Wednesday, November 3, 2010

RRB AJMER ASM EXAM SOLVED PAPER


1. The Buland Darwaja is related to

(1) Shershah

(2) Babur

(3) Akbar

(4) Jehangir

Ans. (3)

2. The Military Games were held in Hyderabad from October 17, 2007 to October 27, 2007.Which country won the highest number of medals?

(1) China

(2) Russia

(3) India

(4) Japan

Ans. (2)

3. The Railways gets the maximum income from

(1) Goods freight

(2) Passenger’s fares

(3) Advertisement

(4) None of these

Ans. (1)

4. What is sound?

(1) Energy

(2) Heat

(3) Magnet

(4) Ray

Ans. (1)

5. The chief source of heat energy is

(1) Sun light

(2) Biogas

(3) Electricity

(4) Natural gas

Ans. (1)

6. The Aravalli hills are located in

(1) Madhya Pradesh

(2) Rajasthan

(3) Assam

(4) Jharkhand

Ans. (2)

7. A plant can be disease resistant due to

(1) Pesticides

(2) Virus

(3) Fungi

(4) Bacteria

Ans. (1)

8. Which of the following Chief Ministers served for the longest tenure?

(1) Lalu Prasad

(2) Jyoti Basu

(3) Ms. Mayawati

(4) M. Karunanidhi

Ans. (2)

9. Which of the following straits separates Europe from Africa?

(1) Berring

(2) Dobar

(3) Gibralter

(4) Mulucca

Ans. (3)

10. The UN Climate Change conference was organized in Bali from December 3, 2007 to December 14, 2007 for 12 days in which 1000 people participated .Bali is situated in

(1) Indonesia

(2) Malaysia

(3) Morocco

(4) China

Ans. (1)

11. The description of caste system is found in

(1) Rig Veda

(2) Sam Veda

(3) Yajurva Veda

(4) Atharva Veda

Ans. (1)

12. Who is called the Akbar of Kashmir?

(1) Janulabeddin

(2) Sikandar

(3) Queen Didda

(4) Emperor Sangram Singh

Ans. (1)

13. The Border Road Organization comes under

(1) Defense

(2) Urban Development

(3) Corporate sector

(4) Private sector

Ans. (1)

14. Which of the following corporations was started first by the Government of India?

(1) Damodar Valley Corporation

(2) National Thermal Power Corporation

(3) National Hydel Power Corporation

(4) All the above

Ans. (1)

15. Which of the following is not a part of three gems of the Buddhism?

(1) Buddha

(2) Sangha

(3) Dhamma

(4) Ahimsa

Ans. (4)

16. Who was the first Indian to reach Antarctica?

(1) Rakesh Sharma

(2) G.S. Sirohi

(3) B.K. Dutta

(4) K. Karuna Nautial

Ans. (2)

17. A saturated solution at S.T.P. is

(1) Colorless

(2) Green

(3) Red

(4) Red and green

Ans. (1)

18. The pure element in the following is

(1) Glass

(2) Diamond

(3) Lime

(4) Salt

Ans. (2)

19. What is gypsum?

(1) Lime

(2) Bleaching powder

(3) Blue vitriol

(4) Ammonium chloride powder

Ans. (3)

20. Bones of horses of Harappan civilization were found at

(1) Lothal

(2) Harappa

(3) Surkotada

(4) Mohanjodero

Ans. (3)

21. What is Ag-mark?

(1) Technique to increase agricultural productivity

(2) Green Revolution

(3) Test of purity in the production of vegetable oil etc.

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

22. Who has taken the highest number of wickets in Test Cricket?

(11) Muttiah Muralitharan

(2) Shane Warne

(3) Anil Kumble

(4) Shoaib Akhtar

Ans. (1)

23. In 1947, 532 princely states were annexed to India except three. Which of the following was not among the three princely states?

(1) Junagarha

(2) Bhavnagar

(3) Hyderabad

(4) Kashmir

Ans. (4)

24. Which of the following gases is used to prepare Ammonia gas?

(1) Nitrogen and oxygen

(2) Nitrogen and oxide

(3) Nitrogen and hydrogen

(4) Nitrogen and carbon

Ans. (3)

25. In which of the following states of India, per capita income is highest?

(1) Orissa

(2) Assam

(3) Manipur

(4) Kerala

Ans. (4)

26. By import of — the inflation has been caused in India?

(1) Wheat

(2) Rice

(3) Sugar

(4) Petroleum

Ans. (4)

27. The meeting of Commonwealth Nations was held in Uganda on November 25, 2007. Who was elected its General Secretary?

(1) Mahesh Sharma

(2) Kamlesh Sharma

(3) Bimalesh Sharma

(4) Kailash Sharma

Ans. (2)

28. In which country the Hindu temples were razed to the ground in

December, 2007?

(1) Indonesia

(2) Malaysia

(3) Mauritius

(4) Afghanistan

Ans. (2)

Directions (29 — 33) : Read the following passage carefully and then answer the following questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage by choosing the best answer to each question out of given four options.

On hearing the news of the massacre at Jallianwala Bagh, Udham Singh did not attend his school but took a train to Armritsar and visited the spot. There, he stood for several minutes in a trance, picked up the soil, rubbed it on his forehead and put some in a phial. He fasted that night. According to his family members he placed fresh flowers on the holy dust every morning, drawing inspiration from it. One early morning he went to the river Ravi and pledged that he would Colour its waters with the colour of his blood, to create what he called the freedom’s flood. With this aim in view in 1921, he first landed in Africa. From there he went to America to meet the Indian revolutionaries working for the liberation of the motherland.

In 1923, he landed in England. In 1928, he returned to India in response to an urgent call from Bhagat Singh. When he reached Lahore, he was detained for violation of the Arms Act. He was released after four years rigorous imprisonment. In 1935, he escaped to Germany by giving a slip to the police. From Berlin, he reached Paris and purchased a revolver. He kept it ready for action and managed to reach London again. Opportunity came on March 13, 1940 when Sir Michael O’ Dwyer was to speak at a seminar in the Caxton Hall. As Sir Michael turned to resume his seat after the speech. Udham Singh pulled out his revolver and fired at him, Sir Michael died without a shriek. Udham

Singh was arrested and produced before the court on April 2, 1940. The court passed death sentence on him and he was hanged at Pentonville Prison, London on July 3, 1940.

29. Udham Singh went to America where he

(1) mobilized the Indian citizens for the liberation of the motherland

(2) collected sufficient funds to fight colonialism

(3) met fellow citizens working for the same cause

(4) went sight-seeing

Ans. (3)

30. Where did Udham Singh buy the weapon which was used for killing Sir Michael?

(1) Paris

(2) Lahore

(3) London

(4) Berlin

Ans. (1)

31. Udham Singh shot at Sir Michael O’Dwyer in

(1) Jallianwala Bagh

(2) Armritsar

(3) London

(4) Paris

Ans. (3)

32. When Udham Singh was arrest ed in Lahore, he was charged for

(1) instigating his countrymen against the Englishmen

(2) his links with anti-British forces

(3) concealing his identity and carrying on underground activities

(4) possessing unlicensed arms and ammunition

Ans. (4)

33. Udham Singh returned to India in 1928 mainly because he was:

(1) short of funds to meet his expenses

(2) to produce some arms from Lahore

(3) to escape from the British police

(4) called by a revolutionary in India

Ans. (4)

34. In the following question a word has been spelt in four different ways one of which is correct. Choose the correctly spelt word:

(1) Assemblage

(2) Asemblage

(3) Assemmblage

(4) Accemblage

Ans. (1)

35. In the following sentence, fill in the blank by choosing correct option from the given alternatives

The documents are available ? inspection.

(1) of

(2) about

(3) with

(4) for

Ans. (4)

36. In the following question, choose the Adjective.

(1) Preference

(2) Gifted

(3) Genius

(4) In vain

Ans. (2)

37. Write the synonym of the word ‘Consummate’.

(1) Novice

(2) Ambiguous

(3) Perfect

(4) Imperfect

Ans. (3)

38. Find out, which part of the following sentence has a grammatical or idiomatic error in it.

They have

(1)/held the championship

(2)/ since the past

(3)/ two years.

(4)

Ans. (3)

39. In the following question, a word has been spelt in four different ways, one of which is correct. Choose the correctly spelt word.

(1) demmurage

(2) demurrage

(3) demarrage

(4) demurage

Ans. (2)

40. In the following question, an idiomatic expression and its four possible meanings are given. Find out the correct meaning of the idiomatic expression and choose your correct answer from the given four choices:

Play one’s cards well

(1) A good gambler displaying skills

(2) A magician showing magic of cards

(3) Use means effectively

(4) A game of gamble

Ans. (3)

41. Out of the four alternatives, choose the one that can he substituted for .the given words/ phrase and mark it as your answer.

A cock and bull story

(1) An unbelievable gossip

(2) A children’s fable

(3) A quarrelsome dialogue

(4) A competition between un equal people

Ans. (1)

42. Choose the part of the following sentence containing error and mark it as your answer:

The number of orders(1). /

for that item have(2). /

increased greatly; several of them(3). /

have come from Egypt(4).

Ans. (2)

43. Identify the part of the following sentence containing an error and choose it as your answer.

In America(1)/

Presidential elections(2) /

is held every four years(3)

No error(4)

Ans. (3)

44. In the following sentence, fill in the blank by choosing correct option from the given alternatives:

‘Ram has annoyed his boss. He ? have to leave the job.

(1) might

(2) will

(3) ought to

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

45. In the following question, three words having different meanings of a certain word are given. Select that word from the answer choices marked (1), (2), (3) and (4).

Witness, Observer; Onlooker

(1) spectator

(2) present

(3) biased

(4) careful

Ans. (1)

46. For the following word written in capital letters, four words are listed below as (1),

(2) (3) and (4). Out of these, choose the word nearest in meaning to it as your answer:

VINDICATE

(1) approve

(2) justify

(3) express

(4) exonerate

Ans. (2)

47. In the following sentence, the bold part contains an error. Answer choice (1) repeats the original, other three are 1ifferent. If you think that the original sentence displays the best way of wording the bold part, choose your answer (1): otherwise select the best alternative from the other three choices.

“Parents and teachers are be coming increasingly concerned about protecting children and the drugs which are available to them, and several parent teacher organizations, dedicated to educating children about the dangers of drug addiction, have recently been formed.”

(1) protecting children and the drugs which are available to them

(2) protecting of children and the drugs which are available to them

(3) protecting children from the drugs available to them

(4) protecting children from the drugs availability to them

Ans. (3)

48. From the given four answer choices, select the answer that gives the clearest, most exact sentence, but do not change the meaning Of the bold part of original sentence.

Such people never have and never will be trusted.

(1) never have and never will be trusted

(2) never have and will be trust ed

(3) never have been trusted and never will be trusted

(4) never have and anyone trust them and never will have anyone

Ans. (3)

49. Which one of the following statements is untrue?

(1) The sea-floor is older than the land

(2) The first rocks were formed as a result of the cooling o. molten matter

(3) Sedimentary rocks are also called aqueous rocks because they were formed by

the agency of water

(4) Stalactites and stalagmites are deposits of lime found in caves

Ans. (3)

50. The main hydro electric power potential of the Indus river system lies in India and not in Pakistan because:

(1) the need for hydro-electric power is greater in India than in Pakistan

(2) India has superior technology to develop hydro—electric power

(3) India has a greater labour force to develop hydro electric power

(4) The mountain stages of these rivers lie in India

Ans. (4)

51. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List-I List-II

(a) Cotton 1. Madhya Pradesh

(b) Gram 2.Gujarat

(c) Black Pepper 3. West Bengal

(d) Pine apple 4. Kerala

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 2 1 3 4

(3) 1 2 4 3

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (1)

52. In the production of tidal energy the maximum potential exists at:

(1) Bhavnagar

(2) Digboi

(3) Cochin

(4) Ladakh

Ans. (1)

53. The National Highway system is the responsibility of

(1) State governments

(2) Central governments

(3) Central and State governments

(4) Local body governments

Ans. (3)

54. Supersonic jets cause pollution by thinning of

(1) Sulphur dioxide layer

(2) Carbon dioxide layer

(3) Ozone layer

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

55. Which one of the following is commonly called Edible sponge mushroom’?

(1) Sargassum

(2) Morchella

(3) Agaricus

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

56. Which of the following is not an essential function of the skin in the human body?

(1) protects the internal or of the body

(2) acts as a sensory organ

(3) regulates the temperature of the body

(4) gives shape to the body

Ans. (4)

57. The device used for converting alternating current to direct current is called

(1) Inverter

(2) Rectifier

(3) Transmitter

(4) Transformer

Ans. (2)

58. Water is used in hot water bottles because:

(1) it is easily obtained in pure form

(2) it has high specific heat

(3) it is cheaper and not harmful

(4) it is easy to heat water

Ans. (2)

59. Mention the ray which appears to originate outside the earth.

(1) cosmic ray

(2) the ultra-violet ray

(3) the alpha ray

(4) the beta ray

Ans. (1)

60. A person cannot see objects clearly which are nearer than 75 cms from his eyes. What disease is he suffering from?

(1) Astigmatism

(2) Colour-blindness

(3) Myopia

(4) Hypermetropia

Ans. (4)

61. Oil rises up to wick in a lamp because

(1) oil is volatile

(2) oil is very light

(3) of the surface tension phenomenon

(4) of the diffusion of oil through the wick

Ans. (3)

62. Following Railway Training Institutes have been indicated with the cities where they are located. Find out which is wrongly matched.

(1) Railway Staff College — Vadodara

(2) Indian Railway Institute of Civil Engineering — Pune

(3) Indian Railway Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering —Jamalpur

(4) Indian Railway Institute Signal and Tele Communication Engineering — Mumbai

Ans. (4)

63. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given four options:

List -I List-II

(Zonal Railway) (Head Quarter)

(a) North Central Railway 1. Bilaspur

(b) South-East Central Railway 2. Allahabad

(c) West Central Railway 3. Jabalpur

(d) East Coast Railway 4. Bhubaneshwar

Code.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 3 4

(2) 1 2 3 4

(3) 2 3 4 1

(4) 4 1 3 2

Ans. (1)

64. In Indian Railways Network, approximately how many passenger service vehicles (passenger coaches) are working?

(1) 44,100

(2) 33.000

(3) 49,000

(4) 54,000

Ans. (2)

65. Who is the principal head of the Department of a Station Master in Zonal Railway Head Quarter Office?

(1) Chief Commercial Manager

(2) Chief Safety Officer

(3) Chief Personnel Officer

(4) Chief Operations Manager

Ans. (4)

66. Two new zones named North Western Railway and East Central Railway become functional/ operational from?

(1) October 1, 2002

(2) April 1, 2002

(3) April 1, 2003

(4) October 1, 2003

Ans. (1)

67. In one of the following State, though the Konkan Railway line does not pass through it, yet it has capital share in the K.R. Corporation. Name the State.

(1) Karnataka

(2) Goa

(3) Tamil Nadu

(4) Kerala

Ans. (3)

68. All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the Vice- President of India are decided by the

(1) High Court of a State

(2) Chief Election Commissioner

(3) Supreme Court of India

(4) President of India

Ans. (3)

69. Consider the following functionaries

1. Union Cabinet Secretary

2. Chief Election Commissioner

3. Union Cabinet Ministers

4. Chief Justice of India

Their correct sequence, in the order of precedence is

(1) 3, 4, 2, 1

(2) 4, 3, 1, 2

(3) 4, 3, 2, 1

(4) 3. 4, 1, 2

Ans. (3)

70. The basic structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that

(1) Certain features of the Constitution are so essential to it that they cannot be abrogated

(2) Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged or taken away

(3) The Constitution cannot be amended except in accordance with the procedure prescribed in Article 368

(4) The Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended

Ans. (1)

71. Which of the following enjoys the constitutional status?

1. Finance Commission

2. Planning Commission

3. Zonal Council

4. National Development Council

5. Election Commission

6. University Grants Commission

(1) 1, 3 and 5

(2) l and 5

(3) 1, 2, 5 and 6

(4) 1, 3, 5 and 6

Ans. (2)

72. The ultimate responsibility of taking due action on the comments of the Comptroller and Auditor General vests with

(1) President of India

(2) Supreme Court of India

(3) Parliament of India

(4) National Development Council

Ans. (1)

73. Mohit said to Neelam, “Your only brother’s son is my wife’s brother.” How is Neelam related to the wife of Mohit?

(1) aunt

(2) mother-in-law

(3) sister

(4) cannot be determined

Ans. (1)

74. A tourist drives 10 km towards East and turns to right hand side and takes a drive of another 3 km. He then drives towards West (turning to his right) another 3 km. He then turns to his left and walks another 2 km. Afterwards, he turns to his right and travels 7 km. How far is he from his starting point and in which direction?

(1) 10 km—East

(2) 9 km— North

(3) 8 km— West

(4) 5 km—South

Ans. (4)

75. The question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. Decide the ‘Strong’ and ‘Weak’ arguments and give answer out of four given options ‘1’, ‘2’, ‘3’ and ‘4’

Question:

Should all the professional colleges in India be encouraged to run their own courses without affiliation to any university?

Arguments:

(I) Yes, this is the only way to create more opportunities for those who seek professional training.

(II) No, this will dilute the quality of professional training as all such colleges may not be equipped to conduct such courses.

(1) Only argument I is strong

(2) Only argument II is strong

(3) Both I and II are strong

(4) Neither I nor II is strong

Ans. (2)

76. Statement: “Please do not wait for me; I may be late, start taking lunch as soon as the guests arrive.” — a message from a director of a company to his office managers.-

Assumptions:

I. Keeping guests waiting is not desirable.

II. Lunch may not be ready in time.

Consider the above statement and two assumptions to decide as to which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Choose the correct answer from the given options 1, 2, 3 and 4.

(1) Only assumption I is implicit

(2) Only assumption II is implicit

(3) Both I and II are implicit

(4) Neither I nor II is implicit

Ans. (1)

77. How many Asian countries are there in Common wealth?

(1) 49

(2) 51

(3) 54

(4) 57

Ans. (3)

78. Khan Abdul Gaffer Khan’s which action; performed in favour of Indian independence, but was against the English men?

(1) Formation of Lal-Kurti sena

(2) Assassination of an Englishman

(3) Trade of red shirts

(4) Demand for Pakhtunistan

Ans. (1)

79. On selling an article for Rs. 270 there is a gain of 12.5%. What

is its cost price?

(1) Rs. 240

(2) Rs. 220

(3) Rs. 210

(4) Rs. 250

Ans. (1)

80. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1: 2: 3. The greatest angle will be

(1) 60°

(2) 30°

(3) 90°

(4) 75°

Ans. (3)

81. The compound interest on Rs. 2500 at the rate of 6% p.a. after 2 years will be

(1) Rs. 309

(2) Rs. 318

(3) Rs. 320

(4) None of these

Ans. (1)

82. (999)2 – (998)22=?

(1) 1995

(2) 1998

(3) 1997

(4) 1992

Ans. (3)

83. A man covers a distance of 6 km at the rate 4 kmph and other 4 km at 3 kmph. His average speed is

(1) 9&13/7 kmph

(2) 3&9/17 kmph

(3) 5&9/17 kmph

(4) 3 & 5/9 kmph

Ans. (2)

84. The cost price of an article is Rs. 7840. To gain 7%, the article should be sold at

(1) Rs. 8388.80

(2) Rs. 8000

(3) Rs. 8383.80

(4) Rs. 8833.80

Ans. (1)

85. Two pipes can fill a tank in 10 minutes and 30 minutes respectively and a third pipe can empty the full tank in 20 minutes. If all the three pipes are opened simultaneously, the tank will be

(1) 10 minutes

(2) 8 minutes

(3) 7 minutes

(4) None of these

Ans. (4)

86.(4*4*4+3*3*3)/13 =

(1) 7

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4

Ans. (1)

87. (6.25) 4÷ (6.25)3 =?

(1) 6.25

(2) 6.025

(3) 6.0025

(4) 6.002

Ans. (1)

88. The ratio between the ages of Ram and Mohan is 4:5 and that between Mohan and Anil is 5:6. If sum of the ages of three be 90 years, how old is Mohan?

(1) 24 years

(2) 20 years

(3) 30 years

(4) 25 years

Ans. (3)

89. The per cent of 2 /45 is?

(1) 3&4/9 %

(2) 4&4/9 %

(3) 4 %

(4) 9 %

Ans. (2)

90. If a x=b;b y=c and cz =a , then xyz =?

(1) 1

(2) -1

(3) 2

(4) 2

Ans. (1)

91. Match the name of countries in List-I with years of beginning of railways in List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List -I List—II

(Countries) (Year of beginning of railways)

(a) Britain 1. 1853

(b) America 2. 1829

(c) India 3. 1825

(d) France 4. 1830

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 4 1 3 2

(3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (3)

92. The length of Indian rails is

(1) More than 5000 km

(2) More than 5630 km

(3) More than 6000 km

(4) More than 6531 km

Ans. (4)

93. Match the items of List-I with List-II and select the-correct answer by using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Largest Population) (States)

(a) Jains 1. Nagaland

(b) Buddhas 2. Rajasthan

(c) Christians 3. Maharashtra

(d) Muslims 4. Lakshadwip

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 2 3 1 4

(3) 1 2 4 3

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (2)

94. The capital of the king of Punjab Ranjit Singh was

(1) Lahore

(2) Ludhiana

(3) Mathura

(4) Sri Nagar

Ans. (1)

95. Photosynthesis does not take place in

(1) plants

(2) fungi

(3) bacteria

(4) virus

Ans. (4)

96. In nucleuic protein, Uceriotic chromosomes are alike in

(1) prophase

(2) Metaphase

(3) Anaphase -

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

97. Which type of protein is found in virus?

(1) Lyco protein

(2) Secondary protein

(3) Primary protein

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

98. In ionic solid, the velocity of electricity is

(1) fast

(2) weak

(3) less than solid

(4) less than gas

Ans. (1)

99. The largest phase in cell division is

(1) Liptotin

(2) Zagotin

(3) Pacotin

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

Monday, November 1, 2010

Tentative Examination Schedule of CEN-2010

RRB SECUNDERABAD WRITTEN EXAM DATES



RRB SECUNDERABAD

THE EXAM FOR THE POSTS OF COMMERCIAL APPRENTICE AND SR.CLERK CUM TYPIST AGAINST CAT NO 1 & 6 OF CEN02/2010 IS SCHEDULED TO BE HELD ON 05/12/10.

CALL LETTERS FOR ALL ELIGIBLE CANDIDATES WILL BE SENT FOUR WEEK BEFORE THE DATE OF EXAM.

Railway Special Drive in a Centralised Employment Notice



Government of India

Ministry of Railways
Railway Recruitment Board (RRB)

Indian Railways Centralised Employment Notice No. 10/2010

Special Recruitment Drive for PWD and SC/ST/OBC candidates

Applications in the prescribed format are invited from eligibile Indian Nationals for filling up of various jobs in different Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs) and Zonal Railways and other Railway organisation. Application should be sent directly to the respective RRBs / Zonal Ofifces :

Part-I : for PWD only
  1. Technician Gr.II : 01 post, Pay Scale : Rs.5200-20200 grade pay Rs.2400
  2. Technician Gr.III : 482 posts in various trades, Pay Scale : Rs.5200-20200 grade pay Rs.1900
Part-II : for SC/ST/OBC only
  1. Technician Gr.III : 675 posts in various trades, Pay Scale : Rs.5200-20200 grade pay Rs.1900

Age : 18-30 years. Relaxation in age as per rules.

Application Fee : Rs.40/- for the OBC candidates only in the form of IPO / DD in favour of Assistant Secretary/Secretary/ Member Secretary/ Chairman of concerned RRB where candidate wants to apply.

How to Apply : Application in the prescribed format should be send to the Assistant Secretary/ Member Secretary of the concerned RRB where candidate want to apply on or before 29/11/2010. (For candidates of far-flung areas, the last date is 14/12/2010) Candidates can also apply online at respective RRB websites.

The detailed advt. is published in the Employment News dated 30/10/2010 and it is also available at the websites of all the Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs). The list of all RRB with their website is available at http://rrcb.gov.in/rrbs.html.


Sunday, October 31, 2010

Railway Recruitment Boards (RRB) Exams Questions Papers Questions

Railway Recruitment Boards (RRB) Exams

Questions Papers Questions

General Science

Q.1. Which of the following is not a bone in the human body?
(a) Sternum
(b) Humerus
(c) Pericardium
(d) Tibia
Ans. c

Q.2. Rennin and lactase, the enzymes required to digest milk, disappear in the human body by the age of
(a) two
(b) three
(c) five
(d) eight
Ans. a

Q3. Duodenum is situated
(a) at the uppermost part of the small intestine
(b) near the lungs
(c) in the brain
(d) at the tail end of the intestine
Ans. a

Q.4. The heart is covered by a membrane called
(a) Epidermis
(b) Dermis
(c) Epicardium
(d) Pericardium
Ans. d

Q.5. About ……..of the total calcium present in the human body is in the blood.
(a) 99%
(b) 70%
(c) 5%
(d) 1%
Ans. d

Q.6. Phenylketonuria is an example of an inborn error of metabolism. This ‘error’ refers to
(a) hormonal overproduction
(b) non disjunction
(c) atrophy of endocrine glands
(d) inherited lack of an enzyme
Ans. c

Q.7. As in the arms and legs, blood flows against gravity and is prevented from flowing back by
(a) the extremely low pressure of venous blood
(b) valves
(c) movements in the surrounding muscles
(d) the narrowing down of the lumen of veins by the contraction of the muscle layer comprising their walls
Ans. b

Q.8. Identical twins arise when two
(a) cells develop independently from the same zygote
(b) gametes develop independently
(c) sperms develop independently
(d) ova develop independently
Ans. a

Q.9. Element that is not found in blood is
(a) iron
(b) copper
(c) chromium
(d) magnesium
Ans. c

Q.10. Scratching eases itching because
(a) it kills germs.
(b) it suppresses the production of enzymes which cause itching,
(c) it removes the outer dust in the skin.
(d) it stimulates certain nerves which direct the brain to increase the production of antihistaminic chemicals.
Ans. d

Q.11. The gland, which in relation to body size is largest at birth and then gradually shrinks after puberty, is?
(a) Thyroid
(b) Pituitary
(c) Thymus
(d) Adrenal
Ans. c

Q.12. A human sperm may contain ?
1. X-chromosome
2. Y-chromosome
3. XY-chromosome
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c)1 and 2
(d) l,2 and 3
Ans. c

Q.13. Which of the following is not a bone in the legs of human body?
(a) Radius
(b) Tibia
(c) Femur
(d) Fibula
Ans. a

Q.14. Bleeding from artery is characterized by which of the following?
1. Blood is red.
2. Blood is purple.
3. Bleeding is continuous.
4. Bleeding is intermittent.
(a) 1 and3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans. b

Q.15. Which of the following is not a vestigial organ?
(a) Centriole
(b) Molar tooth
(c) Appendix
(d) Diaphragm
Ans. d

Q.16. Which of the following bone articulations forms the gliding joint?
(a) Humenis and radius
(b) Carpals
(c) Hip girdle and femur
(d) Skull & neck verterbrae
Ans. b

Q.17. Pancreas secretes hormones which help in
(a) blood clotting
(b) production of antibodies
(c) growth of body
(d) keeping sugar balance in body
Ans. d

Q.18. S-A node of mammalian heart is known as
(a) Autoregulator
(b) Pace-maker
(c) Time controller
(d) Beat regulator
Ans. b

Q.19. Consider the following statements regarding blood pressure:
1. It is the pressure exerted by the blood on the walls of any vessel.
2. It decreases in the arteries as the distance from the heart increases,
3. It is lower in the capillaries than in the arteries.
4. It is usually lower in women than in men.
Of these, the correct ones are
(a) 1 and 4
(b) l, 2and 3
(c) 2,3 and 4
(d) l,2,3 and 4
Ans. d

Q.20. The hormone responsible for the secretion of milk in mothers, is?
(a) ACTH
(b) Leutinizing hormone
(c) Adrenalin
(d) Lactogenic hormone

Q.21. What is the correct sequence of the following in heart attack?
1. Narrowing of the inner orifice of the vessel
2. ‘Plaque’ from fibrous tissue and high cholesterol
3. Inadequate supply of blood and oxygen
4. Clots of blood carried into the coronary arteries
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2,4, 1,3
(c) 2, 3, 1, 4
(d) 4, 2, 1 3
Ans. b

Q.22. Bile juice is secreted by
(a) Pancreas
(b) Liver
(c) Spleen
(d) Gall bladder
Ans. b

Q.23. Veins differ from arteries in having
(a) thinner walls
(b) strong walls
(c) narrower lumen
(d) valves to control direction of flow
Ans. d

Q.24. What is the main function of insulin in the human body?
(a) To maintain blood pressure
(b) To help in digestion of food
(c) To control the level of sugar in the body
(d) To check the level of iodine in the body
Ans. c

Q.25. An enzyme that works in an acidic medium is
(a) pepsin
(b) tiypsin
(c) ptyalin
(d) maltose
Ans. a

Q.26. The blood pressure is the pressure of blood in
(a) arteries
(b) veins
(c) auricles
(d) ventricles
Ans. a

Q.27. The total number of bones in human skull are
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 30
(d) 32
Ans. c

Q.28. Which of the following glands controls the development of sex organs in humans?
(a) Paancreas
(b) Thyroid
(c) Adrenal
(d) Pituitary
Ans. d

Q.29. Oxygen is transported to every cell of the human body by?
(a) red blood cells
(b) blood platelets
(c) white blood cells
(d) hormones
Ans. a

Q.30. Which of the following components of blood protects human beings from infection?
(a) Plasma
(b) Blood Platelets
(c) Haemoglobin
(d) White Blood Corpuscles
Ans. d

Q.31. The normal temperature of the human body is
(a) 90 F
(b) 98 F
(c) 98.4 F
(d) 96.4 F
Ans. c

Q.32 .If a person can see an object clearly when it is placed at distance of about 25 cm away from him, he is suffering from
(a) myopia
(b) hypermetropia
(c) astigmatism
(d) None of these
Ans. d

Q.33. The blood pressure values of four persons are given below:
1. Mrs.X-90/60
2. Mr.X-160/120
3. Mr. Y-120/80
4. Mrs.Y-140/l00
Who among the following has normal blood pressure?
(a) Mrs. Y
(b) Mr. X
(c) Mrs. X
(d) Mr. Y
Ans. d

Q.34. In the case of a ‘Test-tube baby’?
(a) fertilization takes place inside the test tube.
(b) development of the baby takes place inside the test tube.
(c) fertilization takes place outside the mother body.
(d) unfertilized egg develops inside the test tube.
Ans. c

Q.35. Pituitary gland is present
(a) below the brain
(b) above the brain
(c) inside the brain
(d) nowhere near the brain
Ans. a

Q.36. Which of the following organs is used in the purification of blood in human body?
(a) Liver
(b) Kidney
(c) Spleen
(d) Lungs
Ans. d

Q.37. Cornea is a part of which of the following organs of human body?
(a) Eye
(b) Ear
(c) Nose
(d) Heart
Ans. a

Q.38. What is Funny Bone?
(a) A muscle
(b) A nerve
(c) A bone
(d) A blood vessel
Ans. b

Q.39. Man cannot digest cellulose whereas cows can do so because?
(a) their gut contains bacteria capable of digesting cellulose.
(b) they have a many – chambered stomach.
(c) they have efficient grinding molars.
(d) they produce an enzyme cellulose which can digest cellulose.
Ans. a

Q.40. Which of the following when taken by pregnant women, is found to be the cause of deformed children?
(a) Glycerol
(b) Xylidine
(c) Thalidomide
(d) None of these
Ans. c

Q.41. The diploid number of chromosomes in human body is ?
(a) 24
(b) 40
(c) 46
(d) 48
Ans. c

Q.42. The largest cell in the human body is
(a) Nerve cell
(b) Muscle cell
(c) Liver cell
(d) Kidney cell
Ans. a

Q.43. Lichens are formed due to the symbiotic association of
(a) moss and fungi
(b) bacteria and fungi
(c) algae and fungi
(d) None of these
Ans. c

Q.44. Insects form the largest class of animals living on land and sea. They are grouped into
(a) 22 orders
(b) 26 orders
(c) 29 orders
(d) 32 orders
Ans. c

Q.45. Which of the following statements is true for planktons?
(a) They live on the surface of lake water.
(b) They live on the bottom of lakes.
(c) They live on the plants growing in water.
(d) They live in the water column.
Ans. b

Q.46. Which of the following has the smallest egg?
(a) Ostrich
(b) Humming bird
(c) Pigeon
(d) Homo sapiens
Ans. c

Q.47. The population of which of the following is maximum on the earth?
(a) Reptiles
(b) Fishes
(c) Birds
(d) Beetles
Ans. d

Q.48. Poison glands of snakes are homologous to
(a) stings of rays
(b) salivary glands of vertebrates
(c) electric organs of fishes
(d) sebaccous glands of mammals
Ans. b

Q.49. The phylum chordata is characterized by the presence of
(a) spinal cord
(b) notochord
(c) nerve chord
(d) None of these
Ans. d

Q.50. Which of the following activities is suppressed by the presence of auxins in plants?
(a) Growth of lateral buds
(b) Cell division
(c) Root initiation
(d) Development of fleshy fruits
Ans. c

Wednesday, October 27, 2010

RRB TECHNICAL EXAM PAPER

Railway Engineering

1. The bent-up length of rail used in front of nose of crossing which help in channelising the train wheels in their proper routes are known as:

(a) lead rail (b) point rail (c) wing rail (d) splice rail

Ans:- C

2.The point up to which the new railway track laid, at any time is called:

(a) terminal (b) station (c) rail-head (d) base

Ans:- C

3.The good quality wood for sleeper is:

(a) Deodar (b) Sheesham (c) Teak (d) Sal

Ans:- C

4.Generally the life of wooden sleepers is taken as:

(a) 2 to 3 years (b) 12 to 15 years

(c) 35 to 50 years (d) 5 to 8 years

Ans:- B

5.The gradual or tapered widening of the flangeway which is formed by bending and splaying the end of check rail or wing rail away from the gauge line is known as:

(a) Flare (b) Toe (c) Heel (d) Loop

Ans:- A

6.The minimum height of embankment above the highest flood mark in the area should be:

(a) zero cm (b) 30 cm (c) 100 cm (d) 60 cm

Ans:- D

7.The recommended depth of ballast cushion on a curved portion of a track is provided under the ........ edge of the sleeper.

(a) upper (b) middle (c) inner (d) outer

Ans:- C

8. An outward slope provided on the tread of the wheel is:

(a) 1 in 5 (b) 1 in 10 (c) 1 in 20 (d) 1 in 25

Ans:- C

9.The granular material spread on the formation of a railway track for the sleepers to rest upon is known as:

(a) anchors (b) ballast (c) subgrade (d) chairs

Ans:- B

10.Bone shaped section of fish plate is commonly used for connecting:

(a) double headed rails (b) flat footed rails

(c) bull headed rails (d) all above are correct

Ans:- B

11.The members laid transversely under the rails for supporting and fixing them at the gauge distance apart are known as:

(a) fastenings (b) sleepers (c) ballast (d) fish plate

Ans:- B

12.The bottom width of foot in a flat footed rail is:

(a) 78.6 mm (b) 136.5 mm (c) 66.7 mm (d) 70 mm

Ans:- B

13.The rectangular pits in which wheels of the locomotives are taken out for repairs, are known as:

(a) Track pits (b) Inspection pits

(c) Drop pits (d) Siding pits

Ans:- C

14. The wheels are coned to prevent from rubbing the inside face of the rail head and to prevent lateral movement of the axle with its wheels. The slope of cone is:

(a) 1 in 5 (b) 1 in 20 (c) 1 in 10 (d) 1 in 15

Ans:- B

15. Gauge is the distance measured in place of the between which faces of two parallel rails in a track.

(a) inner faces

(b) centre line of one rail to inner face of other rail

(c) centre lines (d) outer faces

Ans:- A

16. Most significant which imposes limitations in raising the high speeds is:

(a) adhesion of wheels (b) resistance due to oscillations

(c) flange resistance (d) air or wind resistance

Ans:- A

17. The rails are welded by:

(a) Thermit welding (b) Gas welding

(c) Arc welding (d) MIG welding

Ans:- A

18. Steel sleepers are ..... shaped in section.

(a) oval (b) rectangular (c) trough (d) semi-spherical

Ans:- C

19. In India generally the sleeper density of sleepers per rail length used is:

(a) 18 (b) 30 (c) 12 (d) 24

Ans:- A

20. The extra rails provided over bridge to prevent damage and danger in case of derailment on the bridge are known as:

(a) Stock rails (b) Guard rails (c) Check rails (d) Wing rails

Ans:- B

21. The phenomenon of misalignment of rails due to temperature change is known as:

(a) cropping (b) creeping (c) bulging (d) buckling

Ans:- D

22. Creep is the ..... movement of rails.

(a) longitudinal (b) diagonal (c) horizontal (d) vertical

Ans:- A

23. Ballast best suited to steel sleepers is:

(a) sand (b) Gravel (c) Quartzite (d) All the above

Ans:- C

24. The section of a rail is decided on the basis of:

(a) Type of rails (b) Spacing of the sleepers

(c) Speed of trains (d) All of the above

Ans:- D

25. While preparing sub-grade of a railway line, the grubbing operation means:

(a) checking of subgrade

(b) filling or cutting of earth work in railway subgrade

(c) compaction and consolidation of earth work

(d) removal and disposal of stumps and roots trees

Ans:- D

26. The sinuous path taken by an engine as against the alignment of the track is known as:

(a) Rolling motion (b) Nosing motion

(c) Lurching motion (d) Vibration

Ans:- B

27. The mechanical device which transfer chemical energy of fuel into mechanical energy in the form of motion is called:

(a) rolling stock (b) railway (c) wagon (d) locomotive

Ans:- D

28. Integrated coach factory is located in:

(a) Chennai (b) Bangalore (c) Jamshedpur (d) Mumbai

Ans:- A

29. C.T.C. stands for:

(a) Critical Track Control

(b) Critical Traffic Channeliser

(c) Centralised Traffic Control

(d) None of these

Ans:- C

30. To reduce the intensity of pressure particularly on soft variety of sleepers, a rectangular plate is introduced between the rails and the sleepers. This is known as:

(a) Fish plate (b) Chair

(c) Saddle plate (d) Bearing plate

Ans:- D

31. Generally the rail sections used in India is:

(a) flat footed (b) double headed

(c) bull headed (d) all above

Ans:- A

32. The arrangement consisting of three tracks used for changing the direction of engine is called:

(a) three ladder track (b) turn table

(c) three throw switch (d) triangle

Ans:- B

33. The length of a wooden sleeper for broad gauge track is:

(a) 1.83 m (b) 1.52 m (c) 2.74 m (d) 1.676 m

Ans:- C

34. The technical officer of the rank of sectional officer in the maintenance organisation of Indian Railways is called:

(a) Permanent Way Inspector

(b) Gangmate

(c) Assistant Permanent Way Inspector

(d) None of these are correct

Ans:- C

35. The depth of ballast section under sleeper for broad gauge track as per Indian standard should be:

(a) 250 to 300 mm (b) 200 to 250 mm

(c) 150 to 200 mm (d) 150 mm

Ans:- B

36. The completed and finished railway line on which wheeled vehicles are drawn by locomotive is known as:

(a) steel way (b) rails (c) railway (d) permanent way

Ans:- D

37. The horse power to weight ratio steam engine is generally of the order of:

(a) 10-15 kg/HP (b) 60-80 kg/HP

(c) 20-30 kg/HP (d) 100-150 kg/HP

Ans:- B

38. The cause of formation of kinks in a rail is:

(a) Loose packing at joints

(b) Defect in gauge and alignment

(c) Defect in cross level joints

(d) Any of the above

Ans:- D

39. The horizontal distance from the material depot to the rail head is called:

(a) lift (b) site distance (c) rail-head (d) lead

Ans:- D

40. On curves, to counteract the effect of centrifugal force, the level of outer rail is raised above the inner rail by a certain amount. This is called:

(a) Track gradient (b) Track slope

(c) Super elevation (d) Horizontal gradient

Ans:- C

41. The measure of stiffness of track required to produce a unit depression in the track is known as:

(a) Tractive force (b) Load capacity

(c) Gauge (d) Track modulus

Ans:- D

42. The head of a gang in maintenance organisation of railway is called:

(a) P.W.I (b) Keyman (c) Ganger (d) A.P.W.I

Ans:- C

43. The fixed rail in a railway track against which the tongue rail fits s known as:

(a) wing rail (b) stock rail (c) lead rail (d) point rail

Ans:- B

44. The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge track in India is:

(a) 19.2 m (b) 25.6 m (c) 11.8 m (d) 12.8 m

Ans:- D

45. The thickness of fish plate generally used in Indian Railway is:

(a) 16 mm (b) 10 mm (c) 25 mm (d) 20 mm

Ans:- D

46. Thermal efficiency of a diesel engine may be expected to be in the range of:

(a) 50-65% (b) 25-35% (c) 15-20% (d) 10-15%

Ans:- B

47. Wear on top or head of rail occurs due to:

(a) Abrasion of rolling wheels

(b) Heavy axle load

(c) Constant brake application

(d) Any or all of the above

Ans:- D

48. Any movement of the locomotive in different planes, e.g., vertical, longitudinal, transversal etc., is known as:

(a) Oscillating motion (b) Lurching motion

(c) Shutting motion (d) Vibration

Ans:- A

49. In rainy season the dust in the ballast becomes mud and comes up by suction from below the rail joint. Such joint is called:

(a) Wet joint (b) Water joint

(c) Pumping joint (d) Blowing joint

Ans:- C

50. Accidents can be avoided by adopting:

(a) interlocking (b) C.T.C. system

(c) pilot guard system (d) A.T.C. system

Ans:- A

RRB TECHNICAL EXAM QUESTIONS

Fluid Mechanics


1. A single acting reciprocating pump, running at 60 r.p.m, delivers 0.01 m2/sec of water. The area of the piston is 0.05m2 and stroke length is 40 cm. Then theoretical discharge of the pump will be
(a) 0.015 m3/sec (b) 0.02 m3/sec
(c) 0.025 m3/sec (d) 0.03 m3/sec
Ans:- B

2.B. In question (A), the co-efficient of discharge would be
(a) 0.9 (b) 0.8 (c) 0.6 (d) 0.5
Ans:- D

3. In question (A), the slip of the pump would be
(a) 0.02 m3/sec (b) 0.01 m3/sec
(c) 0.005 m3/sec (d) 0.003 m3/sec
Ans:- B

4.The possibility of negative slip in reciprocating pump is when
(a) delivery pipe is short (b) suction pipe is long
(c) pump is running at high speed (d) all of the above
Ans:- D

5. The slip in the reciprocating pump will be negative if
(a) Qth > Qact (b) Qth < Qact
(c) Qth = Qact (d) none of the above
Ans:- B

6. The power required to drive a single acting reciprocating pump is equal to
(a) w.A.L.N / 4500 (b) w.A.L.N.(hs + hd)4500
(c) A.L.N. (hs + hd)/4500 (d) w.L.N/4500
where w = specific weight of water
Ans:- B

7. The rate of flow of water through a double acting reciprocating pump is equal to
(a) A.L.N /60 (b) 2 AL.N/60 (c) A.L.N./2×60 (d) 3 A.L.N./60
Ans:- B

8. The rate of flow of water through a single acting reciprocating pump is equal to
(a) A.L.N /60 (b) 2 AL.N/60 (c) A.L.N./2×60 (d) 3 A.L.N./60
Ans:- A

9. The pump, which works on the principle of water hammer, is known as
(a) centrifugal pump (b) reciprocating pump
(c) hydraulic ram (d) none of the above
Ans:- C

10. The pump which raises water without any external power for its operation, is known as
(a) centrifugal pump (b) reciprocating pump
(c) hydraulic ram (d) hydraulic intensifier
Ans:- C

11. The power at the shaft of a centrifugal pump is 100 KW, and the power available at the impeller is 900 KW. If water horse power is 720 KW, then overall efficiency of the centrifugal pump will be
(a) 90% (b) 80% (c) 75% (d) 72%
Ans:- D

12. In the question (A), the manometric efficiency would be
(a) 90% (b) 80% (c) 75% (d) 72%
Ans:- B

13. In question (A), the mechanical efficiency would be
(a) 90% (b) 80% (c) 75% (d) 72%
Ans:- A

14. The term W.Q.Hm / (75 S.H.P) for a centrifugal pump is known as
(a) mechanical efficiency (b) manometric efficiency
(c) overall efficiency (d) none of the above
Ans:- C

15. If a circular chamber is introduced between the casing and the impeller, then casing is known as
(a) vortex casing (b) volute casing
(c) casing with guide blades (d) none of the above
Ans:- A

16. The rotating part of a turbine is known as
(a) Impeller (b) Guide mechanism
(c) Runner (d) None of the above
Ans:- A

17. The rotating part of a turbine is known as
(a) Impeller (b) Guide mechanism
(c) Runner (d) None of the above
Ans:- C

18. In case of Kaplan turbine, velocity of flow at inlet is
(a) less than that at outlet
(b) more than that at outlet
(c) equal of that at outlet
(d) none of the above
Ans:- C

19.Francis turbine is a
(a) radially inward flow turbine
(b) radially outward flow turbine
(c) axial flow turbine
(d) none of the above
Ans:- A

20. The main advantage of the draft-tube is to convert
(a) pressure energy into kinetic energy
(b) kinetic energy into pressure energy
(c) pressure energy into electrical energy
(d) none of the above
Ans:- B

21. The pressure at the exist of the runner of a reaction turbine is generally
(a) more than atmospheric pressure
(b) equal to atmospheric pressure
(c) less than atmospheric pressure
(d) none of the above
Ans:- C

22.In case of draft tube, are of cross-section of the draft tube
(a) increases from inlet to outlet
(b) decreases from inlet to outlet
(c) remains constant
(d) none of the above
Ans:- A

23. Draft tube is used in case of
(a) Pelton turbine (b) Pelton and Francis turbine
(c) Kaplan and Pelton turbine (d) Francis and Kaplan turbine
Ans:- D

24.The pressure energy goes on changing into kinetic energy in case of
(a) Pelton turbine (b) Francis turbine
(c) Kaplan turbine (d) Francis and Kaplan
Ans:- D

25. A turbine is having specific speed of 400. Then the turbine would be
(a) Kaplan turbine (b) Francis turbine
(c) Pelton turbine (d) None of the above
Ans:- A

26.A turbine is having specific speed as 100. Then the turbine would be
(a) Kaplan turbine (b) Francis turbine
(c) Pelton turbine (d) Steam turbine
Ans:- B

27. The axial flow reaction turbine, in which vanes are fixed to the hub and they are not adjustable, is known as
(a) Kaplan turbine (b) Francis turbine
(c) propeller turbine (d) Pelton turbine
Ans:- C

28.In case reaction turbine, the total head at the inlet of a turbine consists of
(a) pressure energy and kinetic energy
(b) kinetic energy only
(c) pressure energy only
(d) none of the above
Ans:- A

29. In case of reaction turbine, the total head at the inlet of a turbine consists of
(a) pressure energy and kinetic energy
(b) kinetic energy only
(c) pressure energy only
(d) none of the above
Ans:- B

30. Kaplan turbine is a
(a) reaction turbine (b) impulse turbine
(c) radial flow turbine (d) none of the above
Ans:- A

31. Francis turbine is a
(a) reaction turbine (b) impulse turbine
(c) axial flow turbine (d) none of the above
Ans:- A

32. Pelton turbine is a
(a) reaction turbine (b) radial inward flow turbine
(c) impulse turbine (d) axial flow turbine
Ans:- C

33. The relation between overall efficiency. mechanical efficiency and hydraulic efficiency is given by
(a) h0 = hmech / hhyd (b) h0 = hmech / hhyd
(c) h0 = 1.0 / (hmech × hhyd) (d) h0 = hhyd / hmech
Ans:- B

34.The ratio of power at the shaft of a turbine to the power supplied by water at inlet of a turbine is known as
(a) hydraulic efficiency (b) mechanical efficiency
(c) overall efficiency (d) none of the above
Ans:- C

35. The ratio of power available at the shaft of a turbine to the power developed by the runner of the turbine is known as
(a) hydraulic efficiency (b) mechanical efficiency
(c) overall efficiency (d) volumetric efficiency
Ans:- B

36. A jet water of area of cross-section 20 cm2, having a velocity of 20 m/sec strikes a curved plate which is moving with a velocity of 10 m/sec in the direction of the jet. The jet leaves the vane at an angle of 600 to the direction of motion of vane at outlet as shown in Fig. Z3. The relative velocity at inlet will be
(a) 20 m/sec (b) 10 m/sec (c) 15 m/sec (d) 16 m/sec
Ans:- B

37. The velocity of whirl at inlet in the question (A), will be
(a) 20 m/sec (b) 16 m/sec (c) 15 m/sec (d) 10 m/sec
Ans:- A

38. In the FIG Z3, angle f will be
(a) 300 (b) 450 (c) 600 (d) 750
Ans:- C

39. In Fig Z2 shows the velocity triangles triangles at inlet and outlet of a turbine, V1 represents the absolute velocity at inlet and u1 represents vane velocity at inlet. The relative velocity at inlet is represented by
(a) length BD (b) Length AD
(c) length CD (d) length CB
Ans:- D

40. In Fig. Z2 the velocity of whirl at inlet is given by
(a) length DB (b) length AD
(c) length CD (d) length CB
Ans:- B

41. In fig. Z2, angle BAC is known as
(a) vane angle at inlet (b) nozzle angle at inlet
(c) vane angle at outlet (d) none of the above
Ans:- B

42. In fig. Z2, angle BCD is known as
(a) vane angle at inlet (b) nozzle angle at inlet
(c) vane angle at outlet (d) none of the above
Ans:- A

43. A jet water of area 40 cm2 moving with a velocity of 10 m/sec strikes normally a fixed vertical plate. The force exerted by the jet on the plate in the direction of jet will be
(a) 500 N (b) 400 N (c) 300 N (d) 200 N
Ans:- B

44. Pump is a machine which converts
(a) hydraulic energy to mechanical energy
(b) mechanical energy to hydraulic energy
(c) mechanical energy to electrical energy
(d) none of the above
Ans:- B

RRB Ahmedabad TC Exam Paper

1.) Terminal colours of Rainbow?
a: Violet&Red

2.) First lady in INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS?
a: Indira Gandhi
b: Sarogini naidu etc

3.) First Nuclear plant in INDIA is situated in
a: Bombay
b: Nellore etc

4.) 2 capacitances are in parallel gives 6 micro farad & in series gives 25 what will be the value of individual capacitance.

5.) Who invented THERMOMETER?
ANS: Farenheit

6.) Electrostatic potential is a Scalar Quantity or Vector Quantity?

7.) Among values 1 to100 Probability of occurance of numbers ending with 9 is?
a:1/10 b:9/10 c:1 d:0

8.) Si, Ge lie in ….. block of periodic table
a: III b: V c: IVA(ANS) d: IV B

9.) Some eqn was given x=20 sin 157t then calculate frequency

10.) Which Filter is used for passing ONLY HIGH frequency
a: LADDER b. crystal

11.) In Zener breakdown is proportional to
Ans -ive coefficient of temperature

12.) If water is heated from 0degree to 10 degree effect on volume
a: increase steadily
b: remain same
c: decrease steadily

13.) If we dig EARTH FROM North to South pole and a stone is dropped in it then efffect on its velocity
a: increase continously
b: First increase and become Zero in center
c. It Will Start Oscillate

14.) Dandi march was related to ……..
a: Salt b: Sugar etc

15.) Radiation pattern of loop antenna
a: cardioid b. semicircular c. circle d. none

16.) DENMARK lie in which continent

17.) Cooks island is situated in which continent?

18.) Range of AM Signal?

19.) In an Electrolyte if rod is immersed then mass on rod will be proportional to
a: current passed in it

20.) largest unit in energy

21.) spelling check of SATELLITE

22.) plural of “DIBIYA” IN HINDI

23.) Sarvnam chatiye

24.) RADDISH is a
a: modified root
b: bulb
c; stem

25.) X Rays are ….. Rays
Ans emw

26.) ass:bray::sheep BLEAT

27.) In Hindi Pehle Janma (AGRAJ, ARGAJA/AAGRAJETC)

28.) Lord Shankar is related to originaetor of …. river

29.) ………is also called JALDHAR

30) fsk is used in
a: telegraphy
b: telephony
c: radio transmission etc

Tuesday, October 26, 2010

VARIOUS RRB EXAMS QUESTIONS

1. When a ray of light passes from an optically denser medium to a rarer medium, it
(a) Remains undeviated (b) Bends towards normal
(c) Bends away from normal (d) None of these
Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers
2.Who is the author of "Anandmath" ?
(a) Rabindranath Tagore (b) Bankim chandra Chattopadhyaya
(c) Sarojini Nayadu (d) Jyotiba Phule
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3. Thimpu is the capital of -
(a) Nepal (b) Bhutan
(c) Thailand (d) Myanmar
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4. The time period of a seconds pendulum is
(a) 1 second (b) 4 seconds
(c) 3 seconds (d) 2 seconds
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5. The nuclear fuel in the sun is
(a) Helium (b) Uranium
(c) Hydrogen (d) Oxygen
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6. The second’s hand of a watch is 2 cm long. The velocity of its tip is
(a) 0.21 cm/sec. (b) 2.1 cm/sec.
(c) 21 cm/sec. (d) None of these
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7. In diesel engine, ignition is caused by
(a) Spark (b) Automatic starter
(c) Compression (d) Friction
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8. The mass-energy equivalence, relationship E = mc2 was propounded by
(a) Max Plank (b) Einstein
(c) Newton (d) Hertz
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9. The filament of bulb is made of
(a) Tungsten (b) Iron
(c) Nichrome (d) Carbon
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10. Anti-knocking can be lessened by
(a) Iso Octane (b) N Heptane
(c) TEL (d) Benzene
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11. In which of the following oxidation shows a positive oxidation state.
(a) CO (b) N2O
(c) NO (d) F2O
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12. Which of the following is used in photography?
(a) Silver Bromide (b) Sodium Bromide
(c) Potassium Chloride (d) Sodium Sulphate
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13. Which of the following is used in accumulator cell?
(a) Copper (b) Iron
(c) Lead (d) Zinc
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14. Choose the wrong statement :
(a) Single magnetic poles can exist
(b) Magnetic poles are always of equal strength
(c) Like poles repel each other
(d) None of these
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15. Laws of electrolysis are given by:
(a) Farady (b) Maxwell
(c) Lenz (d) Bohr
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16. Flemings left hand rule is used to fine out:
(a) Direction of magnetic field due to flow of current
(b) Direction of induced current due to effect of magnetic field
(c) Direction of motion of a current carrying conductor in magnetic field
(d) None of these
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17. The pH of a neutral solution at 250C is :
(a) 0 (b) 1.0
(c) 7.0 (d) 1.4
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18. The raw material used for the manufacture of Portland cement is :
(a) Limestone and clay (b) Alumina, clay and gypsum
(c) Gypsum and limestone (d) Gypsum and clay19. CaOCI2 is the chemical formula for a compound commonly known as :(a) Soda Ash (b) Lime
(c) Bleaching Powder (d) Plaster of Paris
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20. The glass used for making laboratory apparatus is :(a) Pyrex glass (b) Hard glass
(c) Soft glass (d) Safety glass
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21. The iron produced in blast furnace is :
(a) Pig iron (b) Wrought iron
(c) Stainless steel (d) Steel
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22. Formation is a 40% solution of :
(a) Methanol (b) Methenal
(c) Methanoic acid (d) None of these
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23. Which of the following is not an ore of aluminium :
(a) Cryolite (b) Feldspar
(c) Bauxite (d) Azurite
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24. Rhombic monoclinic and plastic sulphur are:
(a) Isomers (b) Isotopes
(c) Allotropes (d) Hydrides of sulphur25. The alkaline hydrolysis of oils or fats gives soap and :
(a) Glycerol (b) Ethenol
(c) Glycol (d) Ethanoic acid
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26. The sight of a delicious food usually makes month watery. It is a :
(a) Hormonal response (b) Neural response
(c) Optic response (d) Olfactory response
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27. Nitrogen fixing bacteria are normally found in :
(a) Parasitic plants (b) Epiphytic plants
(c) Leguminous plants (d) Aquatic plants
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28. Powdery mildew of wheat is caused by:
(a) Bacteria (b) Virus
(c) Fungi (d) Protozoans
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29. Septic sore throat is caused by :
(a) Bacteria (b) Virus
(c) Fungi (d) Protozoans
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30. A person of blood group AB can give blood to :
(a) ‘A’ and ‘B’ (b) Only ‘AB’
(c) ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘O’ (d) All of these
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31. Cell activities are controlled by :
(a) Chloroplast (b) Nitochondria
(c) Cytoplasm (d) Nucleus
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32. Which of the following helps eye to adjust the focal length of the eye lens :
(a) Cornea (b) Conjunctiva
(c) Ciliary body (d) Iris
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33. When pollen of a flower is transferred to the stigma of the same plant, pollination type is referred to as :
(a) Autogamy (b) Allogamy
(c) Xenogamy (d) Geitonogamy
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34. Respiration is a :
(a) Catabolic process (b) Anabolic process
(c) Both of these (d) None of these
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35. The structural and functional unit of kidneys are :
(a) Neurons (b) Nephrons
(c) Medula (d) None of these
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36. Which of the following enzymes is generally nor present in adult human :
(a) Renin (b) Pepsin
(c) Trypsin (d) Amylopsin
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37. The part of the plant which is responsible for carrying water and solutes from roots to various parts of plants is :
(a) Phloem (b) Xylem
(c) Duodenum (d) Sclercids
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38. ‘Widal test’ is used for susceptibility of :
(a) Malaria (b) Typhoid
(c) Cholera (d) Yellow fever
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39. Exchange of gases in plants takes place through :
(a) Stomata (b) Lenticels
(c) Cuticle (d) All of these
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40. ‘Lieutenant’ in army is equivalent to following rank in navy :
(a) Lieutenant (b) Sub Lieutanant
(c) Lieutenant Commander (d) None of these
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41. Pankaj Advani is associated with :
(a) Snooker (b) Golf
(c) Shooting (d) Archery
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42. Which city in the world is known as the forbidden city :
(a) Aberdeen (b) Jerusalem
(c) Mecca (d) Lhasa
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43. Rajeev Gandhi Khel Ratna Award carries a sum of :
(a) Rs. 3 lakns (b) Rs. 5 lakhs
(c) Rs. 1 lakh (d) Rs. 7 lakhs
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44. Who is known as ‘Nightingale of India’ :
(a) Asha Bhonsle (b) Begum Akhtar
(c) Sarojini Naidu (d) Vijaylaxmi Pandit
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45. Which one of the following is not included in the UNESCO’s list of world heritage site :
(a) Kaziranga National Park (b) Qutab Minar
(c) Champaner Pavagarh (d) None of these
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46. Which of the following is not an electric resistant?
(a) Lead (b) Ebonite
(c) Charcoal (d) Lac
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47. Which of the following is a complementary colour?
(a) Blue (b) Yellow
(c) Magenta (d) Yellow and Magenta
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48. The velocity of sound increases in air by ……… for every degree Celsius increase of temperature.
(a) 60 m/sec. (b) 0.61 m/sec.
(c) 60 ft/sec. (d) 0.61 km/sec.
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49. Henry is a unit of
(a) Capacity (b) Magnetic field
(c) Inductance (d) Frequency
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50. The velocity of rotation of Earth is
(a) 28 km/min (b) 30 km/min
(c) 25 km/min (d) 39.5 km/min
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51. What is Hubble?
(a) Warship (b) Star
(c) Telescope (d) Missile
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52. Which acid is normally found in lemon and grape fruits?
(a) Citric acid (b) Tartaric acid
(c) Ascorbic acid (d) Lactic acid
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53. At which temperature Fahrenheit and Celsius show same reading?
(a) -400 (b) 00
(c) -574.250 (d) 2730
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54. Limestone is metamorphosed to form
(a) Graphite (b) Quartz
(c) Granite (d) Marble
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55. Rift valley is formed by
(a) Earthquake (b) Folding
(c) Faulting (d) All of these
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56. If a piece of ice at 00C is mixed with water at 00C, then
(a) Whole ice melts (b) Some ice melts
(c) No ice melts (d) Temperature decreases
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57. Mettur Dam is built on the river
(a) Krishna (b) Cauvery
(c) Narmada (d) Mahanadi
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58. Mahendra Giri peak is situated in the
(a) Eastern Ghats (b) Western Ghats
(c) Shiwaliks (d) Vindhyachal
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59. In what time a sum will double itself at 20% per annum rate of interest?
(a) 2 years (b) 3 years
(c) 4 years (d) 5 years
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60. The famous Dilwara Temple is situated in
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra
(c) Gujarat (d) Rajasthan
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61. Pneumonia affects
(a) Lungs (b) Tongue
(c) Liver (d) Kidney
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62. The chemical name of Vitamin A is
(a) Retinol (b) Jhiamin
(c) Biotic (d) Riboflavin
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63. A 130m long train crosses a bridge in 30 seconds at 45 kmph. The length of the bridge is
(a) 200m (b) 225m
(c) 245m (d) 250m
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64. By selling an article at some price a person gains 10%. If the article is sold at twice of the price, the gain percent will be
(a) 20% (b) 60%
(c) 100% (d) 120%
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65. Atoms are electrically charged as
(a) Positive (b) Negative
(c) Bi-positive (d) Neutral
66. Ionic bond exists in
(a) Kcl (b) H2O
(c) NH3 (d) Cl3
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67. Which force is required to increase the momentum of an object to 40 kg m/s in 5 seconds?
(a) 2N (b) 4N
(c) 8N (d) 10N
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68. The river that does not form delta is
(a) Mahanadi (b) Tapti
(c) Krishna (d) Cauvery
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69. The ratio of the redius and height of a cone is 5 : 12, respectively. Its volume is 23147cc. Find its slant height.
(a) 13cm (b) 14cm
(c) 17cm (d) 26cm
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70. 27 students took part in a debate of a college. What is the probability that at least 3 of them have their birth days in the same month?
(a) 3/27 (b) 3/12
(c) 12 (d) 1
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71. Who was the first winner of Dada Saheb Phalke Award?
(a) B.N.Sarkar (b) Prithvi Raj Kapoor
(c) Devika Rani (d) Kanan Devi
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72. How many members are nominated by the President in the Rajya Sabha?
(a) 12 (b) 15
(c) 10 (d) 20
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73. Who was the founder of Brahmo Samaj?
(a) Raja Rammohan Roy (b) Aurobindo Ghosh
(c) Vivekanand (d) Dyanand Saraswati
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74. The Parliamentary System in India has been taken from
(a) America (b) Britain
(c) Australia (d) Ireland
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75. The electric supply in India was first started in
(a) Kolkata (b) Chennai
(c) Mumbai (d) Darjeeling
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76. Bhatnagar Prize is given in the field of
(a) Peace (b) Music and dance
(c) Science & technology (d) Fine arts
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77. Who discovered the solar system?
(a) Copernicus (b) Kepler
(c) Aryabhatta (d) Newton
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78. The Nobel Prize in Economics was started in
(a) 1901 (b) 1936
(c) 1957 (d) 1967
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79. In India, the second largest in
(a) Bengali (b) Urdu
(c) Telugu (d) Marathi
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80. The first Asian Games were held in
(a) Manila (b) Tokyo
(c) Jakarta (d) New Delhi
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81. The Islam was established in
(a) 7th A.D. (b) 5th A.D.
(c) 3rd B.C. (d) 5th B.C.
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82. The Olympic Games 2012 will be held in
(a) Moscow (b) Paris
(c) New York (d) London
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83. The main factor of air pollution is
(a) Lead (b) Copper
(c) Zinc (d) Gold
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84. The bauxite ore is found in
(a) Musabani (b) Karnapura
(c) Koderma (d) Palamu
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85. The first fertilizer plant in India was established in
(a) Trombay (b) Nangal
(c) Alwaye (d) Sindri
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86. Which of the following had strong navy?
(a) Bahmani (b) Chalukya
(c) Chola (d) Rashtrakuta
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87. The last king of Maurya Dynastry was
(a) Brihdarth (b) Kunal
(c) Samprati (d) Salishuk
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88. How will the image formed by a convex lens be affected if the central part of the lens is covered by black paper?
(a) Remaining part of the lens will form no image
(b) The central position of the image is absent
(c) There will be no effect
(d) The full image will be formed with lessened brightness
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89. The force between two parallel wires conducting current is used to define
(a) Ampere (b) Coulomb
(c) Volt (d) Newton
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90. A body is thrown vertically upward and it reaches 10m high. Find the velocity with which the body was thrown? (g = 9.8 m/s)
(a) 10 m/sec. (b) 18 m/sec.
(c) 14 m/sec. (d) 7 m/sec.
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91. The buoyancy depends on the
(a) Depth of the fluid (b) Density of the fluid
(c) Volume of the fluid (d) Weight of the fluid
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ANSWERS

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (a)
13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (d)
24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (a & b) 30. (b) 31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (a)
35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (b) 41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (a)
47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (a) 51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (a)
59. (d) 60. (d) 61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (c) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (a) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (c)
71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (d) 76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (c) 80. (d) 81. (a) 82. (d)
83. (a) 84. (d) 85. (d) 86. (c) 87. (a) 88. (d) 89. (a) 90. (c) 91. (b)