RRB TECHNICAL EXAM QUESTIONS

Fluid Mechanics


1. A single acting reciprocating pump, running at 60 r.p.m, delivers 0.01 m2/sec of water. The area of the piston is 0.05m2 and stroke length is 40 cm. Then theoretical discharge of the pump will be
(a) 0.015 m3/sec (b) 0.02 m3/sec
(c) 0.025 m3/sec (d) 0.03 m3/sec
Ans:- B

2.B. In question (A), the co-efficient of discharge would be
(a) 0.9 (b) 0.8 (c) 0.6 (d) 0.5
Ans:- D

3. In question (A), the slip of the pump would be
(a) 0.02 m3/sec (b) 0.01 m3/sec
(c) 0.005 m3/sec (d) 0.003 m3/sec
Ans:- B

4.The possibility of negative slip in reciprocating pump is when
(a) delivery pipe is short (b) suction pipe is long
(c) pump is running at high speed (d) all of the above
Ans:- D

5. The slip in the reciprocating pump will be negative if
(a) Qth > Qact (b) Qth < Qact
(c) Qth = Qact (d) none of the above
Ans:- B

6. The power required to drive a single acting reciprocating pump is equal to
(a) w.A.L.N / 4500 (b) w.A.L.N.(hs + hd)4500
(c) A.L.N. (hs + hd)/4500 (d) w.L.N/4500
where w = specific weight of water
Ans:- B

7. The rate of flow of water through a double acting reciprocating pump is equal to
(a) A.L.N /60 (b) 2 AL.N/60 (c) A.L.N./2×60 (d) 3 A.L.N./60
Ans:- B

8. The rate of flow of water through a single acting reciprocating pump is equal to
(a) A.L.N /60 (b) 2 AL.N/60 (c) A.L.N./2×60 (d) 3 A.L.N./60
Ans:- A

9. The pump, which works on the principle of water hammer, is known as
(a) centrifugal pump (b) reciprocating pump
(c) hydraulic ram (d) none of the above
Ans:- C

10. The pump which raises water without any external power for its operation, is known as
(a) centrifugal pump (b) reciprocating pump
(c) hydraulic ram (d) hydraulic intensifier
Ans:- C

11. The power at the shaft of a centrifugal pump is 100 KW, and the power available at the impeller is 900 KW. If water horse power is 720 KW, then overall efficiency of the centrifugal pump will be
(a) 90% (b) 80% (c) 75% (d) 72%
Ans:- D

12. In the question (A), the manometric efficiency would be
(a) 90% (b) 80% (c) 75% (d) 72%
Ans:- B

13. In question (A), the mechanical efficiency would be
(a) 90% (b) 80% (c) 75% (d) 72%
Ans:- A

14. The term W.Q.Hm / (75 S.H.P) for a centrifugal pump is known as
(a) mechanical efficiency (b) manometric efficiency
(c) overall efficiency (d) none of the above
Ans:- C

15. If a circular chamber is introduced between the casing and the impeller, then casing is known as
(a) vortex casing (b) volute casing
(c) casing with guide blades (d) none of the above
Ans:- A

16. The rotating part of a turbine is known as
(a) Impeller (b) Guide mechanism
(c) Runner (d) None of the above
Ans:- A

17. The rotating part of a turbine is known as
(a) Impeller (b) Guide mechanism
(c) Runner (d) None of the above
Ans:- C

18. In case of Kaplan turbine, velocity of flow at inlet is
(a) less than that at outlet
(b) more than that at outlet
(c) equal of that at outlet
(d) none of the above
Ans:- C

19.Francis turbine is a
(a) radially inward flow turbine
(b) radially outward flow turbine
(c) axial flow turbine
(d) none of the above
Ans:- A

20. The main advantage of the draft-tube is to convert
(a) pressure energy into kinetic energy
(b) kinetic energy into pressure energy
(c) pressure energy into electrical energy
(d) none of the above
Ans:- B

21. The pressure at the exist of the runner of a reaction turbine is generally
(a) more than atmospheric pressure
(b) equal to atmospheric pressure
(c) less than atmospheric pressure
(d) none of the above
Ans:- C

22.In case of draft tube, are of cross-section of the draft tube
(a) increases from inlet to outlet
(b) decreases from inlet to outlet
(c) remains constant
(d) none of the above
Ans:- A

23. Draft tube is used in case of
(a) Pelton turbine (b) Pelton and Francis turbine
(c) Kaplan and Pelton turbine (d) Francis and Kaplan turbine
Ans:- D

24.The pressure energy goes on changing into kinetic energy in case of
(a) Pelton turbine (b) Francis turbine
(c) Kaplan turbine (d) Francis and Kaplan
Ans:- D

25. A turbine is having specific speed of 400. Then the turbine would be
(a) Kaplan turbine (b) Francis turbine
(c) Pelton turbine (d) None of the above
Ans:- A

26.A turbine is having specific speed as 100. Then the turbine would be
(a) Kaplan turbine (b) Francis turbine
(c) Pelton turbine (d) Steam turbine
Ans:- B

27. The axial flow reaction turbine, in which vanes are fixed to the hub and they are not adjustable, is known as
(a) Kaplan turbine (b) Francis turbine
(c) propeller turbine (d) Pelton turbine
Ans:- C

28.In case reaction turbine, the total head at the inlet of a turbine consists of
(a) pressure energy and kinetic energy
(b) kinetic energy only
(c) pressure energy only
(d) none of the above
Ans:- A

29. In case of reaction turbine, the total head at the inlet of a turbine consists of
(a) pressure energy and kinetic energy
(b) kinetic energy only
(c) pressure energy only
(d) none of the above
Ans:- B

30. Kaplan turbine is a
(a) reaction turbine (b) impulse turbine
(c) radial flow turbine (d) none of the above
Ans:- A

31. Francis turbine is a
(a) reaction turbine (b) impulse turbine
(c) axial flow turbine (d) none of the above
Ans:- A

32. Pelton turbine is a
(a) reaction turbine (b) radial inward flow turbine
(c) impulse turbine (d) axial flow turbine
Ans:- C

33. The relation between overall efficiency. mechanical efficiency and hydraulic efficiency is given by
(a) h0 = hmech / hhyd (b) h0 = hmech / hhyd
(c) h0 = 1.0 / (hmech × hhyd) (d) h0 = hhyd / hmech
Ans:- B

34.The ratio of power at the shaft of a turbine to the power supplied by water at inlet of a turbine is known as
(a) hydraulic efficiency (b) mechanical efficiency
(c) overall efficiency (d) none of the above
Ans:- C

35. The ratio of power available at the shaft of a turbine to the power developed by the runner of the turbine is known as
(a) hydraulic efficiency (b) mechanical efficiency
(c) overall efficiency (d) volumetric efficiency
Ans:- B

36. A jet water of area of cross-section 20 cm2, having a velocity of 20 m/sec strikes a curved plate which is moving with a velocity of 10 m/sec in the direction of the jet. The jet leaves the vane at an angle of 600 to the direction of motion of vane at outlet as shown in Fig. Z3. The relative velocity at inlet will be
(a) 20 m/sec (b) 10 m/sec (c) 15 m/sec (d) 16 m/sec
Ans:- B

37. The velocity of whirl at inlet in the question (A), will be
(a) 20 m/sec (b) 16 m/sec (c) 15 m/sec (d) 10 m/sec
Ans:- A

38. In the FIG Z3, angle f will be
(a) 300 (b) 450 (c) 600 (d) 750
Ans:- C

39. In Fig Z2 shows the velocity triangles triangles at inlet and outlet of a turbine, V1 represents the absolute velocity at inlet and u1 represents vane velocity at inlet. The relative velocity at inlet is represented by
(a) length BD (b) Length AD
(c) length CD (d) length CB
Ans:- D

40. In Fig. Z2 the velocity of whirl at inlet is given by
(a) length DB (b) length AD
(c) length CD (d) length CB
Ans:- B

41. In fig. Z2, angle BAC is known as
(a) vane angle at inlet (b) nozzle angle at inlet
(c) vane angle at outlet (d) none of the above
Ans:- B

42. In fig. Z2, angle BCD is known as
(a) vane angle at inlet (b) nozzle angle at inlet
(c) vane angle at outlet (d) none of the above
Ans:- A

43. A jet water of area 40 cm2 moving with a velocity of 10 m/sec strikes normally a fixed vertical plate. The force exerted by the jet on the plate in the direction of jet will be
(a) 500 N (b) 400 N (c) 300 N (d) 200 N
Ans:- B

44. Pump is a machine which converts
(a) hydraulic energy to mechanical energy
(b) mechanical energy to hydraulic energy
(c) mechanical energy to electrical energy
(d) none of the above
Ans:- B

RRB TECHNICAL EXAM PREVIOUS PAPER

1. When was the first underground railway (Metro Railway) started?
(a) 1982 (b) 1989 (c) 1984 (d) 1992
Answer: C
2. Shatabdi Express train was started in
(a) 1984 (b) 1988 (c) 1990 (d) 1985
Answer: B
3. At which of the following places Diesel Component Works is established?
(a) Jamshedpur (b) Patiala (c) Perambur (d) Varanasi
Answer: B
4. Which Zone is the largest in Indian Railways?
(a) Central Railway (b) Northern Railway (c) Eastern Railway (d) Western Railway
Answer: C
5. The railway station situated in the extreme south is
(a) Chennai (b) Cochin (c) Kanyakumari (d) Trivandrum
Answer: C
6. A platform surrounded by rail lines from all the four sides, is called
(a) dock platform (b) passenger platform (c) island platform (d) goods platform
Answer: C
7. When was the nationalization of Indian Railways done?
(a) 1952 (b) 1950 (c) 1951 (d) 1954
Answer: B
8. In which year Research, Design and Standard organization was established?
(a) 1954 (b) 1957 (c) 1959 (d) 1967
Answer: B
9. Railway Staff College is situated at
(a) Bangalore (b) Secundrabad (c) Chennai (d) Vadodara
Answer: D
10. Where is the Research, Design and Standard Organisation situated?
(a) Lucknow (b) Bangalore (c) Pune (d) New Delhi
Answer: A
11. Which is the following pairs of regional Railways and their headquarters not true?
(a) South-Central Railway – Secunderabad
(b) Central railway – Bhopal
(c) South Railway – Chennai
(d) North Railway – New Delhi
Answer: B
12. Between which of the destinations the first Indian train was started?
(a) From Calcutta to Delhi (b) From Mumbai to Thane
(c) From Mumbai to Surat (d) From Mumbai to Madras
Answer: B
13. When was the first train in Indian started?
(a) 1851 (b) 1852 (c) 1853 (d) 1854
Answer: C
14. In which Governor-General’s reign railway lines in India were established?
(a) Lord William Bentick (b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Kenning (d) Lord Dalhousie
Answer: D
15. A station where the rail lines end, is called (a) junction station (b) way-side-station (c) block station (d) terminal station Answer: D 16. How much distance was traveled by first train of India? (a) 33 km (b) 36 km (c) 34 km (d) 46 km Answer: C 17. What is the position of the Indian Railway in the world according to the length of rail lines? (a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Fourth Answer: D 18. What is the length of North-Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR)? (a) 4300 Km (b) 3700 Km (c) 4290 km (d) 5298 km Answer: B 19. The headquarters of North-Eastern railway is situated at (a) Mumbai (V.T) (b) Guwahati (c) Gorakhpur (d) New Delhi Answer: C 20. When was the North-Eastern frontier Railway (NEFR) established? (a) 15th Jan, 1958 (b) 15th Jan, 1955 (c) 2nd Jan, 1956 (d) 14th April, 1952 Answer: A 21. The headquarters of North -Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR) is (a) Calcutta (b) Maligaon (Guwahati) (c) Chennai (d) Gorakhpur Answer: B 22. In which of the following cities, the first sub-way train was started? (a) Mumbai (b) Delhi (c) Calcutta (d) Chennai Answer: C 23. General Manger is responsible for (a) Railway Board (b) Railway Ministry (c) Both railway Board and Railway Ministry (d) None of these Answer: A 24. The headquarters of South-Central Railways is situated at (a) Mumbai (V.T) (b) Chennai (c) Secundrabad (d) Mumbai (Central) Answer: C 25. The headquarters of Northern Railway is at (a) New Delhi (b) Guwahati (c) Gorakhpur (d) Mumbai (V.T) Answer: A 26. The headquarters of South Railways is situated at (a) Calcutta (b) Chennai (c) Delhi (d) Mumbai Answer: B 27. In which institution the training of electric work is being given? (a) Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering (b) Indian Railways Institute of Electrical Engineering (c) Railway Staff College (d) Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering Answer: B 28. Who invented the railway engine? (a) Charles Babbage (b) Isaac Newton (c) James Watt (d) George Stephenson Answer: D 29. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering Insttitue situated? (a) Nasik (b) Baroda (c) Jamalpur (d) Pune Answer: C 30. Metro Railway is functioning in which of the following Indian States? (a) Gujarat (b) Maharashtra (c) West Bengal (d) Tamil Nadu Answer: C 31.The zone with the minimum length is (a) North-Eastern Railway (b) North-Eastern Frontier Railway (c) South-East Railway (d) South-Central Railway Answer: B 32. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering Institute situated? (a) Pune (b) Chennai (c) Nasik (d) Sikandrabad Answer: A 33. How many training institutions of Railways are in India? (a) Three (b) Four (c) Five (d) Six Answer: C 34. What is the position of the Indian Railway under the zonal system? (a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Forth Answer: B 35. Which of the gauges is used in the hilly areas? (a) Broad gauge (b) Meter gauge (c) Narrow gauge (d) Special gauge Answer: C 36. Where is the extreme north of India a railway station? (a) Jammutavi (b) Amritsar (c) Pathancoat (d) Guwahat Answer: A 37. How many institutions do give suggestions for railways technology? (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four Answer: B 38. Diesel Locomotive Works is situated at (a) Perambur (b) Varanasi (c) Kapurthala (d) Bangalore Answer: B 39. The manufacturing of steam engine in Chittranjan Locomotive Works was stopped in (a) 1974 (b) 1961 (c) 1971 (d) 1973 Answer: C 40. The passenger bogies of the Indian Railways are manufactured at which of the following places?
(a) Kapurthala (b) Chittranjan (c) Perambur (d) Bangalore
Answer: C
41. Indian Railways which is the largest of the Public Sector Enterprises, is divided in how many regions?
(a) 7(b) 9 (c) 8(d) 10
Answer: B
42. Besides Mahrashtra, Karnataka and Goa, which of the following is the fourth State for Konakan Railway Project?
(a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Gujarat (d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: A
43. Palace On Wheels train was inaugurated in which year?
(a) 1988 (b) 1972 (c) 1982 (d) 1965
Answer: C
44. When was the Central Railway established?
(a) 5th Nov 1951 (b) 14th Nov 1951
(c) 14th April 1951 (d) 16th August, 1951
Answer: A
45. Rajasthan is under which of the following railway zones?
(a) Northern region (b) Western region
(c) North-Western region (d) Central Region
Answer: B
46. The largest national enterprise of India is
(a) Indian Railway (b) Indian Shipyard
(c) Airways (d) None of these
Answer: A
47. The first locomotive which was manufactured in Chittaranjan on
(a) November 1950 (b) October 1950
(c) September 1949 (d) October 1954
Answer: A
48. Where is the wheel and axle plant of Indian Railways situated?
(a) Chittranjan (b) Kapurthala (c) Bangalore (d) Perambur
Answer: C
49. When was the Jammu City appeared on the map of Indian Railway?
(a) 1965 (b) 1963 (c) 1967 (d) 1965
Answer: D
50. Where is the headquarters of Central Railway situated?
(a) Mumbai (V.T) (b) Mumbai (Church Gate)
(c) Gwalior (d) Gorakhpur
Answer: A