RRB GENERAL INTELLIGENCE

1. Piyush is 18th from either end of a row of boys. How many boys are there in that row ?

(A) 26

(B) 32

(C) 24

(D) 35

2. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is related to—

(A) Teacher

(B) School

(C) Student

(D) Tuition

3. Fill in the missing letter in the following series—

S, V, Y, B, ?

(A) C

(B) D

(C) E

(D) G

4. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ?

3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20

(A) 11

(B) 10

(C) 8

(D) 9

5. Select the correct option in place of the question mark—

AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ?

(A) IYZ

(B) HWX

(C) IWX

(D) JWX

6. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series ?

1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?

(A) 48

(B) 49

(C) 52

(D) 56

7. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Raman ranked 17th from the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Raman, how many girls are after her in the rank ?

(A) 26

(B) 12

(C) 10

(D) 33

8. If ‘BOAT’ is written as ‘YLZG’ in a code language how is ‘EGG’ to be written in the same language ?

(A) VSS

(B) URR

(C) VTT

(D) UTT

9. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be written in the same code as—

(A) CBIECD

(B) CIBCED

(C) CBICED

(D) CIBECD

10. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801, then the code for BETTER is—

(A) 213310

(B) 213301

(C) 123301

(D) 012334

11. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language ?

(A) Blue

(B) Fish

(C) Rain

(D) Pink

12. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which direction he is walking now ?

(A) East

(B) West

(C) North

(D) South

13. One morning after sunrise Vikas and Shanu were standing in a lawn with their back towards each other. Vikas’s shadow fell exactly towards left-hand side. Which direction Shanu was facing ?

(A) East

(B) West

(C) North

(D) South

14. Neelam is taller than Paumpi but not as tall as Mihir. Roma is taller than Namarata but not as tall as Paumpi. Who among them is the tallest ?

(A) Mihir

(B) Paumpi

(C) Namarata

(D) Neelam

15. In an examination Raja got more marks than Mohit but not as many as Minal. Minal got more marks than Suresh and Rupali. Suresh got less marks than Mohit but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is second in the descending order of marks ?

(A) Minal

(B) Rupali

(C) Raja

(D) None of these

16. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Raja said “She has no sister or daughter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother’’. How is the girl in the photograph related with Raja’s mother ?

(A) Sister in law

(B) Grand Daughter

(C) Daughter in law

(D) None of these

17. If Suyash’s father is Babloo’s father’s only son and Babloo has neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Suyash and Babloo ?

(A) Uncle–Nephew

(B) Father–Daughter

(C) Father–Son

(D) Grandfather–Grandson

18. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekday. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the

application and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the application was received by the inward clerk ?

(A) Tuesday

(B) Earlier week’s Saturday

(C) Wednesday

(D) Monday

19. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learnt that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m., what is the time for

the next flight ?

(A) 2 : 20 a.m.

(B) 3 : 30 a.m.

(C) 3 : 55 p.m.

(D) 3 : 20 p.m.

20. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in that class ?

(A) 44

(B) 40

(C) 50

(D) 55

21. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they interchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indra’s position from the left ?

(A) 21st

(B) 19th

(C) 23rd

(D) 20th

22. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as—

(A) MENOPM

(B) MENOMP

(C) NJOGPM

(D) MNJOPM

23. If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded in the same manner as—

(A) CJCEFQPYWC

(B) CJGERQTYVG

(C) CNCERQPCRG

(D) GJGAVMTYVC

24. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to…

(A) Drink

(B) Fish

(C) Wash

(D) Swim

25. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ……….

(A) Injure

(B) Peel

(C) Prick

(D) Attack

Answers with Hints

1. (D)

2. (C) As ‘Medicine’ is used by a ‘Patient’ in the same way ‘Education’ is used by a ‘Student’.

3. (C)

4. (D)

5. (C)

6. (B)

7. (B)

8. (C)

9. (B)

10. (A)

11. (C)

12. (A)

13. (D)

14. (A) Mihir > Neelam > Paumpi > Roma > Namrata

= The tallest is Mihir.

15. (C) Minal > Raja > Mohit > Suresh > Rupali

16. (B) The girl in the photograph is the daughter of Raja’s sister. Hence the girl is grand daughter of Raja’s mother.

17. (C) Suyash is the son of Babloo.

18. (C) The desk officer received the application on Friday. Hence the senior clerk received it on Thursday and the inward clerk received the application on Wednesday.

19. (D) The time for the next flight

= 10·45 – 0·25 + 5·00

= 15·20 = 3 : 20 p.m.

20. (D) Number of boys in the class

= (16 + 29 – 1) + 6 + 5

= 55

21. (A)

22. (D)

23. (D)

24. (B) As ‘Bird’ flies in ‘Air’ similarly ‘Fish’ swims in ‘Water’.

25. (D) As ‘Pencil’ is used to ‘Write’ similarly ‘Knife’ is used to ‘Attack’.

RRB Exam Model Paper

1. The bent-up length of rail used in front of nose of crossing which help in channelising the train wheels in their proper routes are known as:
(a) lead rail
(b) point rail
(c) wing rail
(d) splice rail
Ans:- C

2. The point up to which the new railway track laid, at any time is called:
(a) terminal
(b) Station
(c) rail-head
(d) Base
Ans:- C

3. The good quality wood for sleeper is:
(a) Deodar
(b) Sheesham
(c) Teak
(d) Sal
Ans:- C

4. Generally the life of wooden sleepers is taken as:
(a) 2 to 3 years
(b) 12 to 15 years
(c) 35 to 50 years
(d) 5 to 8 years
Ans:- B

5. The gradual or tapered widening of the flange way which is formed by bending and splaying the end of check rail or wing rail away from the gauge line is known as:
(a) Flare
(b) Toe
(c) Heel
(d) Loop
Ans:- A

6. The minimum height of embankment above the highest flood mark in the area should be:
(a) zero cm
(b) 30 cm
(c) 100 cm
(d) 60 cm
Ans:- D

7. The recommended depth of ballast cushion on a curved portion of a track is provided under the …….. edge of the sleeper.
(a) upper
(b) middle
(c) inner
(d) outer
Ans:- C

8. An outward slope provided on the tread of the wheel is:
(a) 1 in 5
(b) 1 in 10
(c) 1 in 20
(d) 1 in 25
Ans:- C

9. The granular material spread on the formation of a railway track for the sleepers to rest upon is known as:
(a) anchors
(b) ballast
(c) subgrade
(d) chairs
Ans:- B

10. Bone shaped section of fish plate is commonly used for connecting:
(a) double headed rails
(b) flat footed rails
(c) bull headed rails
(d) all above are correct
Ans:- B

11. The members laid transversely under the rails for supporting and fixing them at the gauge distance apart are known as:
(a) fastenings
(b) sleepers
(c) ballast
(d) fish plate
Ans:- B

12. The bottom width of foot in a flat footed rail is:
(a) 78.6 mm
(b) 136.5 mm
(c) 66.7 mm
(d) 70 mm
Ans:- B

13. The rectangular pits in which wheels of the locomotives are taken out for repairs, are known as:
(a) Track pits
(b) Inspection pits
(c) Drop pits
(d) Siding pits
Ans:- C

14. The wheels are coned to prevent from rubbing the inside face of the rail head and to prevent lateral movement of the axle with its wheels. The slope of cone is:
(a) 1 in 5
(b) 1 in 20
(c) 1 in 10
(d) 1 in 15
Ans:- B

15. Gauge is the distance measured in place of the between which faces of two parallel rails in a track.
(a) inner faces
(b) centre line of one rail to inner face of other rail
(c) centre lines
(d) outer faces
Ans:- A

16. Most significant which imposes limitations in raising the high speeds is:
(a) adhesion of wheels
(b) resistance due to oscillations
(c) flange resistance
(d) air or wind resistance
Ans:- A

17. The rails are welded by:
(a) Thermit welding
(b) Gas welding
(c) Arc welding
(d) MIG welding
Ans:- A

18. Steel sleepers are ….. shaped in section.
(a) oval
(b) rectangular
(c) trough
(d) semi-spherical
Ans:- C

19. In India generally the sleeper density of sleepers per rail length used is:
(a) 18
(b) 30
(c) 12
(d) 24
Ans:- A

20. The extra rails provided over bridge to prevent damage and danger in case of derailment on the bridge are known as:
(a) Stock rails
(b) Guard rails
(c) Check rails
(d) Wing rails
Ans:- B

21. The phenomenon of misalignment of rails due to temperature change is known as:
(a) cropping
(b) creeping
(c) bulging
(d) buckling
Ans:- D

22. Creep is the ….. movement of rails.
(a) longitudinal
(b) diagonal
(c) horizontal
(d) vertical
Ans:- A

23. Ballast best suited to steel sleepers is:
(a) sand
(b) Gravel
(c) Quartzite
(d) All the above
Ans:- C

24. The section of a rail is decided on the basis of:
(a) Type of rails
(b) Spacing of the sleepers
(c) Speed of trains
(d) All of the above
Ans:- D

25. While preparing sub-grade of a railway line, the grubbing operation means:
(a) checking of subgrade
(b) filling or cutting of earth work in railway subgrade
(c) compaction and consolidation of earth work
(d) removal and disposal of stumps and roots trees
Ans:- D

26. The sinuous path taken by an engine as against the alignment of the track is known as:
(a) Rolling motion
(b) Nosing motion
(c) Lurching motion
(d) Vibration
Ans:- B

27. The mechanical device which transfer chemical energy of fuel into mechanical energy in the form of motion is called:
(a) rolling stock
(b) railway
(c) wagon
(d) locomotive
Ans:- D

28. Integrated coach factory is located in:
(a) Chennai
(b) Bangalore
(c) Jamshedpur
(d) Mumbai
Ans:- A

29. C.T.C. stands for:
(a) Critical Track Control
(b) Critical Traffic Channeliser
(c) Centralised Traffic Control
(d) None of these
Ans:- C

30. To reduce the intensity of pressure particularly on soft variety of sleepers, a rectangular plate is introduced between the rails and the sleepers. This is known as:
(a) Fish plate
(b) Chair
(c) Saddle plate
(d) Bearing plate
Ans:- D

31. Generally the rail sections used in India is:
(a) flat footed
(b) double headed
(c) bull headed
(d) all above
Ans:- A

32. The arrangement consisting of three tracks used for changing the direction of engine is called:
(a) three ladder track
(b) turn table
(c) three throw switch
(d) triangle
Ans:- B

33. The length of a wooden sleeper for broad gauge track is:
(a) 1.83 m
(b) 1.52 m
(c) 2.74 m
(d) 1.676 m
Ans:- C

34. The technical officer of the rank of sectional officer in the maintenance organisation of Indian Railways is called:
(a) Permanent Way Inspector
(b) Gangmate
(c) Assistant Permanent Way Inspector
(d) None of these are correct
Ans:- C

35. The depth of ballast section under sleeper for broad gauge track as per Indian standard should be:
(a) 250 to 300 mm
(b) 200 to 250 mm
(c) 150 to 200 mm
(d) 150 mm
Ans:- B

36. The completed and finished railway line on which wheeled vehicles are drawn by locomotive is known as:
(a) steel way
(b) rails
(c) railway
(d) permanent way
Ans:- D

37. The horse power to weight ratio steam engine is generally of the order of:
(a) 10-15 kg/HP
(b) 60-80 kg/HP
(c) 20-30 kg/HP
(d) 100-150 kg/HP
Ans:- B

38. The cause of formation of kinks in a rail is:
(a) Loose packing at joints
(b) Defect in gauge and alignment
(c) Defect in cross level joints
(d) Any of the above
Ans:- D

39. The horizontal distance from the material depot to the rail head is called:
(a) lift
(b) site distance
(c) rail-head
(d) lead
Ans:- D

40. On curves, to counteract the effect of centrifugal force, the level of outer rail is raised above the inner rail by a certain amount. This is called:
(a) Track gradient
(b) Track slope
(c) Super elevation
(d) Horizontal gradient
Ans:- C

41. The measure of stiffness of track required to produce a unit depression in the track is known as:
(a) Tractive force
(b) Load capacity
(c) Gauge
(d) Track modulus
Ans:- D
42. The head of a gang in maintenance organisation of railway is called:
(a) P.W.I
(b) Keyman
(c) Ganger
(d) A.P.W.I
Ans:- C

43. The fixed rail in a railway track against which the tongue rail fits s known as:
(a) wing rail
(b) stock rail
(c) lead rail
(d) point rail
Ans:- B

44. The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge track in India is:
(a) 19.2 m
(b) 25.6 m
(c) 11.8 m
(d) 12.8 m
Ans:- D

45. The thickness of fish plate generally used in Indian Railway is:
(a) 16 mm
(b) 10 mm
(c) 25 mm
(d) 20 mm
Ans:- D

46. Thermal efficiency of a diesel engine may be expected to be in the range of:
(a) 50-65%
(b) 25-35%
(c) 15-20%
(d) 10-15%
Ans:- B

47. Wear on top or head of rail occurs due to:
(a) Abrasion of rolling wheels
(b) Heavy axle load
(c) Constant brake application
(d) Any or all of the above
Ans:- D

48. Any movement of the locomotive in different planes, e.g., vertical, longitudinal, transversal etc., is known as:
(a) Oscillating motion
(b) Lurching motion
(c) Shutting motion
(d) Vibration
Ans:- A

49. In rainy season the dust in the ballast becomes mud and comes up by suction from below the rail joint. Such joint is called:
(a) Wet joint
(b) Water joint
(c) Pumping joint
(d) Blowing joint
Ans:- C

50. Accidents can be avoided by adopting:
(a) interlocking
(b) C.T.C. system
(c) pilot guard system
(d) A.T.C. system
Ans:- A

51. When was the first underground railway (Metro Railway) started?
(a) 1982
(b) 1989
(c) 1984
(d) 1992
Ans: - C

52. Shatabdi Express train was started in
(a) 1984
(b) 1988
(c) 1990
(d) 1985
Ans: - B

53. At which of the following places Diesel Component Works is established?
(a) Jamshedpur
(b) Patiala
(c) Perambur
(d) Varanasi
Ans: - B

54. Which Zone is the largest in Indian Railways?
(a) Central Railway
(b) Northern Railway
(c) Eastern Railway
(d) Western Railway
Ans: - C

55. The railway station situated in the extreme south is
(a) Chennai
(b) Cochin
(c) Kanyakumari
(d) Trivandrum
Ans: - C

56. A platform surrounded by rail lines from all the four sides, is called
(a) Dock platform
(b) Passenger platform
(c) Island platform
(d) Goods platform
Ans: - C

57. When was the nationalization of Indian Railways done?
(a) 1952
(b) 1950
(c) 1951
(d) 1954
Ans: - B

58. In which year Research, Design and Standard organization was established?
(a) 1954
(b) 1957
(c) 1959
(d) 1967
Ans: - B

59. Railway Staff College is situated at
(a) Bangalore
(b) Secundrabad
(c) Chennai
(d) Vadodara
Ans: - D

60. Where is the Research, Design and Standard Organisation situated?
(a) Lucknow
(b) Bangalore
(c) Pune
(d) New Delhi
Ans:- A

61. Which is the following pairs of regional Railways and their headquarters not true?
(a) South-Central Railway - Secunderabad
(b) Central railway - Bhopal
(c) South Railway - Chennai
(d) North Railway - New Delhi
Ans:- B

62. Between which of the destinations the first Indian train was started?
(a) from Calcutta to Delhi
(b) From Mumbai to Thane
(c) From Mumbai to Surat
(d) From Mumbai to Madras
Ans:- B

63. When was the first train in Indian started?
(a) 1851
(b) 1852
(c) 1853
(d) 1854
Ans:- C
64. In which Governor-General’s reign railway lines in India was established?
(a) Lord William Bentick
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Kenning
(d) Lord Dalhousie
Ans:- D

65. A station where the rail lines end, is called
(a) junction station
(b) way-side-station
(c) block station
(d) terminal station
Ans:- D

66. How much distance was traveled by first train of India?
(a) 33 km
(b) 36 km
(c) 34 km
(d) 46 km
Ans:- C

67. What is the position of the Indian Railway in the world according to the length of rail lines?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Ans:- D

68. What is the length of North-Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR)?
(a) 4300 Km
(b) 3700 Km
(c) 4290 km
(d) 5298 km
Ans:- B

69. The headquarters of North-Eastern railway is situated at
(a) Mumbai (V.T)
(b) Guwahati
(c) Gorakhpur
(d) New Delhi
Ans:- C

70. When was the North-Eastern frontier Railway (NEFR) established?
(a) 15th Jan, 1958
(b) 15th Jan, 1955
(c) 2nd Jan, 1956
(d) 14th April, 1952
Ans:- A

71. The headquarters of North -Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR) is
(a) Calcutta
(b) Maligaon (Guwahati)
(c) Chennai
(d) Gorakhpur
Ans:- B

72. In which of the following cities, the first sub-way train was started?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Delhi
(c) Calcutta
(d) Chennai
Ans:- C

73. General Manger is responsible for
(a) Railway Board
(b) Railway Ministry
(c) Both railway Board and Railway Ministry
(d) None of these
Ans:- A

74. The headquarters of South-Central Railways is situated at
(a) Mumbai (V.T)
(b) Chennai
(c) Secundrabad
(d) Mumbai (Central)
Ans:- C

75. The headquarters of Northern Railway is at
(a) New Delhi
(b) Guwahati
(c) Gorakhpur
(d) Mumbai (V.T)
Ans:- A

76. The headquarters of South Railways is situated at
(a) Calcutta
(b) Chennai
(c) Delhi
(d) Mumbai
Ans:- B

77. In which institution the training of electric work is being given?
(a) Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering
(b) Indian Railways Institute of Electrical Engineering
(c) Railway Staff College
(d) Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering
Ans:- B

78. Who invented the railway engine?
(a) Charles Babbage
(b) Isaac Newton
(c) James Watt
(d) George Stephenson
Ans:- D

79. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering Institution situated?
(a) Nasik
(b) Baroda
(c) Jamalpur
(d) Pune
Ans:- C

80. Metro Railway is functioning in which of the following Indian States?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
(c) West Bengal
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans:- C

81. The zone with the minimum length is
(a) North-Eastern Railway
(b) North-Eastern Frontier Railway
(c) South-East Railway
(d) South-Central Railway
Ans:- B

82. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering Institute situated?
(a) Pune
(b) Chennai
(c) Nasik
(d) Sikandrabad
Ans:- A

83. How many training institutions of Railways are in India?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six
Ans:- C

84. What is the position of the Indian Railway under the zonal system?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Forth
Ans:- B

85. Which of the gauges is used in the hilly areas?
(a) Broad gauge
(b) Meter gauge
(c) Narrow gauge
(d) Special gauge
Ans:- C

86. Where is the extreme north of India a railway station?
(a) Jammutavi
(b) Amritsar
(c) Pathancoat
(d) Guwahat
Ans:- A

87. How many institutions do give suggestions for railways technology?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Ans:- B

88. Diesel Locomotive Works is situated at
(a) Perambur
(b) Varanasi
(c) Kapurthala
(d) Bangalore
Ans:- B

89. The manufacturing of steam engine in Chittranjan Locomotive Works was stopped in
(a) 1974
(b) 1961
(c) 1971
(d) 1973
Ans:- C

90. The passenger bogies of the Indian Railways are manufactured at which of the following places?
(a) Kapurthala
(b) Chittranjan
(c) Perambur
(d) Bangalore
Ans:- C

91. Indian Railways which is the largest of the Public Sector Enterprises, is divided into how many regions?
(a) 7
(b) 9
(c) 8
(d) 10
Ans:- B

92. Besides Mahrashtra, Karnataka and Goa, which of the following is the fourth State for Konakan Railway Project?
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Gujarat
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans:- A

93. Palace On Wheels train was inaugurated in
(a) 1988
(b) 1972
(c) 1982
(d) 1965
Ans:- C

94. When was the Central Railway established?
(a) 5th Nov 1951
(b) 14th Nov 1951
(c) 14th April 1951
(d) 16th August, 1951
Ans:- A

95. Rajasthan is under which of the following railway zones?
(a) Northern region
(b) Western region
(c) North-Western region
(d) Central Region
Ans:- B

96. The largest national enterprise of India is
(a) Indian Railway
(b) Indian Shipyard
(c) Airways
(d) None of these
Ans:- A

97. The first locomotive which was manufactured in Chittranjan on
(a) November 1950
(b) October 1950
(c) September 1949
(d) October 1954
Ans:- A

98. Where is the wheel and axle plant of Indian Railways situated?
(a) Chittranjan
(b) Kapurthala
(c) Bangalore
(d) Perambur
Ans:- C

99. When was the Jammu City appeared on the map of Indian Railway?
(a) 1965
(b) 1963
(c) 1967
(d) 1965
Ans:- D

100. Where is the headquarters of Central Railway situated?
(a) Mumbai (V.T)
(b) Mumbai (Church Gate)
(c) Gwalior
(d) Gorakhpur
Ans:- A

RPF PREVIOUS PAPER

RAILWAY PROTECTION FORCE EXAM PREVIOUS PAPER

1. ?248+ \/52+?144 =?
(A) 14 (B) 16
(C) 18-8 (D) 16•6
Answer.B
2. The boys and girls in a college
are in the ratio 3 : 2. lf 20% of the
boys and 25% of the girls are
adults, the percentage of students
who are not adults is-
(A) 675% (B) 82-5%
(C) 78% (D) 58%
Answer.C
3. Five years ago the average age of
A, B, C, D was 45 years. By
including X the present average
of all the five is 49 years. Then
the present age of X is-—
(A) 64 years (B) 48years
(C) 45 years (D) 40 years
Answer.C
4. The difference between simple
interest and the compound
interest on Rs. 800 at 5% per
annum for 1 year is—»
(A) Rs. 81
(B) Rs. 41
(C) Rs. 56•50
(D) None of these.
Answer.D
5. A boat moves downstream at the
rate of 1 km in 6 minutes and
upstream at the rate of 1 km in 10
minutes. The speed of current
is-
(A) 2 km/ hr
(B) 1km/ hr
(C) l•5 km/ hr
(D) 2•5 km/ hr
Answer.A
6. The ratio of number of boys and
girls in a school of 720 students
is 7 : 5. How many more girls
should be admitted to make the
ratio 1 1 1 ?
(A) 90 (B) 220
(C) 120 (D) 240
Answer.C
7. A can do g of a work in 5 days. B
can dog of the work in 10 days.
ln how many days both A and B
can do the work ?
(A) 7%days (B) 9%days
(c) Sgdays (D) 10 days
Answer.B
11. Consider the following state-
ments-
Assertion (A) : Median of {7, 2,
12, 5, 9} is 7.
Reason (R) : The middle most
value ot a data arranged in
ascending order is called median.
Now select your answer acc0r•
ding to the coding scheme given
below-
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(B) (A) alone is true
(C) (R) alone is true
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A).
Answer.D
12. Match List-I with List-II correctly
and select your answer using the
codes given below—~
List-I
(a) Correlation coefficient
(b) Coefficient of variation
(c) For a symmetrical distribu-
tion
(d) MeandeviationfromMedian
List-II
1. Mean = Median = Mode
2. Least
3. Percentage variation
4, Cannot exceed unity
Codes :
(a) (b) (C) (d)
(A) 4 3 Z 1
(B) 4 2 3 1
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 3 4 2 1
Answer.C
13. Which one of the following is
correctly matched ?
(A) Harmonic mean
—A measure of skewness
(B) Mean deviation
-An average
(C) Analysis
—An arrangement of data
(D) Sales and profit
-—-Positive correlation
Answer.B
14. Which one of the following is
correctly matched ?
(A) Data ——A collection of objects
(B) Mode
—A well defined measure
(C) Range —Difference between
the largest and the smallest
items of a data
(D) Q. D.
-A best measure of dispersion
Answer.C
15. The average of three numbers is
135. The largest number is 180
and the difference of the other
two is 25. The smallest number
is— _
(A) 130 (B) 125
(C) 120 (D) 100
Answer.D
16. By frequency distribution we
mean the classification of data
according to—
(A) dissimilarities
(B) similarities
(C) class intervals
(D) magnitude
Answer.C
17. Value of M.D. of [5, 5, 5, 5, 5)
from Median is-
(A) 0 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 5
Answer.A
18. lf y = 3 + 2x, then the coefficient
of correlation between x and y
is~
(A) -1 (B) 0
(C) 0•5 (D) 1
Answer.D
19. Which one of the following
measures cannot be computed
for {2, 7, 5, 10, 4) ?
(A) Mean
(B) Median
(C) Mode
(D) Harmonic Mean
C
20. Consider the following state-
ments—
Assertion (A) : Histogram is a
graphical presentation of data.
Reason (R) : Statistical data can
be represented in the form of
graphs.
Now select your answer accord-
ing to the coding scheme given
below-
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer.A
21. The Green Revolution has led to
marked increase in—
1. Productivity of wheat
2. Productivity of pulses
3. Regional inequalities [
4. Inter-personal inequalities A
Of the statements—
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(D) All are correct.
Answer.A
22. The chief centre or meeting point
of the Indo-Roman trade was-
(A) Arikamedu
(B) Alexandria
(C) Madurai
(D) Musiri
Answer.D
23. The Indus Valley Civilization is
about-
(A) Ten thousand years old
(B) Seven thousand years old
(C) Five thousand years old
(D) Three thousand years old
Answer.D
24. Upanishads are books on-
(A) Religion
(B) Yoga
(C) Philosophy
(D) Law
Answer.C
25. Which one of the following is
correctly matched 7
(A) Ellora caves -Sal
(B) Mahabalipuram
-Rashtral
(C) Meenakshi temple
-Pallavas
(D) Khajuraho —Chandelas
Answer.D
26. Which of the following were
included in the Cripps propo»
sals ?
1. India was promised domin-
ion status
2. Setting up of a constitution-
making body consisting of
the elected representatives
from British India and mem-
bers from the princely states.
3. Setting up of an Executive
Council composed of Indians
alone
4. It suggested partition of
India
Of the statements-
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(D) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
Answer.A
27. The Iain temples known for the
finest marble carvings in India
are situated at-
(A) Gwalior i (B) Iaipur
(C) Gandhara (D) Dilwara
Answer.D
28. Who prepared the draft of the
’Quit India' resolution ?
(A) Acharya Kripalani
(B) Iawaharlal Nehru
(C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(D) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
Answer.B
29. Arrange the following events in
chronological order and mark
the correct choice from the
options given below-
1. Death of Bal Gangadhar
Tilak
2. Nagpur session of the
Congress
3. The Moplah uprising
4. The inauguration of Vishwa
Bharati at Shantiniketan.
(A) 4, 3, 2 and 1
(B) 3, 4, 2 and 1
(C) 2, 1, 3 and 4
(D) 3, 2, 4 and 1
Answer.*
30. Who is called as the father of
pure Tamil movement ?
(A) Bhavanar
(B) Bharathi
(C) Thiru.V. Kalyanasundaranar
(D) Maraimalai Adikal
Answer.D
31. The district with highest population in Tamil Nadu as per 2001
census is-
(A) Madurai
(B) Chennai
(C) Coimbatore
(D) Trichi
Answer.C
32. The district with highest literacy
rate in Tamil Nadu is-
(A) Kamniyakumari
(B) Tirunelveli
(C) Cuddalore
(D) Thanjavur
Answer.D
33. The density of population in
Tamil Nadu is (as per 2001
census)-
(A) 478 (B) 456
(C) 411 (D) 626
Answer.A
34. SEBI has introduced rolling
settlement for selected shares
under the method-
(A) All shares have to be paid
for on the day of purchase
(B) Purchaser has to make
advance payment for the share
(C) Purchase can be set oft
against sales
(D) Payment has to be settled at
the end of 5th day
Answer.D
35. Which of the following state»
ments is correct regarding Indira
Awas Yojana ?
(A) Soil and water conservation
works
(B) Construction of rural roads
(C) Providing houses at free of
cost to the members of SC / ST
• and free bonded labourers
(D) Land development and
waste land development
Answer.C
36. Match List-I with List—II correctly
and select your answer using the
codes given below-
List-I List-II
(a) IFCI 1. 1955
(b) ICICI 2. 1964
(c) IDBI 3. 1948
(d) EXIM Bank 4. 1971
Codes:
(a) (b) (C) (d)
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 2 3 4 1
Answer.C
37. Consider the following state-
ments-
1. The expansion of the public
sector was based on Indus—
trial Policy Resolution, 1956
2. Govt. has announced New
Industrial Policy in ]uly,
1991.
3. Govt. has not announced
any industrial policy at all.
Of the statements-
(A) 1 alone is correct
(B) 2 alone is correct
(C) 1 and 2 are correct ‘
(D) All are correct _
Answer.C
38. On whose vision was the term
’democratic socialism’ described ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Srnt. Indira Gandhi
(C) Iawaharlal Nehru
(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer.C
39. Which one of the following is
correctly matched ?
(A) Industrial policy statement
-2002
(B) Report on the committee on
disinvestment of shares (Rangarajan Committee) -1987
(C) Common Minimum Programme of United Front Govt.
-1996
(D) Start of tenth Five-Year Plan
-2005
Answer.C
40. For which purpose is the finance
commission appointed ?
(A) To make recommendahon
for devolution of non-plan
revenue resources
(B) To earn foreign exchange
(C) To recommend measures for
profit making public sector
enterprises
(D) To impose taxes
Answer.A
41. In which year was Legislative
Council abolished in Tamil
Nadu ?
(A) 1984 (B) 1985
(C) 1986 (D) 1987
Answer.C
42. The major emphasis in the First
Five-Year Plan was on-
(A) Employment generation
(B) Agriculture
(C) Export promotion
(D) Industry
Answer.B
43. UNICEF was established in the
year-
(A) 1946 (B) 1956
(C) 1949 (D) 1954
Answer.A
44. Which one of the following is
correct .
(A) Human Development Index
-United Nations
(B) PQLI -1996
(C) Social Indicators -I.ndia
(D) Welfare measures -Morris
Answer.A
45. Indian Telephone Industries Ltd.
is located at-
(A) Mumbai and Bangalore
(B) Bangalore
(C) Mumbai and New Delhi
(D) Mumbai and Chennai
Answer.B
46. Raurkela steel plant was set up
with the assistance from-
(A) USSR
(B) UK
(C) USA
(D) West Germany
Answer.D
47. The Oil and Natural Gas Com-
mission was set up i.n•- .
(A) 1956 (B) 1957
(C) 1959 (D) 1961
Answer.A
48. The Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission——
(A) Is the Prime Minister
(B) Is the Planning Minister
(C) Holds the rank of a cabinet
minister _
(D) Is an economist of repute
Answer.C
49. World Trade Organisation was
started in the year•
(A) 1984 (B) 1994
(C) 1995 (D) 1996
Answer.C
50. In Tamil Nadu, the district with
the highest sex ratio as per 2001
census is-
(A) Tuticorin (B) Tirunelveli
(C) Rarnnad (D) Nilgiris
Answer.B

RRB Kolkata (Commercial Apprentice) Exam 2009

1. Find the odd-one out?
(A)Desk
(B) Chair
(C)Table
(D) Computer
2. Which royal dynasty did Mahavir belong to?
(A) Lichchhivi
(B) Kapilvastu
(C) Shatruk Kshatriya
(D) Satwahan
3. Which of the following Governor General started postage stamp in India?
(A) Lord Auckland
(B) Lord William Bentinck
(C) Lord Daihousie
(D) Lord Canning
4. Who is known as father of ‘Economics’?
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Prof. Dantewala
(C) Prof. Marshall
(D) Prof. .J. K. Mehta
5. The headquarters of NABARD is situated at ?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Mumbai
(C) Chennai
(D) Jaipur
6. Which of the following states has the longest boarder line?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Orissa
(D) Tamilnadu
7. A.T.M. stands for?
(A) Automatic Teller Machine
(B) Automated Teller Machine
(C) Automatic Tally Machine
(D) Automated Tally Mechanism
8. ‘Kaling’ award is given by?
(A) UNICEF
(B) UNESCO
(C) World Bank
(D) World Trade Organisation
9. Which of the following is used as an anesthetic?
(A) Chlorine
(B) Helium
(C) Nitrus Oxide
(D) Carbon dioxide
10. Which of the following is chemically Vitamin ‘C’?
(A) Tartaric Acid
(B) Acetic Acid
(C) Ascorbic Acid
(D) Sulphuric Acid
11. Hemoglobin containing iron is—
(A)Antibody
(B) Nucleic Acid
(C)Protein
(D) Hormone
12. The only Indian Governor General was?
(A) Rajendra Prasad
(B) C. Rajgopalachari
(C) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
(D) Pattabhi Sitaramaiya
13. From when ‘Rashtriya GraminRozgar Yojna’ is being run
throughout the country?
(A) 1—4—2007
(B) 2—10—2007
(C) 1—4—2008
(D) 14—11—2007
14.. ‘Bharat Nirman Karyakram’ was launched keeping in view the following—
(A) During 2008-09 10 million extra jobs
(B) During 2005-09 10 million extra irrigation
(C) During 11th plan 1 lakh km road in villages
(D) During 11th plan IT park in all districts
15. Who among the following won a Gold Medal in Olympic 2008?
(A) Milkha Singh
(B) Abhinav Bindra
(C) Pankaj Adwani
(D) Sania Mirza

16.. Mansarovar lake is located in?
(A)Nepal
(B) India
(C)Tibet
(D) Bhutan
17. Next Commonwealth games will be played in?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Karanchi
(C)Seol
(D) Melbourne
18. Which of the following is a National Capital ?
(A) New York
(B) Washington
(C) Washington DC
(D) California
19. In India Panchayati Raj System was introduced in the year—
(A)1959AD
(B) 1960AD
(C)1956AD
(D) 1952 AD
20. which of the following is not an immediate neighbour of India?
(A) Myanmar
(B) China
(C)Bhutan
(D) Iran
21. How many members can the President of India nominate to Rajya Sabha?
(A) 15
(B) 14
(C) 12
(D) 21
22.Which of the following plan resulted in India’s independence?
(A) Cripps Mission
(B) Wavell Plan
(C) MountbattenPlan
(D) None of these
23. ELISA is—
(A) Fat Precipitation Test
(B) Immunological Test
(C) Osteomalacia Test
(D) None of these
24. The main source of Direct Foreign Investment in India is—
(A)USA
(B) China
(C) South Korea
(D) Mauritius
25. Histology is a study of?
(A)Blood
(B) Tissues
(C)Cells
(D) Protein
26. Plague is a disease caused by?
(A) Cattle flea
(B) Dog flea
(C) Rat flea
(D) None of these
27. The famous Gayatri Mantra’ is found in which of the following Vedas?
(A) Rigveda
(B) Samveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda
28. Which is the rate of Heart beats of a child during birth?
(A) 120 times
(B) 140 times
(C) 90 times
(D) 130 times
29. Which of the following is the hottest planet?
(A) Mars
(B) Mercury
(C) Earth
(D) Venus
30. What is the main basis of the dividing the atmospheric layers?
(A) Air pressure
(B) Composition
(C) Temperature
(D) Density
31, The speed at which the monitor accepts data is called ?
(A) Bandwidth
(B) Interlacing
(C) Response time
(0) Scanning
32. From 2009 the two new members of NATO are?
(A) Austria and Greece
(B) Bulgaria and Turkey
(C) Crotia and Albania
(D) Romania and Poland
33. In Beijing Olympics, the winner of gold medal in football (for men)was—
(A) Argentina
(B) Belgium
(C)Brazil
(D) Nigeria
34. In the General Election, 2009 the Lok Sabha seats won by the Congress are?
(A) 204 seats
(8) 206 seats
(C) 203 seats
(D) None of these
35. Which one of the following Slates of India has been recently awarded UN OSCAR by the United Nations Secretary General for the best Human Development report?
(A) Chattisgarh
(B) Gujarat
(C)Kerala
(D) Sikkim
36. Who among the following was chosen ‘Business Leader of the Year’ in ‘The Economic Times Award, 2007’?
(A) K. V. Kamath
(B) Sunil Bharti Mittal
(C) Mukesh Dhirubhai Ambani
(0) Anil Dhirubhai Ambani
37. Which of the following cricketers has experience of hitting 8 sixes in an over in an international cricket match?
(A) Rohit Sharma
(B) M. S. Dhoni
(C) Yuvaraj Singh
(D) Gautam Gambhir
38. Which of the following states has the highest female literacy rate according to 2001 census?
(A) Mizoram
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamilnadu
(D) Meghalaya
39. The capital of the Pallavas was?
(A)Arcot
(B) Kanchi
(C)Malkhed
(D) Banavasi
40. The back surface of mirrors are coated with a thin layer of?
(A) Mercury
(B) Silver
(C) Red oxide
(D) Silver nitrate
41. ‘Gidda’ is a folk dance from which state of India?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Uttarakhand
42. India’s first mobile court was inaugurated in—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Haryana
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan
43. The Sun Feast Open, 2007 was won by?
(A) Vania King
(B)Mariya Koryttseva
(C) Sania Mirza
(D)Maria Kirilenko
44. In which state is the Kanger Ghati National Park situated ?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Chhattisgarh
45. ‘Go back to the Vedas’ was the motto of?
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Raja Rammohan Roy
(C) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(D) Ramakrishna Paramahamsa
46. Venus Williams won Wimbledon,2008 women’s singles title by defeating?
(A) Ana Ivanovic
(B)Elena Dementieva
(C) Justice Henin
(D)Serena Williams
47. Rajiv Gandhi Institute of Petroleum Technology, as approved by the Union Cabinet, will be set up at?
(A) Amethi
(B) Jais
(C) Jagdishpur
(D) Rae Bareli
48. In Uttar Pradesh, the artificial rubber factory is situated at—
(A)Bareilly
(B) Ghaziabad
(C) Modinagar
(D) Gorakhpur
49. Nathu La was reopened in 2006 for trans border trade between India and—
(A) Bangladesh
(B) China
(C)Bhutan
(D) Nepal
50. The term ‘Plastic Money’ applies to—
(A) Bank draft made of plastic coated paper
(B) Currency notes printed on plastic coated paper
(C) Currency notes impregnated with plastic thread
(D) Credit Cards mainly issued by the banks
1:D
2:C
3:C
4:A
5:B
6:A
7:B
8:B
9:C
10:C
11:C
12:B
13:C
14:C
15:B
16:C
17:A
18:C
19:D
20:D
21:C
22:C
23:B
24:D
25:B
26:C
27:A
28:D
29:D
30:C
31:A
32:C
33:A
34:D
35:A
36:C
37:C
38:B
39:B
40:D
41:A
42:D
43:D
44:D
45:C
46:D
47:D
48::C
49::B
50:D

RRB Re-Exam Schedule

RRB Conduct Re-Exams for the Posts of Goods Guard, Enquiry Cum Reservation Clerk, Traffic Apprentice, Commercial Apprentice and Senior Clerks

GOODS GUARD :  26-09-2010

ENQUIRY CUM RESERVATION CLERK : 26-09-2010

TRAFFIC APPRENTICE  : 31-10-2010

COMMERCIAL APPRENTICE  : 31-10-2010

SENIOR CLERK : 31-10-2010

RRB PARAMEDICAL EXAM Health Inspector QUESTIONS

1. For education of measles, immunization coverage should be at least
(a) 80% (b) 85% (c) 96% (d) 100%

2. Period of maximum infectivity in mumps is during
(a) incubation period (b) onset of swelling (c) after swelling appears (d)
prodromal period

3. Major epidemics of influenza A occur at intervals of
(a) 1 year (b) 2-3 years (c) 10-15 years (d) 20-25 years

4. The most common source of infection for diphtheria is a
(a) case (b) sub clinical case (c) carrier (d) all of the above

5. Shick test is done in
(a) meningitis (b) diphtheria (c) pertussis (d) polimyelitis
6. Adjuvant present in DPT vaccine is

(a) aluminium phosphate (b) aluminium hydroxide (c) zinc phosphate (d) magnesium
phosphate
7. Recommended site of administration of DPT in infants is

(a) gluteal (b) deltoid (c) lateral aspect of thigh (d) forearm
8. The most severe complications following DPT are due to …….. component

(a) diphtheria (b) pertussis (c) tetanus (d) adjuvant
9. The vaccine usually given to pilgrims to the Middle East is

(a) DPT (b) influenza (c) yellow fever (d) meningitis
10. Best index to estimate case load of T.B. in a community is

(a) incidence of infection (b) prevalence of infection (c) incidence of disease
(d) prevalence of disease
11. Prevalence of T.B. infection in a community is estimated by

(a) tuberculin test (b) sputum microscopy (c) culture (d) chest X-ray
12. The amount of PPD used in mantoux test in India is

(a) 1 TU (b) 5 TU (c) 25 TU (d) 250 TU
13. Result of mantoux test is read after

(a) 6 hours (b) 24 hours (c) 48 hours (d) 72 hours
14. Present day BCG vaccine is supplied as

(a) liquid vaccine (b) freeze dried vaccine (c) both (d) none of the above
15. The diluent used for reconstituting BCG vaccine is

(a) normal saline (b) distilled water (c) dextrose (d) none of the above
16. Reconstituted BCG vaccine should be used with in

(a) 3 hours (b) 6 hours (c) 18 hours (d) 24 hours
17. The age for BCG vaccination is recommended at

(a) birth or at 6th week (b) only 6th week (c) 6-8 weeks (d) within 1 year
18. At the village level sputum for AFB is collected and fixed by

(a) anganwadi worker (b) village health guide (c) health worker male (d) health
worker female
19. Source of most polio infections are

(a) clinical cases (b) sub clinical cases (c) carrier (d) both (b)&(c)
20. Risk factors for development of paralytic polio include

(a) 1/M injections (b) Tonsillectomy (c) DPT (d) all of the above
21. Major route of transmission of Hepatitis A is

(a) Facco oral route (b) parentral route (c) sexual transmission (d) perinatal
transmission
22. Vaccine vial monitor is present on which of these vaccines

(a) BCG (b) DPT (c) OPV (d) Measles
23. Immunity after Hepatitis A lasts for

(a) 6 months (b) 1 year (c) 6 years (d) life long
24. Following methods destroy vibrio cholerae except

(a) boiling (b) drying (c) bleaching powder 1 mg/L (d) cresol
25. Best method of collecting choleric stools for diagnosis is by

(a) rectal catheter (b) rectal swab (c) disinfected stool (d) all of the above
26. All are vaccines included under the Universal Immunization Programme
except

(a) diphtheria (b) pertussis (c) measles (d) MMR
27. The MTP act was passed in the year

(a) 1975 (b) 1971 (c) 1986 (d) 2000
28. All are Anti Rabies vaccine currently used in Kerala except

(a) chick embryo cell vaccine (b) human diploid cell vaccine (c) vero cell
vaccine (d) neural tissue vaccine
29. Annual Parasitic incidence is used to measure the problem of

(a) Filariasis (b) Dengue fever (c) Malaria (d) Japanese encephalitis
30. The causative organism of plague is

(a) Y pestis (b) R. Prowazeki (c) Coryne bacterium (d) Arbovirus
31. Which of these is a Conventional Contraceptive

(a) Combined pill (b) IUD (c) Condom (d) Mini pill
32. Which of these insecticides is used as a space spray

(a) paris green (b) abate (c) pyrethrum (d) mineral oil
33. Chemical ideally used for disinfecting sputum is

(a) cresol (b) dettol (c) savlon (d) phenol
34. Census is carried out at regular intervals of

(a) 5 years (b) 10 years (c) 7 years (d) 15 years
35. Vaccine carrier should ideally have number of ice packs

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
36. The dose of elemental iron in Folifer tablet given to pregnant women
under the RCH programme is

(a) 60 mg (b) 80 mg (c) 50 mg (d) 100 mg
37. Sanitary latrine should be located at least …. feet from source of
contamination

(a) 15 (b) 25 (c) 50 (d) 75
38. For calculating Bacterial index in Leprosy a minimum of ….. sites
should be examined

(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 9
39. Number of Tetanus toxoid doses to be given to an antenatal mother with
last child birth 2 years back is

(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) none
40. As per the Birth and Deaths Registration Act all births are to be
registered with in a period of

(a) 7 days (b) 14 days (c) 21 days (d) 1 month
41. Dengue fever is transmitted by the bite of ……. mosquito

(a) anopheles (b) aedes (c) mansonia (d) culex
42. Route of administration of BCG vaccine is

(a) intramuscular (b) intradermal (c) subcutaneous (d) intrathecal
43. Pasteurisation of milk kills all organisms except

(a) Anthrax (b) M. Tuberculosis (c) Streptococcus (d) Brucella
44. Prevalence of hook worm infection in a community is assessed by

(a) pearl index (b) breteaux index (c) chandler index (d) none of the above
45. The level of iodisation of iodised salt at the consumer level as
specified under the IDD control programme is

(a) 40 ppm (b) 30 ppm (c) 15 ppm (d) 50 ppm
46. All are steps in Primary Prevention of diseases except

(a) promotion of healthy life styles (b) good nutrition (c) immunization (d)
treatment
47. Communicability of measles declines

(a) after onset of fever (b) during prodromal period (c) at the time of eruption
(d) after appearance of rash
48. After effective chlorination of water free residual chlorine should
not be less than

(a) 0.5 mg/L (b) 1 mg/L (c) 50 mg/L (d) 200 mg/L
49. All are side effects of oral contraceptives except

(a) hypertension (b) cervical cancer risk (c) gall bladder disease (d) iron
deficiency anameia
50. World AIDS day is observed on

(a) December 1st (b) January 31st (c) May 1st (d) October 1st
51. Highest source of vitamin A is seen in

(a) Cod liver oil (b) green leafy vegetables (c) papaya (d) carrot
52. Which is a live vaccine

(a) Hepatitis B vaccine (b) Hepatitis A vaccine (c) Oral polio vaccine (d) DPT
vaccine
53. Scurvy is a deficiency disease due to

(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin D (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin B12
54. Number of sputum smears to be taken for confirmation of tuberculosis
under the Revised National Tuberculosis control

programme is

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
55. The target population under the Universal Immunization Programme is

(a) infants and antenatal mothers (b) infants (c) under fives (d) under fives
and antenatal mothers
56. RCH programme was launched in the year

(a) 1997 (b) 1992 (c) 1990 (d) 1998
57. Additional energy requirement to be supplemented for a lactating
mother is

(a) 200 calories (b) 550 calories (c) 350 calories (d) 100 calories
58. Dental caries is caused due to deficiency of

(a) Iodine (b) Iron (c) Fluorine (d) Copper
59. Most ideal equipment for vaccine storage in a PHC is

(a) domestic refrigerator (b) ice lined refrigerator (c) cold box (d) vaccine
carrier
60. Village Health Guide is present in all these states except

(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar (c) Orissa (d) Kerala
61. Route of transmission of pneumonic plague is

(a) Vector (b) Droplet (c) Formite (d) Food
62. Most simple way of data presentation to a common man is

(a) Bar chart (b) Line diagram (c) Pictogram (d) Histogram
63. The best method for operation theatre disinfection is

(a) dettol (b) phenol (c) lysol (d) fromaldehyde
64. Primary schedule of hepatitis B immunization is

(a) 0,1,6 months (b) 1,3,6 months (c) 1,2,12 months (d) 0,1,5 years
65. The control of ….. has led to the eradication of guinea worm disease

(a) mosquito (b) rat flea (c) sand fly (d) cyclops
66. The confirmatory test for paralytic poliomyelitis is a

(a) stool examination (b) CSF examination (c) blood examination (d) nerve
examination
67. The drug given to peripheral health worker under the Actute
Respiratory infection Control Programme is

(a) Tetracycline (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Doxy cycline (d) Chloroquine
68. The fitration technique in modern water treatment plant is

(a) slow sand filter (b) rapid sand filter (c) activated sludge process (d)
double pot method
69. World Health Day is observed every year on

(a) May 9th (b) July 11th (c) April 7th (d) July 1st
70. Health education technique most suited for introducing the correct use
of O.R.S. among Rural mothers is

(a) group discussion (b) flash card (c) demonstration (d) flannel graph
71. All are anti scabies preparations except

(a) BHC (b) permethrin (c) benzyl benzoate (d) malathion
72. All are tests used for bacteriological quality testing of drinking water
except

(a) multiple tube method (b) membrane filtration technique (c) colony count (d)
biological oxygen demand
73. During an epidemic of cholera, wells should be disinfected ideally

(a) Every day (b) 2 days (c) 3 days (d) 1 week
74. All are components of under five clinic except

(a) immunization (b) growth monitoring (c) oral rehydration (d) referral
treatment
75. All are true of prevention of Food Adulteration Act except

(a) prescribes minimum standards (b) is not mandatory

(c) punishment includes imprisonment (d) latest amendment was in the year 1986
76. Physical quality of life index includes all except

(a) infant mortality (b) life expectancy at age one (c) per capita GNP (d)
literacy
77. Incubation period is less than 3 days in all the following except

(a) influenza (b) cholera (c) mumps (d) staphylococcal food poisoning
78. The type of influenza virus causing epidemics every year is

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) Any one of the above
79. The incubation period of Rabies in men is determined by

(a) Site of bite (b) Severity of bite (c) Number of wounds (d) All of the above
80. Noso comial infection means

(a) infection of nose (b) hospital acquired infection (c) notifiable disease (d)
new disease
81. All of the following are mosquito borne diseases except

(a) Malaria (b) Filaria (c) Kysanur forest disease (d) Dengue fever
82. Which is not true of small pox

(a) No animal reservoir (b) No carrier stage (c) No sub-clinical infection (d)
No air borne transmission
83. ORS contains all except

(a) sodium chloride (b) potassium sulphate (c) trisodium citrate (d) glucose
84. The danger zone for bacterial growth in food is

(a) 10-49 degree C (b) 20-49 degree C (c) 10-60 degree C (d) 20-60 degree C
85. Aldehyde test is used for the diagnosis of

(a) Malaria (b) Kala Azar (c) Japanese encephalitis (d) Typhus fever
86. The period from disease initiation to disease detection in chronic
disease is called

(a) incubation period (b) serial interval (c) latent period (d) median period
87. Herd immunity does not protect an individual in

(a) Diphtheria (b) Poliomyelitis (c) Small pox (d) Tetanus
88. Vaccines which should not be frozen include

(a) Typhoid (b) DPT (c) TT (d) All of the above
89. ILR stands for

(a) Income Literacy Ratio (b) Illiteracy- Literacy Ratio

(c) Ice Lined Refrigerator (d) Infant Living Rate
90. Cold chain equipment used at out reach sites is

(a) cold box (b) vaccine carrier (c) ice pack (d) freezer
91. Most heat sensitive vaccine is

(a) BCG (b) Polio (c) Measles (d) DPT
92. Zero dose of polio vaccine means

(a) no vaccination (b) dose before first dose (c) no antibody response (d)
vaccination at mobile camps
93. Pasteurisation of milk is an example disinfection

(a) Pre current (b) Con current (c) Terminal (d) Absolute
94. Boiling for 5-10 minutes kills

(a) bacteria (b) spores (c) virus (d) none of the above
95. All of the following can be sterilized by Auto claving except

(a) gloves (b) culture media (c) plastics (d) linen
96. All are suitable for disinfection of faces and urine except

(a) 8% bleaching powder (b) 1% crude phenol (c) 5% cresol (d) 1-2% formalin
97. Ideally bed pans and urinals are sterilized using

(a) 1% cresol (b) bleaching powder (c) steam (d) all of the above
98. Sputum is best disposed by

(a) burning (b) boiling (c) 5% cresol (d) any of the above
99. Immunity conferred by an attack of small pox is for

(a) 10 years (b) 15 years (c) 20 years (d) life long
100. Which is not true regarding measles

(a) source of infection is a case (b) secondary attack rate is 80%

(c) carries do not occur (d) sub clinical measles not known
Answers:

1 B 11 A 21 A 31 C 41 B 51 A 61 B 71 D 81 C 91 B
2 A 12 A 22 B 32 C 42 A 52 C 62 C 72 D 82 C 92 B
3 D 13 C 23 A 33 A 43 B 53 C 63 D 73 A 83 B 93 A
4 B 14 B 24 D 34 B 44 C 54 C 64 A 74 D 84 C 94 D
5 A 15 A 25 A 35 D 45 C 55 C 65 D 75 B 85 B 95 C
6 C 16 B 26 C 36 C 46 D 56 B 66 A 76 D 86 A 96 D
7 C 17 A 27 B 37 D 47 D 57 B 67 B 77 C 87 B 97 B
8 D 18 A 28 C 38 C 48 A 58 C 68 A 78 B 88 D 98 C
9 C 19 C 29 A 39 C 49 A 59 B 69 C 79 D 89 C 99 D
10C 20 D 30 A 40 C 50 A 60 C 70 C 80 D 90 B 100B

R.R.B. Bangalore ASM Exam-2009

   R.R.B. Bangalore Exam-2009
Solved Paper (Based on Memory)

Correct Spelling
1.     (A) Comitment    (B) Comittment    (D)
    (C) Committment    (D) Commitment
2.     (A) Fullfil    (B) Fulfil    (B)
    (C) Fulfill    (D) Fullfill
3.     (A) Defendant    (B) Defendent    (A)
    (C) Defandent    (D) Defandant
4.     (A) Varstile    (B) Verstile    (C)
    (C) Versatile    (D) Vorstyle
5.     (A) Recomand    (B) Recommend    (B)
    (C) Reconand    (D) Recomend
6.     I always fall ……… old Friends in times of need.        (C)
    (A) over    (B) through
    (C) back on    (D) off
7.     The party decided to take the shortest…… to its destination.        (B)
    (A) root    (B) route
    (C) distance    (D) direction
8.     The girl was very pleased……… herself.    (D)
    (A) in    (B) on
    (C) over    (D) with
9.     Because of deforestation birds are……… their nerting places.        (C)
    (A) cooking    (B) conserving
    (C) searching    (D) demanding
10. The thieves broke…… the museum to steal the painting.        (D)
    (A) up    (B) side
    (C) off    (D) into
11.     Where was the battle of Plassey fought ?    (D)
    (A) Karnal    (B) Haldighati
    (C) Mysore    (D) Bengal
12.     Who was the first Vice-President of India ?
    (A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan    (A)
    (B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
    (C) C. V. Raman
    (D) Jawahar Lal Nehru
13.     What was the reason behind the mutiny of 1857 ?        (B)
    (A) Cartridge containing fat
    (B) Frustration in soldiers
    (C) Failure of British Government
    (D) Administrative research
14.     Which of the following is UHF ?    (B)
    (A) 40 MHz    (B) 400 MHz
    (C) 400 KHz    (D) 40 KHz
15.     Mass of a particle is m and its momentum is p. Its kinetic energy will be—    (D)
    (A) mp    (B) p2m
    (C) p3m    (D) p2/2m
16.    S. I. unit of power is ‘watt’. It is equivalent to which of the following ?    (C)
    (A) Kgms–2    (B) Kgm2s–2
    (C) Kgm2s–3    (D) None of these
17.     Who among the following cricketers scored the highest runs—        (C)
    (A) Brien Lara
    (B) Sanat Jaysurya
    (C) Sachin Tendulkar
    (D) Virendra Sehwag
18.     Which is the oldest Veda ?    (B)
    (A) Samveda    (B) Rigveda
    (C) Yajurveda    (D) Atharvaveda
19.     Who was the founder of Pakistan ?    (A)
    (A) Mohammad Ali Jinna
    (B) Liyaquat Ali Khan
    (C) Gaffar Khan
    (D) Benazir Bhutto
20.     Who invented television ?    (A)
    (A) J. L. Baird    (B) Lawrance
    (C) Frederick Trechithic
    (D) King Gillette
21.     Who invented wireless ?    (A)
    (A) Marconi
    (B) Charles Caterin
    (C) George Cayley
    (D) Zenobe Gramme
22.     Which of the following was the battle strategy of Shivaji against Mughals ?    (D)
    (A) Alert army
    (B) Large army
    (C) Political monopoly
    (D) Guerilla warfare
23.     Find out the next term of the series—    (A)
    1, 2, 4, 7, 11, ……
    (A) 16    (B) 12
    (C) 9    (D) 4
24.     Which of the following cities is termed as the Pink city ?        (A)
    (A) Jaipur    (B) Jodhpur
    (C) Ajmer    (D) Delhi
25.     Who wrote the Meghdoot ?    (A)
    (A) Kalidas    (B) Vatsyayan
    (C) Chanakya    (D) Premchand
26.     Find out the missing term of the series—
    11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41……    (B)
    (A) 43    (B) 47
    (C) 53    (D) 51
27.     Which of the following is a creation of Maithili-Sharan Gupta ?        (A)
    (A) Saket    (B) Urvashi
    (C) Prempachisi    (D) Gatha
28.     Which is the longest railwayline of the world ?
    (A) Trans-Siberian        (A)
    (B) Trans-Canadian
    (C) Orient Railway line
    (D) Railwayline from London to Paris
29.     Which of the following states has the highest number of voters ?        (A)
    (A) Uttar Pradesh    (B) Bihar
    (C) Rajasthan    (D) Gujarat
30.     Garaba folk dance belongs to which of the following states ?        (C)
    (A) Manipur    (B) Assam
    (C) Gujarat    (D) Orissa
    Nearest Meaning :
31.     Addicted—        (D)
    (A) wild    (B) enhaneed
    (C) sentenced    (D) incline
32.     Bewilder—        (C)
    (A) Cross    (B) Seize
    (C) Puzzle    (D) Annoy
33.     Destitute—        (B)
    (A) Sick    (B) Poor
    (C) thin    (D) Angry
34. Genteel—        (B)
    (A) Clever    (B) Polite
    (C) Hopeful    (D) Lovable
35.     Camouflage—        (D)
    (A) Deject    (B) Disappear
    (C) Drown    (D) Conceal
36.     A thing liable to be easily broken—    (C)    (A) Breakable    (B) Ductile
    (C) Brittle    (D) Delicate
37.     Animal living on land and in water—    (C)
    (A) Ambiguous    (B) Pacify
    (C) Amphibian    (D) Ambivalend
38.     One who does not care for literature or and—
    (A) Barbarian    (B) Philistine    (B)
    (C) Primitive    (D) Literate
39.     The following country is the winner of the last three world cricket coups—    (C)
    (A) Pakistan    (B) India
    (C) Australia    (D) Sri Lanka
40.     Find the odd man out—    (B)
    1, 5, 14, 30, 50, 55, 91
    (A) 5    (B) 50
    (C) 55    (D) 91
41.     Find out wrong number in each sequence—
    582, 605, 588, 611, 634, 617, 600    (A)
    (A) 634    (B) 611
    (C) 605    (D) 600
42.     A boy was asked to multiply a number by 25. He instead multiplied the number by 52 and got the answer 324 more than the correct answer. The number to be multiplied was—
    (A) 12    (B) 15    (A)
    (C) 25    (D) 32
43.     Insert the missing number—
    16, 33, 65, 131, 261, (……)    (A)
    (A) 523    (B) 521
    (C) 613    (D) 721
44.     3251 + 587 + 369 – ? = 3007    (D)    (A) 1250    (B) 1300
    (C) 1375    (D) 1200
45.     If 2 tables and 3 chairs cost Rs. 3500 and 3 tables and 2 chairs cost Rs. 4000, then how much does a table cost ?    (C)
    (A) Rs. 500    (B) Rs. 750
    (C) Rs. 1000    (D) Rs. 1500
46.     The sum of first five prime numbers is—    (D)
    (A) 11    (B) 18
    (C) 26    (D) 28
47.     Three numbers are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 and their H. C. F. is 12. The numbers are—    (D)
    (A) 4, 8, 12    (B) 5, 10, 15
    (C) 10, 20, 30    (D) 12, 24, 36
48.     Income of a company doubles after every one year. If the initial income was Rs. 4 lakhs, what would be the income after 5 years ?    (B)
    (A) Rs. 1.24 crores    (B) Rs. 1.28 crores
    (C) Rs. 2.52 crores    (D) Rs. 2.56 crores
49.     Water boils at 2120F or 1000C and melts at 320F or 00C. If the temperature of a particular day is 350C, it is equivalent to—    (C)
    (A) 850F    (B) 900F
    (C) 950F    (D) 990F
50. A Bazar has an average of 510 people on Sundays and 240 on other days. The average number of people per day in a month of 30 days beginning with a Sunday is—    (D)
    (A) 250    (B) 276
    (C) 280    (D) 285
51.     Kumar is older than Vishnu who is younger than Ashoka. Harsha is older than Anil but younger than Vishnu, Ashoka is younger than Kumar. Who is the youngest ?    (D)
    (A) Kumar    (B) Ashoka
    (C) Vishnu    (D) Anil
52.     A station director starts from the radio station Jalandhar and drives 15 km towards west, turns, left and covers another 10 km and again turns, right and covers 18 km. In which direction is he driving ?        (B)
    (A) South    (B) West
    (C) South West    (D) North West
53.     If TOM = 48 and DICK = 27, what is HARRY equal to ?        (C)
    (A) 50    (B) 44
    (C) 70    (D) 60
54.    If UNDERSTAND is coded as 3287654321,  how will START be coded ?    (D)
    (A) 56781    (B) 83243
    (C) 73652    (D) 67857
55. Foot is to hand as leg is to—    (D)    (A) Elbow    (B) Toe
    (C) Finger    (D) Arm
56.     Daughter is to father as niece is to—    (C)
    (A) Nephew    (B) Cousin
    (C) Uncle    (D) Mother
    Directions—(Q. 57–60) Read the following information and give the answers. If you start running from a point towards North and after covering 4 kms you turn to your left and run 5 km and then again turn to your left and run 5 km and then turn to left again and run another 6 km and before finishing you take another left turn and run 1 km, then answer questions based on this information—
57. How many kms are you from the place you started ?        (A)
    (A) 1 km    (B) 2 km
    (C) 3 km    (D) 4 km
58.     In which direction will you be running while finishing ?        (C)
    (A) East    (B) West
    (C) North    (D) South
59.     After taking the second turn, in which direction will you be running ?        (D)
    (A) East    (B) West
    (C) North    (D) South
60.     From the finishing point if you have to reach the point from where you started in which direction will you have to run ?    (B)
    (A) East    (B) West
    (C) North    (D) South
61.     Introducing a lady, a man said, “Her father is my mother’s only son.” How is the lady related to the man ?        (B)
    (A) Sister    (B) Daughter
    (C) Aunt    (D) Mother
62.     In which of the following years was the Indian National congress founded ?    (B)
    (A) 1805    (B) 1885
    (C) 1893    (D) 1870
63.     Choose the incorrect one—    (B)
    36, 54, 18, 27, 9, 18.5, 4.5
    (A) 18    (B) 18.5
    (C) 4.5    (D) 27
64.     Unit of which of the following has been derived from ohm’s law ?        (A)
    (A) Resistance
    (B) Current
    (C) Potential difference
    (D) All the above
65.     Ajanta caves are famous for which of the following—        (A)
    (A) Artistic painting    (B) Caves
    (C) Carving    (D) None of these
66.     Which country awards Nobel Prize ?    (A)
    (A) Sweden    (B) France
    (C) Norway    (D) Spain
67.     Who was the first Indian to be honoured with Nobel Prize ?        (B)
    (A) Mother Teresa
    (B) Rabindranath Tagore
    (C) Subhash Chandra Bose
    (D) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
68.     Which of the following is an odd number ?
    385, 462, 572, 396, 427, 671, 264    (D)
    (A) 462    (B) 396
    (C) 671    (D) 427
69.     Find out the an odd number—    (A)
    835, 734, 642, 751, 853, 981, 532
    (A) 751    (B) 853
    (C) 981    (D) 532
70.     Average of 50 numbers is 30. If two numbers 35 and 40 are deleted, what would be the average of rest numbers ?    (D)
    (A) 28.32    (B) 28.78
    (C) 29.27    (D) 29.68
71.     ITDC stands for—        (A)
    (A) Indian Trade Development Corporation
    (B) Indian Trade Defence City
    (C) Income Tax Development Corporation
    (D) Indian Trade Design Corporation
72.     Sri Harikota is famous for which of the following ?
    (A) Space programmes    (B)
    (B) Satellite launching
    (C) Nuclear Research Centre
    (D) Missile launching Centre
73.     Pointing towards a woman, a girl said, “She is the only daughter-in-law of the grandmother of my father’s son.” Who is this woman of the girl ?        (A)
    (A) Mother    (B) Aunt
    (C) Mother-in-law    (D) Sister-in-law
74.     7589 – ? = 3434        (D)
    (A) 4242    (B) 1123
    (C) 11023    (D) 4155
75.     Who was the founder of Sikh religion ?    (A)
    (A) Guru Nanak
    (B) Guru Ramdas
    (C) Guru Govind Singh
    (D) Guru Arjundev
76.     Chanakya was the Prime, Minister of which of the following emperors ?    (A)
    (A) Chandragupta Maurya
    (B) Chandragupta II
    (C) Ashok
    (D) Bimbisar
77.     L.C.M. of two numbers is 4284 and their H.C.F. is 34. One of these two numbers is 204, then what is second number ?    (A)
    (A) 714    (B) 720
    (C) 700    (D) 715
78.     Which of the following is odd ?    (A)
    – 3, 9, 21, 34, 45, 57
    (A) 34    (B) 57
    (C) 21    (D) – 3
79.     What is full form of INTERPOL ?    (A)
    (A) International Police Organization
    (B) International Public Organization
    (C) Indian Police Organization
    (D) Indian Police Office