit depression in the track is known as:
(a) Tractive force
(b) Load capacity
(c) Gauge
(d) Track modulus
Ans:- D
42. The head of a gang in maintenance organisation of railway is called:
(a) P.W.I
(b) Keyman
(c) Ganger
(d) A.P.W.I
Ans:- C

43. The fixed rail in a railway track against which the tongue rail fits s known as:
(a) wing rail
(b) stock rail
(c) lead rail
(d) point rail
Ans:- B

44. The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge track in India is:
(a) 19.2 m
(b) 25.6 m
(c) 11.8 m
(d) 12.8 m
Ans:- D

45. The thickness of fish plate generally used in Indian Railway is:
(a) 16 mm
(b) 10 mm
(c) 25 mm
(d) 20 mm
Ans:- D

46. Thermal efficiency of a diesel engine may be expected to be in the range of:
(a) 50-65%
(b) 25-35%
(c) 15-20%
(d) 10-15%
Ans:- B

47. Wear on top or head of rail occurs due to:
(a) Abrasion of rolling wheels
(b) Heavy axle load
(c) Constant brake application
(d) Any or all of the above
Ans:- D

48. Any movement of the locomotive in different planes, e.g., vertical, longitudinal, transversal etc., is known as:
(a) Oscillating motion
(b) Lurching motion
(c) Shutting motion
(d) Vibration
Ans:- A

49. In rainy season the dust in the ballast becomes mud and comes up by suction from below the rail joint. Such joint is called:
(a) Wet joint
(b) Water joint
(c) Pumping joint
(d) Blowing joint
Ans:- C

50. Accidents can be avoided by adopting:
(a) interlocking
(b) C.T.C. system
(c) pilot guard system
(d) A.T.C. system
Ans:- A

51. When was the first underground railway (Metro Railway) started?
(a) 1982
(b) 1989
(c) 1984
(d) 1992
Ans: – C

52. Shatabdi Express train was started in
(a) 1984
(b) 1988
(c) 1990
(d) 1985
Ans: – B

53. At which of the following places Diesel Component Works is established?
(a) Jamshedpur
(b) Patiala
(c) Perambur
(d) Varanasi
Ans: – B

54. Which Zone is the largest in Indian Railways?
(a) Central Railway
(b) Northern Railway
(c) Eastern Railway
(d) Western Railway
Ans: – C

55. The railway station situated in the extreme south is
(a) Chennai
(b) Cochin
(c) Kanyakumari
(d) Trivandrum
Ans: – C

56. A platform surrounded by rail lines from all the four sides, is called
(a) Dock platform
(b) Passenger platform
(c) Island platform
(d) Goods platform
Ans: – C

57. When was the nationalization of Indian Railways done?
(a) 1952
(b) 1950
(c) 1951
(d) 1954
Ans: – B

58. In which year Research, Design and Standard organization was established?
(a) 1954
(b) 1957
(c) 1959
(d) 1967
Ans: – B

59. Railway Staff College is situated at
(a) Bangalore
(b) Secundrabad
(c) Chennai
(d) Vadodara
Ans: – D

60. Where is the Research, Design and Standard Organisation situated?
(a) Lucknow
(b) Bangalore
(c) Pune
(d) New Delhi
Ans:- A

61. Which is the following pairs of regional Railways and their headquarters not true?
(a) South-Central Railway – Secunderabad
(b) Central railway – Bhopal
(c) South Railway – Chennai
(d) North Railway – New Delhi
Ans:- B

62. Between which of the destinations the first Indian train was started?
(a) from Calcutta to Delhi
(b) From Mumbai to Thane
(c) From Mumbai to Surat
(d) From Mumbai to Madras
Ans:- B

63. When was the first train in Indian started?
(a) 1851
(b) 1852
(c) 1853
(d) 1854
Ans:- C
64. In which Governor-General’s reign railway lines in India was established?
(a) Lord William Bentick
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Kenning
(d) Lord Dalhousie
Ans:- D

65. A station where the rail lines end, is called
(a) junction station
(b) way-side-station
(c) block station
(d) terminal station
Ans:- D

66. How much distance was traveled by first train of India?
(a) 33 km
(b) 36 km
(c) 34 km
(d) 46 km
Ans:- C

67. What is the position of the Indian Railway in the world according to the length of rail lines?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Ans:- D

68. What is the length of North-Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR)?
(a) 4300 Km
(b) 3700 Km
(c) 4290 km
(d) 5298 km
Ans:- B

69. The headquarters of North-Eastern railway is situated at
(a) Mumbai (V.T)
(b) Guwahati
(c) Gorakhpur
(d) New Delhi
Ans:- C

70. When was the North-Eastern frontier Railway (NEFR) established?
(a) 15th Jan, 1958
(b) 15th Jan, 1955
(c) 2nd Jan, 1956
(d) 14th April, 1952
Ans:- A

71. The headquarters of North -Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR) is
(a) Calcutta
(b) Maligaon (Guwahati)
(c) Chennai
(d) Gorakhpur
Ans:- B

72. In which of the following cities, the first sub-way train was started?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Delhi
(c) Calcutta
(d) Chennai
Ans:- C

73. General Manger is responsible for
(a) Railway Board
(b) Railway Ministry
(c) Both railway Board and Railway Ministry
(d) None of these
Ans:- A

74. The headquarters of South-Central Railways is situated at
(a) Mumbai (V.T)
(b) Chennai
(c) Secundrabad
(d) Mumbai (Central)
Ans:- C

75. The headquarters of Northern Railway is at
(a) New Delhi
(b) Guwahati
(c) Gorakhpur
(d) Mumbai (V.T)
Ans:- A

76. The headquarters of South Railways is situated at
(a) Calcutta
(b) Chennai
(c) Delhi
(d) Mumbai
Ans:- B

77. In which institution the training of electric work is being given?
(a) Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering
(b) Indian Railways Institute of Electrical Engineering
(c) Railway Staff College
(d) Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering
Ans:- B

78. Who invented the railway engine?
(a) Charles Babbage
(b) Isaac Newton
(c) James Watt
(d) George Stephenson
Ans:- D

79. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering Institution situated?
(a) Nasik
(b) Baroda
(c) Jamalpur
(d) Pune
Ans:- C

80. Metro Railway is functioning in which of the following Indian States?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
(c) West Bengal
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans:- C

81. The zone with the minimum length is
(a) North-Eastern Railway
(b) North-Eastern Frontier Railway
(c) South-East Railway
(d) South-Central Railway
Ans:- B

82. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering Institute situated?
(a) Pune
(b) Chennai
(c) Nasik
(d) Sikandrabad
Ans:- A

83. How many training institutions of Railways are in India?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six
Ans:- C

84. What is the position of the Indian Railway under the zonal system?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Forth
Ans:- B

85. Which of the gauges is used in the hilly areas?
(a) Broad gauge
(b) Meter gauge
(c) Narrow gauge
(d) Special gauge
Ans:- C

86. Where is the extreme north of India a railway station?
(a) Jammutavi
(b) Amritsar
(c) Pathancoat
(d) Guwahat
Ans:- A

87. How many institutions do give suggestions for railways technology?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Ans:- B

88. Diesel Locomotive Works is situated at
(a) Perambur
(b) Varanasi
(c) Kapurthala
(d) Bangalore
Ans:- B

89. The manufacturing of steam engine in Chittranjan Locomotive Works was stopped in
(a) 1974
(b) 1961
(c) 1971
(d) 1973
Ans:- C

90. The passenger bogies of the Indian Railways are manufactured at which of the following places?
(a) Kapurthala
(b) Chittranjan
(c) Perambur
(d) Bangalore
Ans:- C

91. Indian Railways which is the largest of the Public Sector Enterprises, is divided into how many regions?
(a) 7
(b) 9
(c) 8
(d) 10
Ans:- B

92. Besides Mahrashtra, Karnataka and Goa, which of the following is the fourth State for Konakan Railway Project?
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Gujarat
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans:- A

93. Palace On Wheels train was inaugurated in
(a) 1988
(b) 1972
(c) 1982
(d) 1965
Ans:- C

94. When was the Central Railway established?
(a) 5th Nov 1951
(b) 14th Nov 1951
(c) 14th April 1951
(d) 16th August, 1951
Ans:- A

95. Rajasthan is under which of the following railway zones?
(a) Northern region
(b) Western region
(c) North-Western region
(d) Central Region
Ans:- B

96. The largest national enterprise of India is
(a) Indian Railway
(b) Indian Shipyard
(c) Airways
(d) None of these
Ans:- A

97. The first locomotive which was manufactured in Chittranjan on
(a) November 1950
(b) October 1950
(c) September 1949
(d) October 1954
Ans:- A

98. Where is the wheel and axle plant of Indian Railways situated?
(a) Chittranjan
(b) Kapurthala
(c) Bangalore
(d) Perambur
Ans:- C

99. When was the Jammu City appeared on the map of Indian Railway?
(a) 1965
(b) 1963
(c) 1967
(d) 1965
Ans:- D

100. Where is the headquarters of Central Railway situated?
(a) Mumbai (V.T)
(b) Mumbai (Church Gate)
(c) Gwalior
(d) Gorakhpur
Ans:- A

Sunday, January 16, 2011

RRB SCIENCE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is not a bone in the
human body?
(a)Sternum
(b) Humerus
(c)Pericardium
(d) Tibia
Ans : c

2. Rennin and lactase, the enzymes required to digest milk, disappear in the human body by the age of
(a) two
(b) three
(c) five
(d) eight
Ans : a

3. Duodenum is situated
(a) at the uppermost part of the small intestine
(b) near the lungs
(c) in the brain
(d) at the tail end of the intestine
Ans : a

4. The heart is covered by a membrane called
(a) Epidermis
(b) Dermis
(c)Epicardium
(d) Pericardium
Ans : d

5. About ……..of the total calcium present in the human body is in the blood.
(a) 99%
(b) 70%
(c) 5%
(d) 1%
Ans : d

6. Phenylketonuria is an example of an inborn error of metabolism. This ‘error’ refers to
(a) hormonal overproduction
(b) non disjunction
(c) atrophy of endocrine glands
(d) inherited lack of an enzyme
Ans : c

7. As in the arms and legs, blood flows against gravity and is prevented from flowing back by
(a) the extremely low pressure of venous blood
(b) valves
(c) movements in the surrounding muscles
(d) the narrowing down of the lumen of veins by the contraction of the muscle layer comprising their walls
Ans : b

8. Identical twins arise when two
(a) cells develop independently from the same zygote
(b) gametes develop independently
(c) sperms develop independently
(d) ova develop independently
Ans : a

9. Element that is not found in blood is
(a)iron
(b) copper
(c)chromium
(d) magnesium
Ans : c

10. Scratching eases itching because
(a) it kills germs.
(b) it suppresses the production of enzymes which cause itching,
(c) it removes the outer dust in the skin.
(d) it stimulates certain nerves which direct the brain to increase the production of antihistaminic chemicals.
Ans : d
11. The gland, which in relation to body size is largest at birth and then gradually shrinks after puberty, is?
(a) Thyroid
(b) Pituitary
(c)Thymus
(d) Adrenal
Ans : c
12. A human sperm may contain ?
1. X-chromosome
2. Y-chromosome
3. XY-chromosome
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c)1 and 2
(d) l,2 and 3
Ans : c
13. Which of the following is not a bone in the legs
of human body?
(a) Radius
(b) Tibia
(c) Femur
(d) Fibula
Ans : a
14. Bleeding from artery is characterised by which of the following?
1. Blood is red.
2. Blood is purple.
3. Bleeding is continuous.
4. Bleeding is intermittent.
(a)1 and3
(b) 2 and 3
(c)1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans : b
15. Which of the following is not a vestigial organ?
(a) Centriole
(b) Molar tooth
(c) Appendix
(d) Diaphragm
Ans : d
16. Which of the following bone articulations forms the gliding joint?
(a) Humenis and radius
(b) Carpals
(c) Hip girdle and femur
(d) Skull & neck verterbrae
Ans : b
17. Pancreas secretes hormones which help in
(a) blood clotting
(b) production of antibodies
(c) growth of body
(d) keeping sugar balance in body
Ans : d
18. S-A node of mammalian heart is known as
(a) Autoregulator
(b) Pace-maker
(c) Time controller
(d) Beat regulator
Ans : b
19. Consider the following statements regarding blood pressure:
1. It is the pressure exerted by the blood on the walls of any vessel.
2. It decreases in the arteries as the distance from the heart increases,
3. It is lower in the capillaries than in the arteries.
4. It is usually lower in women than in men.
Of these, the correct ones are
(a)1 and 4
(b) l, 2and 3
(c)2,3 and 4
(d) l,2,3 and 4
Ans : d
20. The hormone responsible for the secretion of milk in mothers, is?
(a) ACTH
(b) Leutinizing hormone
(c) Adrenalin
(d) Lactogenic hormone
21. What is the correct sequence of the following in heart attack?
1. Narrowing of the inner orifice of the vessel
2. ‘Plaque’ from fibrous tissue and high cholesterol
3. Inadequate supply of blood and oxygen
4. Clots of blood carried into the coronary arteries
(a)1,2,3,4
(b) 2,4, 1,3
(c) 2, 3, 1, 4
(d) 4, 2, 1 3
Ans : b
22. Bile juice is secreted by
(a)Pancreas
(b) Liver
(c)Spleen
(d) Gall bladder
Ans : b
23. Veins differ from arteries in having
(a) thinner walls
(b) strong walls
(c) narrower lumen
(d) valves to control direction of flow
Ans : d
24. What is the main function of insulin in the hman body?
(a) To maintain blood pressure
(b) To help in digestion of food
(c) To control the level of sugar in the body
(d) To check the level of iodine in the body
Ans : c
25. An enzyme that works in an acidic medium is
(a) pepsin
(b) tiypsin
(c) ptyalin
(d) maltose
Ans : a
26. The blood pressure is the pressure of blood in
(a)arteries
(b) veins
(c)auricles
(d) ventricles
Ans : a
27. The total number of bones in human skull are
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 30
(d) 32
Ans : c
28. Which of the following glands controls the development of sex organs in humans?
(a) Paancreas
(b) Thyroid
(c) Adrenal
(d) Pituitary
Ans : d
29. Oxygen is transported to every cell of the human
body by?
(a)red blood cells
(b) blood platelets
(c)white blood cells
(d) hormones
Ans : a
30. Which of the following components of blood protects human beings from infection?
(a) Plasma
(b) Blood Platelets
(c) Haemoglobin
(d) White Blood Corpuscles
Ans : d
31. The normal temperature of the human body is
(a) 90 F
(b) 98 F
(c) 98.4 F
(d)96.4 F
Ans : c
32 .If a person can see an object clearly when it is placed at distance of about 25 cm away from him, he is suffering from
(a) myopia
(b) hypermetropia
(c) astigmatism
(d) None of these
Ans : d
33. The blood pressure values of four persons are
given below:
1. Mrs.X-90/60
2.Mr.X-160/120
3. Mr. Y-120/80
4.Mrs.Y-140/l00
Who among the following has normal blood pressure?
(a) Mrs. Y
(b) Mr. X
(c) Mrs. X
(d) Mr. Y
Ans : d

34. In the case of a ‘Test-tube baby’?
(a) fertilisation takes place inside the test tube.
(b) development of the baby takes place inside the test tube.
(c) fertilisation takes place outside the mother body.
(d) unfertilised egg develops inside the test tube.
Ans : c

35. Pituitary gland is present
(a) below the brain
(b) above the brain
(c) inside the brain
(d) nowhere near the brain
Ans : a

36. Which of the following organs is used in the purification of blood in human body?
(a) Liver
(b) Kidney
(c) Spleen
(d) Lungs
Ans : d

37. Cornea is a part of which of the following organs
of human body?
(a) Eye
(b) Ear
(c) Nose
(d)Heart
Ans : a

38. What is Funny Bone?
(a) A muscle
(b) A nerve
(c) A bone
(d) A blood vessel
Ans : b

39. Man cannot digest cellulose whereas cows can do so because?
(a) their gut contains bacteria capable of digesting cellulose.
(b) they have a many – chambered stomach.
(c) they have efficient grinding molars.
(d) they produce an enzyme cellulase which can digest cellulose.
Ans : a

40. Which of the following when taken by pregnant women, is found to be the cause of deformed children?
(a) Glycerol
(b) Xylidine
(c) Thalidomide
(d) None of these
Ans : c
41. The diploid number of chromosomes in human body is ?
(a) 24
(b) 40
(c) 46
(d) 48
Ans : c

42. The largest cell in the human body is
(a) Nerve cell
(b) Muscle cell
(c) Liver cell
(d) Kidney cell
Ans : a

43. Lichens are formed due to the symbiotic association of
(a) moss and fungi
(b) bacteria and fungi
(c) algae and fungi
(d) None of these
Ans : c

44. Insects form the largest class of animals living on land and sea. They are grouped into
(a) 22 orders
(b) 26 orders
(c) 29 orders
(d) 32 orders
Ans : c

45. Which of the following statements is true for planktons?
(a) They live on the surface of lake water.
(b They live on the bottom of lakes.
(c) They live on the plants growing in water.
(d) They live in the water column.
Ans : b

46. Which of the following has the smallest egg?
(a) Ostrich
(b) Humming bird
(c) Pigeon
(d) Homo sapiens
Ans : c

47. The population of which of the following is maximum on the earth?
(a) Reptiles
(b) Fishes
(c) Birds
(d) Beetles
Ans : d

48. Poison glands of snakes are homologous to
(a) stings of rays
(b) salivary glands of vertebrates
(c) electric organs of fishes
(d) sebaccous glands of mammals
Ans : b

49. The phylum chordata is characterised by the presence of
(a) spinal cord
(b) notochord
(c) nerve chord
(d) None of these
Ans : d

50. Which of the following activities is suppressed by the presence of auxins in plants?
(a) Growth of lateral buds
(b) Cell division
(c) Root initiation
(d) Development of fleshy fruits
Ans : c