Employment notice No-0110 Recruitment in Pay Band-I Rs.5200-20200/- with GP Rs.1800/- (UR, SC, ST, OBC and PWD) on ER, Metro Rly. and CLW Date of issue – 14/12/2010 Closing date- 25/02/2011 Time upto – 17: 00 hrs
1. Applications, on plain paper, in the given format, are invited from the citizens of India and from such other persons declared eligible by Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India, for filling up posts in specified categories of Eastern Railway, as listed below. The Application, in prescribed format, may be sent by post to the “Assistant Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell, Eastern Railway, 56, C.R.Avenue, RITES Building, 1st Floor, Kolkata – 700 012” or, dropped in the Application Box kept in the Office of Railway Recruitment Cell, Eastern Railway, 56 C.R.Avenue RITES Building, 1st Floor, Kolkata – 700 012, upto 17:00 hrs. of the Closing Date i.e. 25/02/2011 (Friday). For candidates belonging to Andaman & Nicobar and Lakshdweep Islands, the last date will be 15 days beyond the closing date (i.e.10.03.2011) upto 17:00 hrs. Applications received after closing date and time will not be entertained. The envelope containing application should be clearly superscribed “Application for Recruitment in Pay Band-I Rs.5200-20200/- with GP Rs.1800/- – Eastern Railway” along with the community as applicable ( i.e. SC/ST/OBC/UR/PWD(PH) ). A Candidate should submit only one application form, even if he/she intends to be considered for more than one or all categories. Candidate submitting more than one application form will not be considered. Even if such a candidate gets selected inadvertently, he/she will not be offered appointment and where detected at a later stage, will be liable for summary termination from service.
The recruitment will be conducted by the Railway Recruitment Cell, Eastern Railway, (hereinafter referred as RRC-ER). Number of posts to be filled on Eastern Railway with community-wise and PWD wise distribution, scale of pay and medical classification are indicated below:
NB: Total 420 PWD vacancy in categories marked * (Asterisk) Number of posts to be filled on Metro Rly./Kolkata with community-wise and PWD wise distribution, scale of pay and medical classification are indicated below:
Number of posts to be filled on CLW with community-wise and PWD wise distribution, scale of pay and medical classification are indicated below:
Note: 1.1.Vacancies of PWD (PH) given in the table are not separate but included in the total number of vacancies. 1.2. Vacancies indicated above are only tentative and are subject to change. 1.3. Candidates for Post Code-01 must meet the standard for Vision and colour vision specified in Annexure-III. They should have their vision checked by competent eye specialist and obtain certificate as in Annexure-III, an attested xerox copy of which should be attached with the application form. 1.4 Physically challenged candidates should go through the details given in Annexure-V to Annexure-VII. 2. ABBREVIATIONS USED (2.1) RRC-ER – Railway Recruitment Cell, Eastern Railway (2.2) ER-Eastern Railway (2.3) CLW-Chittaranjan Locomotive Works (2.4) Metro Railway/Kolkata – Metro Rly. (2.5) SC-Scheduled Caste (2.6) ST-Scheduled Tribe (2.7) OBC- Other Backward Classes (2.8) UR-Un-Reserved (2.9) PWD (PH)-Persons with Disabilities (Physically Handicapped) VH – Visually Handicapped, HH – Hearing Handicapped, OH – Orthopaedically Handicapped (2.10) SRE-Serving Railway Employee (2.11) PET-Physical Efficiency Test. (2.12) Elect.- Electrical (2.132) Mech. - Mechanical (2.14) S&T – Signal & Telecommunication (2.15) Comml. – Commercial (2.16) Transp. – Transportation (2.17) Engg. – Engineering (2.18) AF – Application Form 3. MINIMUM EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION: 3.1 The candidate should be minimum 10th Pass or ITI or equivalent on the date of application. Candidates appearing at and/or awaiting results of final examination of Class 10th or ITI or equivalent are not eligible. 4. AGE LIMIT and RELAXATION: 4.1 For all the above vacancies, the age limit will be 18 to 33 years and will be reckoned as on 01-01-2011. 4.2 The upper age limit will be relaxed as under, subject to the production of requisite certificate - 4.2.1. By FIVE Years for SC/ST and by THREE years for OBC candidates in possession of valid certificates issued by the appropriate authority, copy of which is to be enclosed for claiming age relaxation. 4.2.2. Serving railway employees, including casual labours and substitutes, who have put in a minimum of THREE YEARS service will be given age relaxation subject to the age limit not exceeding 40, 43 and 45 years in case of General, OBC and SC/ST candidates respectively. 4.2.3. In case of staff of Quasi Administrative Offices of Railway Organization such as Railway Canteens, Railway Institutes and Railways Cooperative societies, relaxation of age will be given to the extent of service rendered by them subject to a maximum of 05 years and upper age limit of 35 years. 4.2.4. Widows and Divorced Women who have judicially separated from their husbands and are not remarried, will be given relaxation in age up to 35, 38 and 40 years in case of General, OBC and SC/ST candidates respectively. 4.2.5. BY FIVE years to the candidates who had ordinarily been domiciled in the Kashmir Division of the State of Jammu and Kashmir during the period from the Ist day of Jan. 80 to the 31st day of Dec. 89, subject to production of a residential certificate from the appropriate authority of the State of Jammu and Kashmir. 4.2.6. The upper age limit for PWD (PH) candidates are 43 years, 46 years and 48 years as on 01.01.2011 for UR,OBC and SC/ST candidates respectively. 4.2.7. No age relaxation is allowed to SC/ST/OBC candidates applying against unreserved posts. 5. PROOF OF AGE: (a) Birth certificate issued by appropriate authority, or (b) Matric / 10th pass Certificate issued by Board or equivalent. 6. SERVING EMPLOYEES: A candidate serving under the Government or Public Sector Enterprise/Undertaking including Railways should either apply through proper channel duly certifying their service details by the employer, or, directly to RRC - ER with “No Objection Certificate” from the employer concerned. In addition, an advance copy of such application, complete in all respects, may be sent super-scribing on the top of the application “ADVANCE COPY” so as to reach RRC – ER before the closing date and time specified. 7. EXAMINATION FEE: 7.1 The Examination fee is Rs. 40/- (Rs. Forty) only. Candidates belonging to SC/ST, PWD(PH), Women, Minority Communities and Economically Backward Classes/Sections are exempted from payment of examination fees. For availing exemption under Economically Backward Class, Certificate in Proforma at Annexure-VIII should be enclosed. 7.2 The Examination fee should be paid in the form of crossed Demand Draft/Pay Order from any Nationalized Bank or crossed IPO from any Post Office drawn in favour of “Assistant Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell, Eastern Railway” payable at “KOLKATA”. Validity of Bank Draft/Pay Order/IPO should be of minimum six months from the date of issue.
7.3 Application received with cash/cheque/Central Recruitment Stamps and Money orders will not be accepted and will be treated as rejected and amount forfeited. 7.4 Bank draft/Pay Order / IPO issued before the date of issue of Employment Notice and after closing date will not be accepted and such application form will be rejected and amount forfeited. 7.5 The candidates are advised to write their name and address on the backside of the Bank Draft/Pay Order/ IPO and enclose it with the application form in original. The details of examination fee may be written in the Application form. Examination fee is not refundable under any circumstances including for the rejected applications. 7.6 The BANK DRAFT/PAY ORDER/IPO should be enclosed on the top of the application.
8. IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE CANDIDATES: 8.1 Candidates are advised to apply to one zonal Railway of their choice. It may be noted that Written Examination will be held on the same day simultaneously by all the Railways. Similarly Physical Efficiency Test (PET) will also be held during the same period simultaneously by all the Railways. 8.2 The number of vacancies shown is provisional and is liable to increase or decrease. No consequential damage/loss or refund of fee will be made to the applicant on this account. 8.3 Female candidates are also eligible. They may however, note that the nature of duties is arduous and may involve outdoor and night working. 8.4 Selected candidates are likely to be posted anywhere on the concerned Zonal Railway after successful completion of training, wherever prescribed. 8.5 Candidates should send their application sufficiently in advance before the closing date to the Railway Recruitment Cell, Eastern Railway. RRC-ER will not be responsible for any postal delay/wrong delivery whatsoever at any stage of the selection process. 8.6 The size of the column for correspondence address in Application Form is 8 x 4 cm. The same should not be changed under any circumstance. 8.7 All candidates irrespective of community will be considered for UR vacancy except PWD (PH). However, against specific community quota, only candidates of that particular community will be considered including PWD (PH). 8.8 It may please be noted that-- a) Caste certificate from competent authority for SC/ST and OBC candidates in the prescribed format have to be produced as given in Annexure I and II respectively. b) If the candidates wish to be considered against a specific community quota and fill the community column accordingly, their application will be rejected unless proof of community in the prescribed format is enclosed. c) Any subsequent representation for change of community status will not be entertained under any circumstances. 8.9 Before applying to the post, the candidates should ensure that he/she fulfils the eligibility and other criteria. RRC-ER would be free to reject any application not fulfilling the requisite criteria, at any stage of recruitment, and if erroneously appointed, such candidates shall be liable summary termination of service without notice.
9. GUIDELINES FOR HOW TO APPLY: 9.1.1 Candidates should carefully read the instructions in this Employment Notice before applying for the post, and indicate their preference by indicating number of Post. 9.1.2 Candidates are required to fill up Application Form (AF) in the format given below. Format of AF should not be changed under any circumstance. 9.1.3 Application Form (AF) should be made separately on good quality, white, A-4 (210x297mm) size paper on a single sheet using ONE SIDE ONLY. 9.1.4 Candidates have to fill up required information in Black Gel Ink/Black Ball Point pen in his/her own handwriting. 9.1.5 AF should be written either in English or Hindi, not in any other Language. The language once selected, should only be used for filling all columns. 9.1.6 AF has to be duly dated and signed by the candidate. 9.1.7 Overwriting, cutting, erasing in the AF will lead to rejection of application. 9.1.8 The photograph should be a size of 4.5 x 3.5 cm. and should be colour photograph. The photograph should be taken without wearing coloured glass or Cap and face of the candidate should be clearly visible. If these conditions are not satisfied, the application will be summarily rejected.
10. Application Form (AF)
10.1.1 Specific details, as asked in AF, should be mentioned in the Column correctly.
10.1.2. Candidates are required to copy the following para (Declaration), in his/her own handwriting, in the space provided at column No. 20 in the Application Form --- “I hereby declare that all the particulars given above by me are true, complete and correct to the best of my knowledge and belief. I am aware that in the event of any information furnished by me is found false / incorrect at any stage, my candidature / service will be rejected / terminated summarily and I am also liable to criminal action. I will abide by the instructions given in the notification”.
10.2 Application Form (AF) 10.2.1. Candidates should write his/her name (in column no. 1), father’s/husband’s name (in column no.2) in capital letters as given in Class-X certificate or ITI or equivalent certificate. Each letter should be filled in one box as shown below; one box should be left blank between each part of the name.
10.2.2. Candidates should write his/her nearest railway station in column no. 3 and nationality in column no. 6, writing one letter in each box, leaving one box blank between two words.
10.2.3. Candidates should write Correspondence Address in column no. 4. Correspondence Address should be written in block letter. It should be legible complete and with PIN Code No. The dimension of this column is 8 cm x 4 cm. The same should not be changed, otherwise, address on scanning would become illegible and it is likely the correspondence may get misplaced in transit.
10.2.4 In column no. 5 appropriate code may be written as given below:
10.2.5 In column no. 7 candidates should indicate his/her religion by writing the appropriate code as given below:
10.2.6 In column no. 8 marital status may be indicted by writing the appropriate code as given below:-
10.2.7 In column no. 9 candidate should write his/her date of birth in digits beginning with date, month and year with one digit in each box. If any of these figures is single digit prefix zero to make it double digit, for example – if a candidate is born on 5th June, he/ she should write 05 under date and 06 under month.
10.2.8 PWD(PH) candidates should mention their type of disability in column 10 of AF as VH/OH/HH
10.2.9 In column no. 11 candidate may indicate his/her community by writing the appropriate code as given below :-
10.2.10 For age relaxation under any of the categories mentioned in Para 4.2 above, write the appropriate undermentioned code in column no. 12.
10.2.11 In column no. 13 candidate may indicate his/her choice of posts by preferring the code as given in Para-1 of the Notification upto 05 preferences.
10.2.11 In column no. 14, 15, 16, 19 and 20, specific details as required, may be mentioned.
10.3.12 The question paper for written examination will be in English, Hindi, Urdu and Bengali medium. In column no.17 candidate should indicate his/her choice of medium by writing the appropriate code as given below:
10.2.13. In the prescribed space of AF, candidates should sign his specimen signature in English or Hindi thrice as indicated in AF separately. Signature of the applicant must be specific so that it may not be copied easily. Signature in capital letters or open letters will not be accepted and the applications having such type of signature will be rejected summarily.
10.2.14 In the prescribed space of AF candidate should put his/her left thumb impression (LTI) in black printer ink only. LTI should be clear and complete; finger-print should be clearly visible and not smudged.
10.2.15 Candidate should put his/her signature at the right bottom of the AF as prescribed in AF. The signature of the applicant must be specific so that it may not be copied easily. Signature in capital letters or open letters will not be accepted and the applications having such type of signature will be rejected summarily. 10.2.16 Candidate should write place and date at the left bottom of the Application as shown in the AF.
10.2.17 Port Blair centre is available only for candidates from Andaman & Nicobar and Lakshdweep Islands. The decision of Railway Administration regarding allotment of Examination Centre will be final.
10.2.18 In the prescribed column of Application Form, candidate should affix his/her passport size photograph, with light colour background, not older than one month, repeat, not older than one month, without wearing cap or goggles/coloured glasses. Do not put any mark or signature on the photograph. No attestation of photograph is required. The photograph should be neatly pasted and not stapled or pinned. One photograph is to be enclosed separately (not older than 1 month) without wearing cap & goggles/coloured glasses should be enclosed with name and father/husband’s name written on reverse. Do not put any mark or signature on the photograph.
Note : Candidates must keep a photocopy of the AF for further reference.
10.3.23 Candidates should send AF duly filled in along with required documents by POST, so as to reach Railway Recruitment Cell office within the closing date positively. Application received after due date, for any reason whatsoever, will not be considered. Speed post/Courier/Registered AD will not be acknowledged. Such applications will be deemed to have been deposited in the box provided at RRC, Eastern Railway for this purpose.
10.3.24 Candidates should mention “Recruitment in Pay Band-I Rs.5200-20200/- with GP Rs.1800/- - Eastern Railway. Community ______” at the top of the envelope containing the Application. PWD (PH) candidates must mention PWD/PH at the Top of the envelope of their application for Recruitment in Pay Band-I Rs.5200-20200/- with GP Rs.1800/- clearly. Each cover should contain one application only. In case more than one applications are sent in one cover, all such applications will be rejected as stated above.
10.3.25 Those candidates who are debarred from appearing at any of the RRB exam. need not apply unless such period expires by the closing date. Their application shall not be entertained.
11. ENCLOSURES: (Please also see Checklist at Annexure-IV) The following enclosures only are to be firmly stitched along with the application Form- 11.1 Attested, photocopy of certificates for DOB and qualification. 11.2 Certificates/documents, which are in language other than in Hindi or English, should be translated into Hindi or English and enclosed along with the attested Xerox copies of originals. 11.3 In case of SC/ST candidates, a certificate of their belonging to SC/ST category in the format given in Annexure-I. 11.4 In case of OBC candidates, a certificate of their belonging to OBC in format as given in Annexure-II & Annexure-IX. 11.5 In case of PWD/PH candidates the attested copy of the disability certificates in the format as given in Annexure-VI or Annexure-VII, which is applicable, should be attached. 11.6 All PWD/PH candidates must go through the instructions as given in Annexure-V, VI & VII. 11.7 In the case of Government Servants, attested copy of Certificate from the competent authority giving their length of service etc. 11.8 Only xerox, attested copies of certificates/documents should be enclosed. A Gazetted Officer should attest copies of Certificates. Original copy of certificate/document SHOULD NOT be enclosed with the application. 11.9 No objection certificate from the employer, if already employed. 11.10 Any certificate, photograph etc. received separately, subsequent to the receipt of application will not be entertained.
12. SERVING GOVERNMENT EMPLOYEES: Candidates serving Government, Quasi Government Offices/ Organizations and Institutions, can apply directly with “No objection Certificate” from their employer to avoid delay or they should apply through proper channel only. Advance copy of the application will be entertained provided the application through proper channel is received in RRC-ER’s office within 15 days from the closing date, for which the entire responsibility would be of the candidate. Applications even if submitted to the employer concerned before the closing date but received by RRC-ER after the closing date will not be considered. It is the responsibility of the candidates to ensure that his/her application is forwarded to RRC-ER in time so that the application reaches RRC-ER office within time.
13. FREE JOURNEY RAILWAY PASS: A free Second Class journey Railway Pass, as and where admissible, will be issued to the candidates belonging to SC/ST communities only. All other candidates will have to bear their expenses for appearing in the written examination/physical efficiency test etc.
14. IMPORTANT NOTE: Candidates should have requisite academic qualification on the date of submission of application. Those who are appearing at and/or awaiting results of final examination are not eligible. Academic qualification must be from a recognized Institution/Board, otherwise candidature will be rejected. Candidates having higher qualification may also apply.
15. SYLLABUS & EXAMINATION: The question paper for the written examination shall be based on Class 10th standard consisting of multiple choice objective type questions aimed to assess General Knowledge/Awareness, Mathematics and Reasoning etc. There will be no question for checking proficiency in language. Questions will be in Hindi, English, Urdu and Bengali.
16. SELECTION PROCEDURE. 16.1 Selection will be based on Physical Efficiency Test(PET) followed by documents verification. Candidates who have qualified in the Physical Efficiency Test(PET) will be called for written Examination. It may be noted that Physical Efficiency Test(PET) will be of qualifying nature and will be followed by documents verification. Candidates to a limited extent, in order of merit, out of those who obtain the prescribed minimum pass marks in the written test will be called for original documents verification and medical examination of relevant standard. There will be no interview.
16.2 Physical Efficiency Test (P.E.T.): The qualifying standard of PET will be as follows:
16.2.1 Male Should be able to run for a distance of 1500 metres in 6 minutes in one chance.
16.2.2 Female Should be able to run for a distance of 400 metres in 3 minutes in one chance.
Railway Administration will not be liable/responsible for any loss/injury/damage, whether direct or consequential, suffered/incurred by any candidate during the selection, including PET. Candidates are advised in their own interest, therefore, to ensure that they are physically and otherwise fit to undertake the selection and observe due care to avoid injury/damage/loss to either themselves or others during the process of selection. 16.3. The appointment of the candidate will be subject to their being found suitable after antecedent verification and medical fitness as per rules. 16.4. The selection of candidate by RRC-ER does not confer any right to the candidate for appointment. ‘RRC-ER’ shall not be held responsible for any inadvertent error or mistake. 16.5. RRC-ER at its discretion may hold additional written examination and/or hold re-examination, or, cancel part, or, whole of the written examination and/or PET. 16.6. Date and venue of written examination, Physical Efficiency Test, and document verification will be fixed by RRC-ER and intimated to eligible candidates by post. Request for postponement of the examination and change of center/venue will not be entertained under any circumstances. Candidates trying to use influence or unfair means on this count would be liable to be disqualified.
Note:- Admission to the examination center is provisional as the applications are fully scrutinized later. In case a candidate does not fulfill the entire requirement prescribed in the Employment Notice, his/her candidature is liable to be rejected even at a later stage, when deficiency is noticed. Mere issue of call letter for appearing in written exam by RRC-ER, does not confer any right for any subsequent stage of recruitment process or placing his/her name on the panel.
17. INVALID APPLICATIONS: The applications having any of the following deficiencies or irregularities will be summarily rejected. 17.1. Applications not submitted in prescribed format as given in this Employment Notice, or, if incomplete or illegible. 17.2. Unsigned/undated applications, applications without thumb impression, applications without marks of identification. 17.3. Without photos or affixing/attaching xerox copy of photograph. 17.4. Without signature on Application Form. 17.5. Without Demand Draft/Pay Order / IPO of requisite value and validity. 17.6. Applications not filled in English or Hindi or not filled by the candidate in his own handwriting. 17.7. Applications without declaration, written in candidate’s own handwriting. 17.8. Without proper certificates, in respect of SC/ST/OBC candidates and PWD/PH. Certificate should be obtained from the competent authority in the prescribed format. 17.9. Under aged/Over aged candidates. 17.10. Not having the requisite Educational Qualification at the time of submitting application. 17.11. Applications received after 17.00 hrs. on closing date. 17.12. Photo copies of the certificates not attested by Gazetted Officer, or, if self-attested. 17.13. More than one application in one name or sent in one envelope. 17.14. Any other irregularity / incomplete application. 18. Action against candidates found guilty of misconduct: Candidates are warned that they should not furnish any particulars that are false or suppress any material information while filling in the Application Form. Candidates are also warned that they should in no case attempt to alter or otherwise tamper with any entry in a document or its attested / certified copy submitted by them nor should they submit a tampered / fabricated document. If there is any inaccuracy or any discrepancy, an explanation regarding this discrepancy should be submitted. 18.1. A candidate who is or has been found by the Railway Recruitment Board / Zonal Railway/ Recruitment Cell, to be guilty of : (i) Obtaining support for his candidature by any means, or, (ii) Impersonating, or, (iii) Procuring impersonation by any person, or, (iv) Submitting fabricated document or documents which have been tampered with, or, (v) Making statements which are incorrect or false or suppressing material information, or, (vi) Resorting to any other irregular or improper means in connection with his candidature for the selection, or, (vii) Using unfair means during the examination, or, (viii)Writing irrelevant matter including obscene language or pornographic matter, in the scripts(s),or, (ix) Committing mischief in any other manner in the examination hall, or, (x) Harassing or doing bodily harm to the staff employed by the RRC-ER for the conduct of their test. May, in addition to action under relevant provision of the Rules render himself liable to criminal prosecution and further- (a) be disqualified by the RRC-ER from selection for which he is a candidate, or, (b) be debarred either permanently or for a period decided by the RRC-ER from any examination or selection conducted by all the Zonal Railway Recruitment Cells/RRBs. (c) If he is already in service under Government, be taken under disciplinary action under the appropriate rules.
19. All male candidates are liable for active Territorial Army Service in Railway Units or such other units as may be laid down in this behalf from time to time.
20. Candidates selected for these categories after the written test/Physical Efficiency Test/document verification are required to pass prescribed medical examination, before appointment.
21. Selected candidates may be required to undergo training wherever necessary, with stipend for a specific period and to deposit the security amount and execute an indemnity bond or agreement.
22. The candidates selected may be absorbed depending on the vacancies available, after successful completion of prescribed training. They may be considered in due course for promotion to higher grades according to rules/orders in force from time to time.
23. Posting of the selected candidates may be made as per requirement of the Indian Railways at the appropriate time. No particular place or Department or Division of posting can be assured or assumed.
24. For any legal dispute the Jurisdiction will be at Central Administrative Tribunal, covering the city where RRC-ER is located.
25. In the event of any dispute, English version of the Employment Notice will be treated as valid. In case of any misprint the copy of the notification displayed in the office of RRC-ER is final and valid. RRC-ER will not be responsible for printing/typographical error or any other inadvertent mistake.
26. RAILWAY RECRUITMENT CELL-ER’s DECISION FINAL: The decision of RRC-ER in all matters relating to eligibility, acceptance or rejection of the applications, issue of free Rail Passes, penalty for false information, mode of selection, conduct of examination(s) and allotment of examination centre, selection, allotment of posts to selected candidates will be final and binding on the candidates and no enquiry or correspondence will be entertained in this connection. Candidates who submit forged caste certificates for securing eligibility and or obtaining privilege, including free travel, for appearing in an examination, shall be liable not only for rejection of his candidature for the particular recruitment for which he has applied, but shall be debarred from appearing at any examination conducted by any RRC/RRB all over the country for whole life. IMPORTANT: RRC-ER has not appointed any agents or coaching centres for acting on its behalf. Candidates are warned against any such claims being made by persons / agencies. Examination conducted by RRC-ER would be multiple-choice objective type and OMR answer sheets are being used and computer evaluation is being resorted to. Candidates are selected purely as per merit. Please beware of unscrupulous elements and do not fall in their trap. Any information on such elements or complaints may be addressed to either Dy.CPO(Rectt.) E.Rly. on the address below, or, SDGM/ E.Rly.Headquarters, 17, N.S. Road, Fairlie Place, Kolkata-700-001. Candidates may also log on to RRC-ER’s website www.rrcer.com for downloading Application Form and accessing other information. Dy. Chief Personnel Officer/Rectt. Railway Recruitment Cell—E. Railway 56, C. R. Avenue RITES Building, 1st Floor, KOLKATA – 700 012 | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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Wednesday, December 15, 2010
RAILWAY RECRUITMENT CELL EASTERN RAILWAY GROUP-D RECRUITMENT
RRB BHOPAL TICKET COLLECTOR, COMMERCIAL CLERK, JR. CLERK, JR. ACCOUNT CLERK EXAM pAPER
1. The main sources about the Indus Valley civilization are :
(1) Inscriptions
(2) Coins
(3) Manuscripts on leaves of palm and birch
(4) Archaeological excavations
2. The propounder of Yoga School of Philosophy was
(1) Patanjali (2) Gautam
(3) Jaimini (4) Shankaracharya
3. The term ‘Double Fault’ is related to the game of
(1) Badminton (2) Golf
(3) Tennis (4) Cricket
4. Which of the following pairs of names are related?
(1) Golf- Polo (2) Soccer- Football
(3) Billiards- Snookers (4) Volleyball- Football
5. Which of the following pairs is the highest peak of India?
(1) Kanchanjungha (2) Nanda Devi
(3) Mount Everest (4) Kamet
6. After how many years elections are held to elect the members of Rajya Sabha?
(1) 6 years (2) 2 years
(3) 3 years (4) 4 years
7. Which of the following is the longest river in India?
(1) Ganga (2) Brahmaputra
(3) Yamuna (4) Godavari
8. Which of the following vitamins is obtained from sunlight?
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin C
(3) Vitamin D (4) Vitamin B
9. How many bones are there in the human body?
(1) 206 (2) 202
(3) 204 (4) 203
10. Which of the following is the longest river in the world?
(1) Amazon (2) Nile
(3) Mississippi (4) Danube
11. Silk is mostly obtained from
(1) Ujjain (2) Koshambi
(3) Taxila (4) Varanasi
12. Who among the following is associated with the Sarnath Inscription ?
(1) Ashoka (2) Harshavardhana
(3) Chandra Gupta Maurya (4) Samundra Gupta
13. Which of the following names of play ground is correct?
(1) Ring – Skating (2) Diamond – Cricket
(3) Field – Cycling (4) Bull – Tennis
14. Who among the following is competent to amend the provisions of citizenship?
(1) Parliament (2) President
(3) Prime Minister (4) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
15. Who among the following administers the oath of office to the President?
(1) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(2) Prime Minister
(3) Vice President
(4) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
16. Who among the following administers the oath of office to the Chief Justice of a High Court?
(1) Governor
(2) President
(3) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(4) Council of Ministers
17. Railway in included in which of the following lists?
(1) Union list (2) State list
(3) Concurrent list (4) None of these
18. Who among the following was the first and last woman ruler of Delhi?
(1) Razia Beghum (2) Chand Bibi
(3) Mumtaz (4) Karnavati
19. Who among the following was the first to land on moon?
(1) Neil Armstrong (2) Tenzing Norgay
(3) Rakesh Sharma (4) Edwin Aldrin
20. Who among the following was the first Indian woman to scale the Mount Everest?
(1) Bachendri Pal (2) Santosh Yadav
(3) Dicky Dolma (4) None of these
21. Zero hour is the period
(1) just after question hour in both Houses of Parliament
(2) at the starting of the sitting
(3) at the end of sitting
(4) None of these
22. The maximum interval between the two sessions of the Houses is
(1) Six months (2) 3 months
(3) 2 months (4) one year
23. The period of proclamation of emergency is
(1) one month (2) two months
(3) six months (4) one year
24. The Chief Minister who remained in the office for the longest period :
(1) Jyoti Basu (2) Lalu Prasad
(3) Mayawati (4) M. Karunanidhi
25. The Salarjung Museum is located in
(1) Hyderabad (2) Bhopal
(3) Patna (4) Ranchi
26. Which of the following gases is filled in a balloon?
(1) Helium (2) Hydrogen
(3) Bromine (4) Oxygen
27. Which of the following is called Banker̢۪s Bank?
(1) Reserve Bank of India (2) State Bank of India
(3) Punjab National Bank (4) None of these
28. Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly?
(1) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (2) Bhimrao Ambedkar
(3) Jawaharlal Nehru (4) Sachchidanand Sinha
29. Which of the following is the longest platform in the world?
(1) Kharagpur (2) Kolkata
(3) Leningrad (4) Tokyo
30. Who among the following built the Grand Trunk road?
(1) Shershah (2) Akbar
(3) Humayun (4) Shahjehan
31. Focus on the age eye is adjusted through
(1) Retina (2) Iris
(3) Comea (4) Lens
32. Who among the following was the ruler of Kalinga?
(1) Kharvela (2) Ashoka
(3) Samudragupta (4) None of these
33. Maximum oil can be extracted from
(1) Sunflower (2) Groundnut
(3) Mustard (4) Cardamom
34. The most suitable conductor is
(1) Saline water (2) Fresh water
(3) Pure water (4) None of these
35. The mausoleum of which saint is located in Ajmer?
(1) Moinuddin Chisti (2) Badruddin Zacharia
(3) Khwaja Walliullah (4) Abdul Shatari
36. Gobar gas mainly contains
(1) Methane (2) Ethane
(3) Propane (4) Butane
37. Who among the following invented the decimal system?
(1) Aryabhatt (2) Copernicus
(3) Magellan (4) Charak
38. Nose starts bleeding when one climbs up mountain due to
(1) low pressure (2) high pressure
(3) height (4) None of these
39. In which of the following sectors maximum number of women are employed?
(1) Tea (2) Agriculture
(3) Jute (4) Textile
40. Railway earns maximum revenue from
(1) freight charges (2) passenger fares
(3) advertisement (4) None of these
41. Which of the following is called the laughing gas?
(1) Nitrogen Oxide (2) Hydrogen Oxide
(3) Nitrous Oxide (4) Sulphur Oxide
42. Who was the first Indian to qualify for Olympics?
(1) Shiny Abraham (2) PT Usha
(3) Karmam Malleshwari (4) Jyotirmony Sikdar
43. During Shivaji̢۪s childhood, who among the following exercised the maximum influence on his character?
(I) Jija Bai, his mother (II) Dadaji Kondadev, his tutor
(III) Shahji Bhonsle, his father
(1) I Only (2) I and III
(3) I, II and III (4) I and II
44. ‘Black Hole Episode’ was the main cause of :
(1) Battle of Buxar (2) Battle of Plassey
(3) Battle of Wandiwash (4) Battle of Haldighati
45. Who is known as the ‘Grand Old Man of India’?
(1) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Kan (2) C. Rajgopalachari
(3) Lala Lajpat Rai (4) Dadabhai Naoroji
46. The slogan ‘Inquilab Zindabad’ was first raised by :
(1) Lokmanya Tilak (2) Veer Savarkar
(3) Chandrashekhar Azad (4) Bhagat Singh
47. Which of the following is/ are true about Sarojini Naidu?
(a) She was the First Woman President of the Congress
(b) She was the first Woman Governor in independent India
(c) She was the first Health Minister in independent India
(d) She wrote the famous ‘Golden Bough’
(1) a, b and d (2) a and c
(3) a and b (4) Only b
48. Which planet looks reddish in the night sky?
(1) Mercury (2) Mars
(3) Jupiter (4) Saturn
49. Geostationary orbit is at a height of :
(1) 6 km (2) 1000 km
(3) 3600 km (4) 36,000 km
50. The ozone layer in the upper part of the atmosphere protects us from :
(1) Cosmic rays (2) Ultrasonic waves
(3) Infra- red rays (4) Ultraviolet rays
51. Nights are cooler in the deserts than in the plains because :
(1) sand radiates that more quickly than the earth
(2) the sky remains clear most of the time
(3) sand absorbs heat more quickly than the earth
(4) None of these
52. Which of the following is the highest plateau in the world?
(1) Colorado Plateau (2) Pamir Plateau
(3) Patagonia Plateau (4) Potwar Plateau
53. Pointing towards a woman Manju said that ‘She is the sister of father of son of my mother’. How is that woman related to woman?
(1) Aunt (2) Sister
(3) Niece (4) None of these
54. Tipu Sultan was the ruler of
(1) Hyderabad (2) Madurai
(3) Mysore (4) Vijayanagar
55. Which of the following passes through India?
(1) Tropic of Cancer (2) Tropic of Capricorn
(2) Prime Meridian (4) Equator
ANSWERS
1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (1)
6. (1) 7. (1) 8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (2)
11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (1) 14. (1) 15. (1)
16. (1) 17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (1) 20. (1)
21. (1) 22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (1) 25. (1)
26. (1) 27. (1) 28. (1) 29. (1) 30. (1)
31. (2) 32. (1) 33. (1) 34. (1) 35. (1)
36. (1) 37. (1) 38. (2) 39. (1) 40. (1)
41. (3) 42. (2) 43. (4) 44. (2) 45. (4)
46. (4) 47. (4) 48. (2) 49. (4) 50. (4)
51. (1) 52. (2) 53. (1) 54. (3) 55. (1)
RRB GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS
1. The only Indian Governor General was—
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
2. . Which plan became the basis for Indian independence ?
(A) Cripps Plan
(B) Wavell Plan
(C) Mountbatten Plan
(D) None of the above
3. Which part of Indian Constitution has been described as the soul of the Constitution ?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principle of State Policy
(C) The Preamble
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
4. Name the Indian who attended all the Three Round Table Conferences—
(A) B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(D) Tej Bahadur Sapru
5. Rabindranath Tagore relinquished his Nighthood as a measure of protest against—
(A) Partition of Bengal
(B) Press Act of 1910
(C) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(D) Salt Laws
6. The 52nd amendment to the Constitution of India deals with—
(A) Defection
(B) Reservation
(C) Election
(D) Protection of minorities
7. The Panchayati Raj was recommended by—
(A) The Government of India Act, 1935
(B) The Cripps Mission of 1942
(C) The Indian Independence Act, 1947
(D) Balwantrai Mehta Committee Report, 1957
8. The President of India can nominate—
(A) 10 members to Rajya Sabha
(B) 2 members to Rajya Sabha
(C) 15 members to Rajya Sabha
(D) 12 members to Rajya Sabha
9. UNO has fixed the target for ‘Education for All’ till the year—
(A) 2012
(B) 2013
(C) 2014
(D) 2015
10. The subjects on which both the Centre and State Governments can legislate are contained in—
(A) The Union List
(B) The State List
(C) The Concurrent List
(D) Residuary List
11. Which State Legislative Assembly has the maximum strength (number of members) ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) West Bengal
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Uttar Pradesh
12. The concept of ‘Fundamental Rights’ enshrined in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from
which country’s constitution ?
(A) France
(B) Britain
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Russia
13. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha has been fixed at—
(A) 540
(B) 545
(C) 552
(D) 555
14. The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on—
(A) August 15, 1947
(B) June 30, 1948
(C) November 26, 1949
(D) January 26, 1950
15. In India the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is appointed by—
(A) President of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
16. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the introduction of money bill ?
(A) Money bill is introduced in Rajya Sabha
(B) It can be introduced in either of the Houses of Parliament
(C) It cannot be introduced in the Lok Sabha
(D) It is introduced in the Lok Sabha
17. Who is the Chairman of the Planning Commission ?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Governor of Reserve Bank
18. The minimum age required for election to Rajya Sabha is—
(A) 25 years
(B) 30 years
(C) 32 years
(D) 35 years
19. Which one of the following taxes is levied and collected by the Union but distributed between
Union and States ?
(A) Corporation tax
(B) Tax on income other than on agricultural income
(C) Tax on railway fares and freights
(D) Customs
20. Sikkim became a new state by–
(A) 30th Amendment
(B) 34th Amendment
(C) 35th Amendment
(D) 36th Amendment
21. On which Indian river is the highest bridge of the world being constructed ?
(A) Chenab
(B) Satluj
(C) Jhelum
(D) Beas
22. Match ListI (category) with ListII (54th National Film Award winners) and select the correct
answer from the codes given below the lists—
ListI
(a) Best Feature Film
(b) Best Popular Film
(c) Best Children Film
(d) Best Hindi Film
ListII
1. Care of Footpath
2. Khosla ka Ghosla
3. Pullijaman
4. Lage Raho Munnabhai
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 4 2 1 3
23. In which district of Uttar Pradesh has the first Police Museum of the country been established ?
(A) Allahabad
(B) Agra
(C) Ghaziabad
(D) Lucknow
24. The Commercial Banks were Nationalised in—
(A) 1947
(B) 1951
(C) 1969
(D) 1992
25. Asia’s first human DNA Bank has been set up in—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Lucknow
(D) Mumbai
26. The distribution of finances between centre and states is done on the recommendation of—
(A) Finance Ministry
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Reserve Bank of India
(D) NABARD
27. In which one of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh has the Indian Carpet Technology
Institute been established ?
(A) Agra
(B) Mirzapur
(C) Moradabad
(D) Sant Ravi Das Nagar
28. Which of the following Banks is first in establishing its branch in China ?
(A) Bank of Baroda
(B) Punjab National Bank
(C) State Bank of India
(D) UCO Bank
29. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan covers—
(A) all children in the age group 3–10
(B) all children in the age group 4–8
(C) all children in the age group 5–15
(D) all children in the age group 6–14
30. Swavalamban Scheme is concerned with providing—
(A) employment to rural women folk
(B) employment to urban women folk
(C) employment to disabled persons
(D) providing training and skills to women
31. Mixed economy means—
(A) existence of both small and big industries
(B) existence of both private and public sectors
(C) existence of both primary and secondary sectors
(D) none of the above
32. How many IITs will be set up in the 11th Five Year Plan ?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
33. Among the following which country has the highest life expectancy at birth (in years) ?
(A) Japan
(B) Denmark
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Switzerland
34. Match ListI with ListII and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
ListI (Place)
(a) Vishakhapatnam
(b) Muri
(c) Gurgaon
(d) Panki
ListII (Industry)
1. Automobile
2. Shipbuilding
3. Fertiliser
4. Aluminium
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 4 3 1
35. Which among the following is a public sector Commercial Bank ?
(A) ICICI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) Indian Overseas Bank
(D) UTI Bank
36. Match ListI with ListII and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
ListI (Mineral Production)
(a) Mineral Oil
(b) Gypsum
(c) Gold
(d) Bauxite
ListII (State)
1. Orissa
2. Karnataka
3. Gujarat
4. Rajasthan
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 3 4 2 1
37. Consider the following statements—
Assertion (A) : Atomic energy in India promises to meet the future energy demand of the
country.
Reason (R) : Atomic minerals are ubiquitous in India.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
38. Which of the following states has the longest coast line ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Kerala
(D) Tamil Nadu
39. Which of the following rock systems in India is the main source of coal deposits ?
(A) Dharwar system
(B) Gondwana system
(C) Cudappa system
(D) Vindhyan system
40. Laterite soil is found in—
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) Maharashtra
41. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Kirghiz — Central Asia
(B) Masai — West Africa
(C) Red Indians — North America
(D) Eskimos — Greenland
42. Chilka lake is situated in—
(A) West Bengal
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Tamil Nadu
43. Damodar is a tributary of river—
(A) Ganga
(B) Hugli
(C) Padma
(D) Suvarn Rekha
44. Sangam Yojana is concerned with—
(A) provision for clean drinking water
(B) provision for cleaning rivers
(C) promoting communal harmony
(D) helping the invalids
45. National Dairy Development Board is located in—
(A) Anand
(B) Gandhinagar
(C) Vadodara
(D) Valsad
46. Economic Planning is included in the Constitution of India in—
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Special List
47. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Kimberley — Diamond
(B) Havana — Meat packing
(C) Milan — Silk
(D) Sheffield — Cutlery
48. Dudhawa National Park is situated in the district of—
(A) Lalitpur
(B) Pilibhit
(C) Lakhimpur Khiri
(D) Sonbhadra
49. The correct descending order of major states of India in terms of density of population (2001)
is—
(A) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar, Kerala
(B) West Bengal, Kerala, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, West Bengal, Bihar
(D) West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala
50. The major coffee producing state in India is—
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal
51. Which one of the following is the most urbanized states of India according to 2001 Census ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) West Bengal
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Kerala
52. According to 2001 Census the least densely populated states of India in ascending order are—
(A) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Nagaland and Sikkim
(B) Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram and Sikkim
(C) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Sikkim and Nagaland
(D) Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Nagaland
53. Among the following which fruit is a rich source of iron ?
(A) Jamun
(B) Karonda
(C) Loquat
(D) Guava
54. Vitamin which promotes wound healing is—
(A) Vitamin B
(B) Vitamin C
(C) Vitamin A
(D) Vitamin D
55. Bauxite is an ore of—
(A) Aluminium
(B) Boron
(C) Lead
(D) Silver
56. Which of the following methods is used to determine the age of the earth ?
(A) Carbon dating
(B) Germanium dating
(C) Uranium dating
(D) All the above
57. Name the gas which under normal conditions produces pollution in the atmosphere ?
(A) Carbon monoxide (CO)
(B) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
(C) Nitrogen (N2)
(D) Oxygen (O2)
58. Electronvolt is the unit for—
(A) energy
(B) charge of electron
(C) potential difference
(D) power
59. An atom bomb is based on the principle of—
(A) nuclear fission
(B) nuclear fusion
(C) nuclear spallation
(D) none of these
60. Titan is the largest moon or satellite of—
(A) Mars
(B) Venus
(C) Jupiter
(D) Saturn
61. The most toxic metal pollutant of the automobile exhaust is—
(A) Copper
(B) Lead
(C) Cadmium
(D) Mercury
62. Which of the following disease is caused by a virus ?
(A) Diphtheria
(B) Malaria
(C) Cholera
(D) Hepatitis
63. If the circumference of a circle is increased by 50%, then the area will be increased by—
(A) 50%
(B) 100%
(C) 125%
(D) 225%
64. The term ‘Siamese Twins’ is used for—
(A) twins in which there is one male and one female
(B) twins in which both are females
(C) twins suffering from a common disease of siam
(D) twins physically attached to each other
65. Every solar eclipse takes place on—
(A) full moon only
(B) new moon only
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) neither (A) nor (B)
66. The headquarter of which of the following is correctly given ?
(A) UNO — London
(B) WTO — Geneva
(C) ILO — New York
(D) FAO — Chicago
67. White bud of maize is caused due to deficiency of—
(A) N
(B) Zn
(C) Cu
(D) Mn
68. A number is 20 more than its 20%. The number is—
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 50
(D) 80
69. The train which was started on April 14, 2008 between Kolkata (India) and Dhaka (Bangladesh)
has been named—
(A) Sadbhavna Express
(B) Shanti Express
(C) Maitri Express
(D) Aman Express
70. Thailand’s Ponsana Boonsak won the men’s singles of the India open Grand Prix Badminton
championship held in Hyderabad in April 2008. In the final he defeated—
(A) Anand Pawar
(B) Arvind Bhat
(C) Chetan Anand
(D) Zhendong Guo
71. Indian Institute of Remote sensing is located at—
(A) Ahmedabad
(B) Dehradun
(C) Shriharikota
(D) None of the above
72. The winner of the 62nd Santosh Trophy, held in June 2008, was—
(A) Karnataka
(B) West Bengal
(C) Services
(D) Punjab
73. Who among the following was the Chief Guest on the occasion of Republic Day, 2008 ?
(A) British Prime Minister Gardon Brown
(B) French President Nicolas Sarcozy
(C) Danish Prime Minister Anders Fogh Rasmussen
(D) Russian President Vladimir Putin
74. In April 2008 fourth convention of Nuclear safety was held in—
(A) Vienna
(B) London
(C) Paris
(D) Rome
75. Who among the following received Padma Vibhushan Award of 2008 ?
1. Madhuri Dixit
2. Ratan Tata
3. Sachin Tendulkar
4. Viswanathan Anand
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
(A) 1, 2
(B) 2, 3
(C) 3, 4
(D) 2, 3, 4
76. March 24 (2008) was observed as—
(A) World AIDS Day
(B) World Disabled Day
(C) World Environment Day
(D) World Tuberculosis (TB) Day
77. Which one of the following pairs of Harappan sites and their locations is not correctly
matched ?
(A) Alamgirpur — Uttar Pradesh
(B) Banawali — Haryana
(C) Diamabad — Maharashtra
(D) Rakhigarhi — Rajasthan
78. Jivaka, the famous physician of the time of Gautama Buddha, was associated with the court of
(A) Bimbisara
(B) Chanda Pradyota
(C) Prasenajeta
(D) Udayana
79. After President’s signature on the recommendation of Delimitation Commission, Parliamentary
and Assembly Constituencies with certain exemptions, will be redefined. Which of the
following are exempted ?
1. Arunachal Pradesh and Manipur
2. Assam
3. Nagaland
4. Jharkhand
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
80. The winner of French Open, 2008 (Ladies singles) was—
(A) Dinara Safina
(B) Ana Ivanovic
(C) Jelena Jankovic
(D) Svetlana Kuznetsova
81. Who among the following was of the view that the Earth revolves round the Sun ?
(A) Aryabhatta
(B) Brahmagupta
(C) Varahamihira
(D) None of the above
82. What is the difference (in years) between the Vikrama and Saka eras ?
(A) 57 years
(B) 78 years
(C) 135 years
(D) 320 years
83. Who among the following rulers paid attention to the water resource management in Girnar
region some centuries before the Christian era ?
1. Mahapadma Nanda
2. Chandragupta Maurya
3. Ashoka
4. Rudradaman
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
(A) 1, 2
(B) 2, 3
(C) 3, 4
(D) 2, 3, 4
84. Ptolemy Philadelphus with whom Ashoka had diplomatic relations was the ruler of—
(A) Cyrene
(B) Egypt
(C) Macedonia
(D) Syria
85. The inscription belonging to which one of the following dynasties confirms the tradition that
Lumbini was the birth place of Sakyamuni Buddha ?
(A) Maurya
(B) Sunga
(C) Satavahana
(D) Kushana
86. Which literature had its classical age under Krishnadeva Raya, the famous Vijayanagara king ?
(A) Konkani
(B) Malayalam
(C) Tamil
(D) Telugu
87. The city of Jaunpur was founded by—
(A) MohammadbinTughlaq
(B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(C) Ibrahim Shah Sharqi
(D) Sikandar Lodi
88. The department of Public Works was established for the first time by—
(A) Alauddin Khalji
(B) Balban
(C) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(D) Iltutmish
89. . Who were the ‘Nayanars’ ?
(A) Saivites
(B) Saktas
(C) Vaishnavites
(D) Sun worshippers
90. Who among the following kings had strong leaning towards Jainism ?
(A) Dasratha
(B) Brihadratha
(C) Kharavela
(D) Huvishka
91. Which one of the following rulers had granted Diwani to the East India Company ?
(A) Farrukhsiyar
(B) Shah AlamI
(C) Shah AlamII
(D) Shujaud Daula
92. The transfer of capital of British India from Calcutta to Delhi was effected during the period of
(A) Lord Minto
(B) Lord Hardinge
(C) Lord Chelmsford
(D) Lord Reading
93. The Durand line demarcated India’s border with—
(A) Afghanistan
(B) Burma
(C) Nepal
(D) Tibet
94. What was the rate of exchange between the Copper Dam and Silver Rupaya under Sher Shah ?
(A) 16 : 1
(B) 32 : 1
(C) 40 : 1
(D) 64 : 1
95. Arrange the following events of Akbar’s reign in a chronological order :
1. Abolition of Jazia
2. Construction of Ibadatkhana
3. Signing of Mahzar
4. Foundation of DiniIlahi
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 2, 3, 4, 1
(C) 1, 3, 2, 4
(D) 3, 4, 1, 2
96. After the arrest of Gandhiji during the Salt Satyagraha, who took his place as leader of the
movement ?
(A) Abbas Tyabji
(B) Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Vallabhbhai Patel
97. Which one of the following revolutionaries involved in Kakori case had escaped the trial ?
(A) Sachindra Nath Bakshi
(B) Mukundi Lal
(C) Chandra Shekhar Azad
(D) Manmath Nath Gupta
98. Who changed the name of Hindustan Republic Association founded by Sachindra Sanyal to
‘Hindustan Socialist Republic Association’ ?
(A) Ras Behari Bose
(B) Batukeshwar Datt
(C) Sardar Bhagat Singh
(D) Chandra Shekhar Azad
99. Which one of the following revolutionaries was executed in the Gorakhpur Jail ?
(A) Ramprasad Bismil
(B) Rajendra Lahiri
(C) Roshan Singh
(D) Ashfaqullah Khan
100.Whose sustained efforts led to the establishment of the first women’s university in Bombay ?
(A) Dayaram Gidumal
(B) D. K. Karve
(C) Ramabai
(D) Mahadev Govind Ranade
ANSWERS:
1. (A) 41. (B) 81. (A)
2. (C) 42. (C) 82. (C)
3. (D) 43. (B) 83. (D)
4. (A) 44. (D) 84. (B)
5. (C) 45. (A) 85. (A)
6. (A) 46. (C) 86. (D)
7. (D) 47. (C) 87. (B)
8. (D) 48. (C) 88. (C)
9. (D) 49. (B) 89. (A)
10. (C) 50. (B) 90. (C)
11. (D) 51. (C) 91. (C)
12. (C) 52. (C) 92. (B)
13. (C) 53. (A) 93. (A)
14. (C) 54. (C) 94. (C)
15. (C) 55. (A) 95. (A)
16. (D) 56. (C) 96. (A)
17. (B) 57. (A) 97. (A)
18. (B) 58. (A) 98. (C)
19. (B) 59. (A) 99. (A)
20. (C) 60. (D) 100.(B)
21. (A) 61. (B)
22. (B) 62. (D)
23. (C) 63. (D)
24. (C) 64. (D)
25. (C) 65. (B)
26. (B) 66. (B)
27. (D) 67. (B)
28. (C) 68. (B)
29. (D) 69. (C)
30. (D) 70. (C)
31. (B) 71. (D)
32. (C) 72. (D)
33. (A) 73. (B)
34. (B) 74. (A)
35. (C) 75. (B)
36. (D) 76. (D)
37. (C) 77. (D)
38. (A) 78. (A)
39. (B) 79. (D)
40. (D) 80. (B)
EMPLOYMENT NOTICE FOR FILLING UP OF EX-SERVICEMEN QUOTA
EMPLOYMENT NOTICE FOR FILLING UP OF EX-SERVICEMEN QUOTA
Applications are invited from Indian National Ex-Servicemen who fulfill the eligibility criteria mentioned below for filling up the following posts in Pay Band-1 of Rs. 5200-20200/- with Grade Pay of Rs. 1800/- ( erstwhile Group ‘D’ posts ) in Western Railway.
- Trackman/Gangman: 631 Posts
- Helper – II / Khalasi: 266 Posts
- Department: Engineering, Stores , Mechanical, Electrical, Signal & Telecom.
- Platform Porter: 65 Posts
- Department: Traffic
- Eligibility Criteria:- Ex-Servicemen who have retired after putting in 15 years of service and have passed Army Class-I certificate or equivalent are eligible to apply.
- Age Limit (As on 01-01-2011) UR : 18 to 33 years, OBC :18 to 36 years, SC/ST :18 to 38 years
- The last date of receipt of applications is up to 18.00 hrs of 27/12/2010
For full details please visit the link below:
http://203.176.113.182/WR/Recruitment/recruitment_defence.pdf
Tuesday, December 14, 2010
Sunday, December 5, 2010
RRB Allahabad ASM Exam Solved paper
1. Bees and houseflies are related to the group
(1) Insect
(2) Worm
(3) Animal
(4) None of these
Ans. (1)
2. Choose the odd one in the following.
(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 9
Ans. (4)
3. The first grand slam tennis tournament of the year is
(1) Wimbledon Open
(2) US Open
(3) French Open
(4) Australian Open
Ans. (4)
4. At Kelvin scale, the normal temperature of human body is
(1) 290
(2) 310
(3) 300
(4) 30
Ans. (2)
5. The monopolistic rule of East India Company was brought under the direct control of British Empire in
(1) 1793
(2) 1784
(3) 1773
(4) 1781
Ans. (4)
6. Which type of economy exists in India?
(1) Socialist
(2) Mixed
(3) Capitalist
(4) Rural
Ans. (2)
7. National Stock Exchange is located in
(1) Mumbai
(2) Kolkata
(3) Chennai
(4) New Delhi
Ans. (1)
8. Which of the following pollutes the air of big cities?
(1) Copper
(2) Lead
(3) Chromium
(4) Copper Oxide
Ans. (2)
9. What is Zero Hour?
(1) When the Parliament discusses the proposals of the Opposition
(2) Time of recess
(3) When the Parliament discusses important issues
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
10. The session of Parliament is called ? (minimum) in a year.
(1) Twice
(2) Four times
(3) Six times
(4) Thrice
Ans. (1)
11. Golda Meir was the woman Prime Minister of
(1) England
(2) France
(3) Sri Lanka
(4) Israel
Ans. (4)
12. How many members are nominated by the President for the Council of States?
(1) 10
(2) 11
(3) 15
(4) 12
Ans. (4)
13. Magellan Strait is located between/at
(1) Pacific and South Atlantic Oceans
(2) The south end of Africa
(3) China and Japan
(4) The south end of South America.
Ans. (1)
14. Who was the founder of the Satya Shodhak Samaj?
(1) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(2) Sri Narayan Guru
(3) Jyotirao Phule
(4) Ishwarchand Vidyasagar
Ans. (3)
15. Which of the following does not touch the boundary of Myanmar?
(1) Mizoram
(2) Manipur
(3) Nagaland
(4) Tripura
Ans. (4)
16. Which of the following rivers does not fall into Bay of Bengal?
(1) Mahanadi
(2) Tapti
(3) Godavari
(4) Krishna
Ans. (2)
17. Pitty and organic soils are found in
(1) Kerala
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Andhra Pradesh
(4) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (4)
18. The highest peak of south India is
(1) Anaimudi
(2) Doda Beta
(3) Arnarkantak
(4) Mahendra Gin
Ans. (2)
19. If the length of a simple pendulum is doubled, its time period will
(1) increase
(2) decrease
(3) remain constant
(4) None of these
Ans. (1)
20. Which of the following reacts sharply with oxygen?
(1) AI
(2) Cu
(3) Fe
(4) Zn
Ans. (3)
21. For the implantation of ovum in the ovaries, the hormone produced is
(1) oxytocin
(2) prolactin
(3) progesterone
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
22. In human body the ratio of red blood corpuscles and white blood corpuscles is
(1) 300: 1
(2) 400: 1
(3) 500: 1
(4) 600: 1
Ans. (4)
23. One of the digestive juices that lack enzymes but aids digestion is
(1) bile
(2) succus entèricus
(3) chyme
(4) chyle
Ans. (1)
24. Which of the following planets has been named after the Roman goddess of love?
(1) Mars
(2) Jupiter
(3) Saturn
(4) Venus
Ans. (4)
25. The Swine Flu virus is denoted by
(1) H
(2) N
(3) H1N1
(4) H
Ans. (3)
26. Parliamentary elections in India were not held in
(1) 1996
(2) 1997
(3) 1998
(4) 1999
Ans. (2)
27. Ghumar is a folk dance of
(1) Jammu and Kashmir
(2) Punjab
(3) Himachal Pradesh
(4) Rajasthan
Ans. (4)
28. National Metallurgical laboratory is located in
(1) Jamshedpur
(2)Bhilai
(3) Durgapur
(4) Rourkela
Ans. (1)
29. The language of the Union Territory of Lakshadwip is
(1) Tamil
(2) Hindi
(3) Malayalam
(4) Telugu
Ans. (3)
30. Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award 2004 was given to
(1) P.T. Usha
(2) Sania Mirza
(3) Rajya Vardhan Rathore
(4) Anju Bobby George
Ans. (3)
31. Echo is heard when the reflecting surface is
(1) of less volume
(2) of large area
(3) of less area
(4) of large volume
Ans. (2)
32. The substance coated on plastic tape recorder tapes is
(1) zinc oxide
(2) magnesium oxide
(3) iron sulphate
(4) iron oxide
Ans. (4)
33. Dronacharya Award is presented to a
(1) Sports coach
(2) Chess champion
(3) Hockey player
(4) Cricket player
Ans. (1)
34. ‘A Bond with the Mountains’ is a collection of short stories by
(1) Khushwant Singh
(2) Ruskin Bond
(3) Graham Greene
(4) R.K. Narayan
Ans. (2)
35. Which country patented its famous automatic rifle Kalashnikov?
(1) Russia
(2) China
(3) Afghanistan
(4) Spain
Ans. (1)
36. How many sovereign countries are members of the United Nations?
(1) 180
(2) 193
(3) 185
(4) 183
Ans. (2)
37. Who received one of Pakistan’s highest civilian award Nishan-e Imtiaz for his extraordinary contribution in the field of art?
(1) Amitabh Bachchan
(2) Nasiruddin Shah
(3) M.F. Hussain
(4) Dilip Kumar
Ans. (4)
38. The book ‘The Insider” is written by
(1) P.V. Narasimha Rao
(2) Shobha De
(3) Vikram Chandra
(4) Khushwant Singh
Ans. (1)
39. Which of the following is not related to vitamin ‘B’ complex group?
(1) Thiamin
(2) Retinol
(3) Folic acid
(4) Riboflavin
Ans. (2)
40. Bhatnagar Award is given for significant contribution in the field of
(1) Economics
(2) Agriculture
(3) Literature
(4) Science and Technology
Ans. (4)
41. Prambikulam Dam has been an issue of dispute between
(1) Karnataka and Kerala
(2) Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
(3) Tamil Nadu and Kerala
(4) Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
Ans. (3)
42. India’s maximum tax revenue comes from
(1) Corporation tax
(2) Income tax
(3) Excise tax
(4) Customs duty
Ans. (3)
43. Thomas Cup is associated with
(1) Badminton
(2) Billiards
(3) Lawn Tennis
(4) Table Tennis
Ans. (1)
44. Who wrote the book, Never Gandhi Not Again?
(1) R.K. Narayan
(2) Omesh Saigal
(3) Arun Shourie
(4) Narsimha Rao
Ans. (2)
45. The cost price of 18 articles is equal to the selling price of 15 articles.
The gain per cent is:
(1) 15%
(2) 20%
(3) 25%
(4) 18%
Ans. (2)
46. 12 copies of a book were sold for Rs. 1800, thereby gaining the cost price of 3 copies. The cost price of a copy is
(1) Rs. 120
(2) Rs. 150
(3) Rs. 1200
(4) Rs. 1500
Ans. (1)
47. A sum of money was invested at a certain rate for 2 years. Had it been invested at 3% higher rate of interest, it would have fetched Rs. 450 more. The sum invested was:
(1) Rs. 7500
(2) Rs. 600
(3) Rs. 5000
(4) Rs. 4500
Ans. (1)
48. A sum of money put out at com pound interest amounts to Rs. 16900 in 2 years and to Rs. 17576 in 3 years. Find the rate of interest per annum.
(1) 4%
(2) 5%
(3) 10%
(4) 6%
Ans. (1)
49. On what sum of money will the compound interest for 3 years at 5% per annum amount to Rs. 630.50?
(1) Rs.1200
(2) Rs. 1261
(3) Rs. 4000
(4) Rs. 3000
Ans. (3)
50. A sum of Rs. 625 is made up of 80 currency notes which are of either Rs. 10 or Rs. 5 denomination. The numbers of Rs.10 notes are
(1) 35
(2) 45
(3) 40
(4) 30
Ans. (2)
51. A certain job was assigned to a group of men to do in 20 days. But 12 men did not turn up for the job and the remaining men did the job in 32 days. The original number of men in the group was
(1) 32
(2) 34
(3) 36
(4) 40
Ans. (1)
52. A certain number of men can do a work in 60 days. If there were 8 men more it could be finished in 10 days less. How many men were there in the beginning?
(1) 40
(2) 35
(3) 45
(4) 50
Ans. (1)
53. 12 men and 18 boys’ working 7& 1/2 hours a day can do a certain work in 60 days. If one man works equal to 2 boys, then the number of boys required to help 21 men to do twice the work in 50 days, working 9 hours a day, will be
(1) 30
(2) 42
(3) 48
(4) 90
Ans. (2)
54. The average expenditure of a man for the first five months is Rs. 1200 and for the next seven months is Rs. 1300. Find his monthly average income if he saves Rs. 2900 during the year?
(1) Rs. 1500
(2) Rs, 1475
(3) Rs. 1450
(4) Rs. 1425
Ans. (1)
55. The average temperature for Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday was 40°C.The average for Tuesday. Wednesday and Thurs day was 41°C. If on Thursday temperature is 45°C, what was it on Monday?
(1) 40°C
(2) 41°C
(3) 42°C
(4) 43.5°C
Ans. (3)
56. Of the three numbers, second is twice the first and is also thrice the third. If the average of the three numbers is 44, the largest number is:
(1) 24
(2) 72
(3) 36
(4) 108
Ans. (2)
57. Of the three numbers whose average is 60, the first is one fourth of the sum of the others. The first number is:
(1) 30
(2) 36
(3) 42
(4) 45
Ans. (2)
58. The average age of a family of 5 members is 24 years. If the age of youngest member be 6 years, find the average age of the family at the birth of the youngest member.
(1) 23 ½ years
(2) 20 years
(3) 22 ½ years
(4) 18 years
Ans. (4)
59. 9 men went to a hotel. 8 of them spent Rs. 30 each over their meals and the 9th spent Rs. 20 more than the average expenditure of all the nine. The total money spent by them is:
(1) Rs. 292.50
(2) Rs. 272.50
(3) Rs. 312.50
(4) Rs. 325.50
Ans. (1)
60. In a cricket team of eleven players, one player weighing 42 kg. is injured and his plate is taken by another player. If the average weight of the team is increased by 100 grams as a result of this, then the weight of the new player is
(1) 43.1 kg.
(2) 43.01 kg.
(3) 43.50 kg.
(4) 42.9 kg.
Ans. (1)
61. The average age of 8 persons in a committee is increased by 2 years when two men whose ages are 35 years and 45 years are replaced by two women. The average age of two women is (in years)
(1) 40
(2) 42
(3) 48
(4) 45
Ans. (3)
62. One-fourth of a certain journey was covered at an average speed of 45 km/hour, one third at the speed of 48 km/hour and the remaining journey at the speed of 50 km/hour. The average speed of the whole journey in km/hour is:
(1) 54
(2) 51
(3) 48
(4) 46
Ans. (3)
63. Visitors to a show were charged Rs. 150.00 each on the first day, Rs. 75.00 on the second day and Rs. 25.00 on the third day and the total attendance on the three days were in the ratio 2 : 5.: 13. The average charge per person for the whole show is:
(1) Rs. 75.00
(2) Rs. 60.00
(3) Rs. 50.00
(4) Rs. 55.00
Ans. (3)
64. Preeti has a son, named Arun. Ram is Preeti’s brother. Neeta too has a daughter named Reema. Neeta is Ram’s sister. What is Arun’s relationship to Reema?
(1) Brother
(2) Nephew
(3) Cousin
(4) Uncle
Ans. (3)
65. Pointing to a woman a man said, “Her mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the man related to the woman?
(1) Father
(2) Brother
(3) Paternal Uncle
(4) Maternal Uncle
Ans. (4)
66. A is the father of X. B is the mother of Y. The sister of X and Z is Y. Which of the following statements is not true?
(1) B is the wife of A
(2) B has one daughter
(3) Y is the son of A
(4) X is the sister of Z
Ans. (3)
67. X told Y, “It is true that I am your real brother, but you are not my sister”. How would Y be possibly related to X?
(1) Cousin
(2) Friend
(3) Brother
(4) Cannot be determined
Ans. (3)
68. From the given choices, e1ect the one which can be formed by using the letters of the given word:
TRANSFORMATION
(1) TRANSACTION
(2) TRANSFER
(3) INFORMANT
(4) INFORMER
Ans. (3)
69. From the given choices, select the one which can be formed by using the letters of the given word:
MEASUREMENT
(1) MASTER
(2) SUMMIT
(3) MANTLE
(4) ASSURE
Ans. (1)
70. A pipe of diameter‘d’ can drain a certain water tank in 40 minutes. The time taken by a pipe of diameter ‘2d’ for doing the same job is:
(1) 50 mm.
(2) 10 mm.
(3) 20mm
(4) 80mm.
Ans. (2)
Directions (71 – 75): In each of the following questions, find the next term to fill the blank space.
71. 20, 32, 45, 59, 74?
(1)95
(2)90
(3) 85
(4) 79
Ans. (1)
72. 210, 195, 175, 150, 120?
(1) 75
(2) 80
(3) 85
(4) 90
Ans. (3)
73. 3, 5, 10, 12, 24, 26?
(1) 52
(2) 30
(3) 28
(4) 48
Ans. (1)
74. 3, 8, 15, 24, 35?
(1) 42
(2) 48
(3) 49
(4) 53
Ans. (2)
75. 5, 16, 49, 148?
(l) 440
(2) 441
(3) 443
(4) 445
Ans. (4)
RRB Gorakhpur Assistant Station master Exam previous paper
Directions (1—5): Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the keyword.
1. CHIDE
(1) Praise
(2) Affirm
(3) Halter
(4) Negate
Ans. (1)
2. ENDEARING
(1) Long
(2) Odious
(3) Unfriendly
(4) Irritating
Ans. (2)
3. BOISTEROUS
(1) Huge
(2) Small
(3) Quiet
(4) Calm
Ans. (4)
4. BESTOW
(1) Given
(2) Bad
(3) Accept
(4) Take away
Ans. (4)
5. PERENNIAL
(1) Belonging to oneself
(2) Tempting
(3) Occasional
(4) Perishable
Ans. (4)
Directions (6 — 10): Fill in the blanks with the appropriate word.
6. Fate smiled him ? in all his ventures.
(1) upon
(2) in
(3) to
(4) on
Ans. (4)
7. It is difficult for me to part ? my belongings.
(1) from
(2) with
(3) in
(4) of
Ans. (2)
8. You cannot deprive him ? his right.
(1) upon
(2) with
(3) from
(4) of
Ans. (4)
9. Hard work has taken toll ? his health.
(1) upon
(2) with
(3) of
(4) on
Ans. (4)
10. We must always try to live life ? dignity.
(1) with
(2) by
(3) in
(4) of
Ans. (1)
11. The blood pressure of a normal person is:
(1) 100/80
(2) 100/90
(3) 80/120
(4) 90/100
Ans. (3)
12. Colour blindness is related to
(1) heredity
(2) blood pressure
(3) digestive system
(4) respiratory system
Ans. (1)
13. In simple harmonic motion, what remains constant?
(1) Amplitude
(2) Angular displacement
(3) Time period
(4) Kinetic energy
Ans. (3)
14. When a glass rod is rubbed by a silken cloth, the rod acquires
(1) positive charge
(2) negative charge
(3) positive & negative charge both
(4) None of these
Ans. (1)
15. The velocity of sound does not depend on
(1) temperature
(2) medium
(3) pressure
(4) humidity
Ans. (3)
16. The ultrasonic sound can be heard by
(1) dogs
(2) men
(3) microphone
(4) None of these
Ans. (4)
17. Which of the following is not a hormone?
(1) Insulin
(2) Adrenalin
(3) Thyroxin
(4) Hemoglobin
Ans. (4)
18. The longest among the following dams is
(1) Mathon dam
(2) Bhakhara Nangal
(3) Hirakud
(4) Nagarjun Sagar
Ans. (3)
19 Milind Panho is a
(1) drama in Sanskrit
(2) Jam description
(3) Pali treatise
(4) Persian treatise
Ans. (3)
20. Which of the following invented Algebra?
(1) Meghatithi
(2) Bhaskar
(3) Apastamb
(4) Aryabhatta
Ans. (2)
21. A mega city has a minimum population of:
(1) 10 lakhs
(2) 20 lakhs
(3) 50 lakhs
(4) 1 crore
Ans. (4)
22. The language of Chola rulers was:
(1) Sanskrit
(2) Kannada
(3) Tamil
(4) Telugu
Ans. (3)
23. Gandhiji started march to Dandi from:
(1) Dandi
(2) Sabarmati Ashram
(3) Gujarat
(4) Champaran
Ans. (2)
24. Which of the following rivers pass through valley?
(1) Godavari
(2) Narmada
(3) Krishna
(4) Mahanadi
Ans. (2)
25. The sex ratio is
(1) Kerala
(2) West Bengal
(3) Uttar Pradesh
(4) Mizoram
Ans. (1)
26. The post of collector in India was created in:
(1) 1772
(2) 1779
(3) 1792
(4) 1882
Ans. (1)
27. Who defeated the Marathas in the third battle of Panipat?
(1) Afghans
(2) Mughals
(3) English
(4) French
Ans. (1)
28. The people of Indus Valley civilization worshipped:
(1) Brahma
(2) Vishnu
(3) Pashupati
(4) Indra and Varun
Ans. (3)
29. Ashoka was related to:
(1) Haryak dynasty
(2) Mauryan dynasty
(3) Gupta dynasty
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)
30. The number of Puranas is
(1) 18
(2) 21
(3) 23
(4) 16
Ans. (1)
31. The first animal domesticated by Neolithic people was:
(1) Sheep
(2) Goat
(3) Dog
(4) Horse
Ans. (3)
32. In the Vedic age:
(1) Polygamy was unknown
(2) Child marriage was prominent
(3) Widow could remarry
(4) Hypergamy was allowed
Ans. (3)
33. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(1) Namdeva – Maharashtra
(2) Chaitanya – Bengal
(3) Narsimha Mehta – Gujarat
(4) Vallabhacharya – Gujarat
Ans. (4)
34. Name the Persian version of the Mahabharata, translated during Akbar’s reign
(1) Akbar Namah
(2) Iqbal Namah
(3) Saminatu-ul-Aluliy
(4) Razmbamah
Ans. (4)
35. The Marathas were defeated in the Anglo-Maratha wars due to:
(1) Lack of capable leadership
(2) Military weaknesses
(3) Failure in estimating correctly the strength of the British
(4) All the above
Ans. (4)
36. Which of the following Acts delegated the power of framing laws to the Council of the Governor General?
(1) Charter Act — 1833
(2) Charter Act — 1853
(3 The Government of India Act —1919
(4) The Government of India Act —1935
Ans. (1)
37. Who was the founder of Darpan?
(1) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(2) Sachindranath Sanyal
(3) Bal Shastri Jambekar
(4) Jyotiba Phule
Ans. (3)
38. The single biggest item of British capital investment in India was/were
(1) Railways
(2) Plantation and Mines
(3) Banking and Insurance
(4) All the above
Ans. (1)
39. The first weekly paper published by the Indian National Congress’ in 1889, was:
(1) Young India
(2) India
(3) Indian People
(4) Voice of India
Ans. (1)
40. Lala Lajpat Rai suffered fatal injuries during the demonstration against the:
(1) Cripps Mission
(2) Simon Commission
(3) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(4) Rowlatt Act
Ans. (2)
41. The only annual session of the Congress presided over by Gandhiji was:
(1) Kakinada — 1923
(2) Belgaum — 1924
(3) Kanpur — 1925
(4) Guwahati ? 1926
Ans. (2)
42. Habeas Corpus means:
(1) An order front a court to free a ‘person who has been illegally detained by the police or any other person
(2) An order from a superior court calling up the record of a proceeding in an inferior court for review
(3) An order from the superior court to an official to show his right to the office
(4) An order from the higher court to stop proceeding in a certain case
Ans. (1)
43. Mixed economy envisages:
(1) co-existence of capitalists and labourers
(2) integrated economic development
(3) development of agriculture and industry simultaneously
(4) private and public sectors
Ans. (4)
44. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(1) Bombay Stock Exchange ? SENSEX
(2) National Stock Exchange ?NYSE
(3) New York Stock Exchange ?NIFTY
(4) London Stock Exchange ? NIKKEI
Ans. (1)
45.The important objectives of the development of cooperative sector are:
(1) Prevention of concentration of economic power
(2) Wider dispersal of ownership of productive resources
(3) Active involvement of people in the development programmes
(4) All the above
Ans. (4)
46. Securities & Exchange Board of India {SEBI) was established in
(1) 1981
(2) 1988
(3) 1990
(4) 1992
Ans. (2)
47. Subsidies means:
(1) payment by Government for purchase of goods and services
(2) payment by business enterprises to factors of production
(3) payment by companies to share holders
(4) payment by Government to business enterprise without buying any good and services
Ans. (1)
48. Which one ‘of the following will directly increase the GNP?
(1) an increase in investment
(2) a surplus in budget
(3) a fall in national debt
(4) a rise in the interest rate
Ans. (1)
49. Who wrote a book describing the theory of economic drain of In dia during British Rule?
(1) Dadabhai Naoroji
(2) Lala Lajpat Rai
(3) Mahatma Gandhi
(4) J. L. Nehru
Ans. (1)
50. As per 2001 Census, the state having highest urban population is:
(1) Uttar Pradesh
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Tamil Nadu
(4) Kerala
Ans. (2)
51. How would you describe the Indian Constitution?
(1) Medium in size
(2) Very small and compact
(3) One of the most elaborate Constitutions in the world
(4) It is not a written Constitution
Ans. (3)
52. Who is competent to amend the fundamental rights?
(1) President
(2) Lok Sabha
(3) Supreme Court
(4) Parliament
Ans. (4)
53. Name the canal that joins the Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sea:
(1) Kiel Canal
(2) Panama
(3) Suez Canal
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
54. Amongst the following Indian states which one has the minimum total forest cover?
(1) Sikkim
(2) Goa
(3) Haryana
(4) Kerala
Ans. (3)
55. Which one among the following languages has largest nUmber of speakers in the world?
(1) Bengali
(2) French
(3) Japanese
(4) Portuguese
Ans. (4)
56.The great Asian river Mekong does not run through.:
(1) China
(2) Malaysia
(3) Cambodia
(4) Laos
Ans. (2)
57. In March-April, 2009 India defeated New Zealand in test cricket match series. This victory came after how many years?
(1) 49 years
(2) 47 years
(3) 46 years
(4) None of these
Ans. (4)
58. Who among the following is the winner of Miss India World Wide 2009?
(1) Nikkitasha Marhawa
(2) Kanchan Verma
(3) Shagun Sarabhai
(4) None of these
Ans. (4)
59. 8th March is celebrated as:
(1) International Women’s Day
(2) International Literacy Day
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these
Ans. (1)
60. In IPL version of cricket, the Australian Shane Warne was the captain of which team?
(1) Chennai Super King
(2) Rajasthan Royals
(3) Deccan Chargers
(4) Knight Riders
Ans. (2)
61. In Lok Sabha the number of seats is:
(1) 545
(2) 542
(3) 549
(4) 544
Ans. (1)
62. Who is benefited from inflation?
(1) Creditor
(2) Debtor
(3) Banks
(4) Citizens
Ans. (2)
63.Jyoti Randhawa is associated to which sport?
(1) Golf
(2) Badminton
(3) Wrestling
(4) Tennis
Ans. (1)
64. Who is the writer of book Conquest of Self?
(1) Mahatma Gandhi
(2) J. L. Nehru
(3) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(4) J.C. Bose
Ans. (1)
65. When is the World Environment Day observed?
(1) 6thJune
(2) 4th June
(3) 5th June
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
66. Chandrayaan -I, Indian Moon Mission, was launched on:
(1) 22 October, 2008
(2) 21 October, 2008
(3) 22 September, 2008
(4) 22 November, 2008
Ans. (1)
67. Who among the following controls/supervises the Consolidated Fund of India?
(1) Indian Finance Minister
(2) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(3) Parliament
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)
68. Who has defined the office of profit?
(1) Parliament
(2) Supreme Court
(3) Council of ministers
(4) Constitution
Ans. (4)
69. Which of the following is not a Constitutional arrangement?
(1) Finance Commission
(2) Planning Commission
(3) Election Commission
(4) Union Public Service Corn mission
Ans. (2)
70. Partition of Bengal was done during the period of:.
(1) Lord Curzon
(2) Lord Clive
(3) Lord Cornwallis
(4) Lord Dalhousie
Ans. (1)
71. (7857 + 3596 + 4123) ÷ 96 =?
(1) 155.06
(2) 162.25
(3) 151.83
(4) 165.70
Ans. (2)
72: 741560 + 935416 + 1143 +17364=?
(1) 1694583
(2) 1695438
(3) 1695483
(4) 1659483
Ans. (3)
73. 36% of 4800 x 0.2% of 1320=?
(1) 4535.52
(2) 4551.36
(3) 4561,92
(4) 4572.48
Ans. (3)
74. Raman’s salary is decreased by 10%. By what per cent his decreased salary be raised to have the original salary?
(1) 10%
(2) 11%
(3) 11.11 %
(4) 12%
Ans. (3)
75. To get 35% of a number, the number should be multiplied by
(1) 7/ 20
(2) 3.5
(3)√7/20
(4) 5
Ans. (1)
76. The number whose 20% is 10, is
(1) 30
(2) 40
(3) 50
(4) 70
Ans. (3)
77. A sum in 20 years at a certain rate of simple interest. In how many years will it be four times of itself?
(1) 40 years
(2) 50 years
(3) 60 years
(4) 80 years
Ans. (3)
78. The sum of two numbers is 100 and their difference is 50. The ratio of these numbers is
(1) 2:1
(2) 3:1
(3) 4:1
(4) 5:1
Ans. (2)
79. The population of a town increases at 10% per annum. If the present population is 160000, what will be the population after 4 years?
(1) 1,94,481
(2) 1,78,641
(3) 1,92,000
(4) 1,65,000
Ans. (1)
80. The ratio of the volumes of two cubes is 1: 27. The ratio of their surface areas will be
(1) 1:3
(2) 1:6
(3) 1:9
(4) 1:18
Ans. (3)
81. The simple interest on a certain sum at the rate of4% per an num in 4 years Is Rs. 80 more than the simple interest on the same sum at 5% per annum af ter 3 years. The sum is
(1) Rs. 7000
(2) Rs. 7,500
(3) Rs. 8000
(4) R 8,500
Ans. (3)
82. At what rate of compound interest a sum will be 25/ 16times of itself in 2 years?
(1) 16%
(2) 18%
(3) 20%
(4) 25%
Ans. (4)
83. In an examination, a student gets 20% of total marks and fails by 30 marks. Another student gets 32% of total marks which is more than the minimum pass marks by 42 marks. The pass percentage is
(1) 24%
(2) 25%
(3) 26%
(4) 28%
Ans. (2)
84. A particle is thrown upwards at the velocity of 39.2 m/sec. Time to reach the highest point is
(1) 3 seconds
(2) 4 seconds
(3) 3.75 seconds
(4) 4.75 seconds
Ans. (2)
85. If the interest is compounded annually and the compound interest after 3 years at 10% per annum on a sum is Rs. 331, the principal is
(1) Rs. 900
(2)Rs. 1000
(3) Rs. 1050
(4) Rs. 1100
Ans. (2)
86. A shopkeeper earns 20%, by allowing a discount of 10% on the marked price of an article. An article is marked at Rs. 280, its actual price is
(1) Rs. 195
(2) Rs, 200
(3) Rs. 225
(4) Rs. 215
Ans. (2)
87. Ram bought 1600 eggs at the rate of Rs. 3.75 per dozen. He sold 900 of them at 2 eggs for Re 1 and the remaining at 5 eggs for Rs. 2. Find his loss or gain per cent.
(1) 40%
(2) 45%
(3) 42%
(4) 46%
Ans. (4)
88. In an election a candidate gets 40% of votes polled and is defeated by the winning candidate by 298 votes. Find the total number, of votes polled.
(1) 1360
(2) 1490
(3) 1520
(4) 1602
Ans. (2)
89. Two numbers are less than the third number by 30% and 37% respectively. By what percent is the second number less than the first number?
(1) 15%
(2) 10%
(3) 25%
(4) 20%
Ans. (2)
90. A man goes from A to B at the speed of 5 kmph and returns from B to A at 4 kmph. His average speed during the whole journey is
(1) 35/9 Kmph
(2) 40/9 Kmph
(3) 46/9 Kmph
(4) 50 /9Kmph
Ans. (2)
Thursday, December 2, 2010
Wednesday, December 1, 2010
PSYCHOLOGICAL TESTS FOR SELECTION ON INDIAN RAILWAYS
What sort of tests will you have to do?
The Psychological tests have been designed for various categories of job in critical safety categories, viz., Assistant Station Master, Assistant Drivers and Motorman. You will be given the test battery prescribed for the job you have applied for .
How can they help us?
We get the right sort of people to do the job.
People who do well on the test usually do well in the job itself.
Tests give us real measures of your strengths and limitations.
Why do we use tests?
Tests are often used by employers when people apply for jobs.
The test help the employer decide if someone has the abilities and personality traits needed to do the job.
This Site is designed to help you prepare to for the tests that we use.
How can tests help you?
They will help you to show where your strengths lie.
They have been chosen because the skills they involve are used in the job.
The tests are carefully designed so that they are fair to all applicants.
Taking tests will help you in adjusting on the job.
CATEGORIES FOR WHICH PSYCHOLOGICAL TESTS ARE PRESCRIBED
At present Psychological Tests are applicable at the time of Direct Recruitment to following three categories –
Assistant Station Master
Assistant Loco Pilot
Motorman
Generally the tests are administered in small groups where candidates have to write answers to questions given in test booklets on Optical Mark Reader Answer Sheets. However, in some cases equipment based test can also be used.
THE TYPES OF TESTS USED ON INDIAN RAILWAYS
Note: The examples of the tests shown here are only indicative. These may changed any time without any prior notice
.
Test for measuring your Intelligence
In this test each problem consists of five figures, four of which are similar in a certain way. You are required to find out the one which is different from other four.
In the example given above you will note that figure No.4 is different from the other figures as the 2 circles do not touch each other.
Test for measuring your Depth Perception
In this test you will see a pile of bricks with some bricks numbered A, B, C, etc. Your task is to count the number of bricks that are touching bricks of the pile that has a letter on it. All bricks are of same size and shape.
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For example, in the pile above the brick with an ‘A’ on it touches two other bricks, viz., ‘D’ and E. Brick B, C and D touch 3, 3 and 4 bricks respectively.
THE TYPES OF TESTS USED ON INDIAN RAILWAYS
Test for measuring your Concentration
This is a test to find out how quickly you can compare two numbers and decide whether or not they are the same. If the numbers are the same, darken the circle ‘Y’ otherwise darken ‘N’ on your answer sheet. Do not make any marks on the booklet. Try to solve following practice problems.
1. 589 = 589
2. 2768 = 2786
3. 36463 = 36462
4. 712963 = 712963
5. 487562 = 487652
The answer for above questions are ‘Y’, ‘N’, ‘N’, ‘Y’ and ‘N’ respectively.
Test for measuring your Perceptual Speed
This is a test of how rapidly and accurately you can see objects in order to match them. Look at the first radio at the left. Which one of the five at the right is most nearly like it? Radio ‘B’ is the one.
Look at the second radio at the left. Which radio at the right is most nearly like it? Radio ‘C’ is the correct answer.
Now find the radios most nearly matching the third and fourth ones at the left. You will find that the correct answer of radio No.3 is ‘A’ and that fourth is ‘D’.
Test for measuring your Personality
1. I prefer people who are
A) reserved
B) in between
C) make friends quickly
HOW TO RECORD YOUR ANSWER
Most paper-pencil tests require you to record your answers on a separate answer sheet so that they can be scored quickly. A sample of the Answer sheet used on Indian Railways may be seen here. The answers are marked on the Answer sheet by fully darkening the circles which go with your answers. Use blue ball point pen. Remember you are not permitted to change your answers.
WHAT CAN YOU DO TO GET HIGHER SCORES?
Before the Session
-
Don’t stay up all night. Make sure you get a good night’s sleep.
-
Give yourself plenty of time to get to the session so you don’t have to rush.
-
If you wear glasses or a hearing aid, be sure to take them with you.
At the Session
-
Listen carefully to the instructions.
-
Do exactly as you are told.
-
Don’t be afraid to ask questions.
-
Think about each question before answering.
-
Work quickly and accurately, as most test have short time limits.
-
Don’t waste time on difficult questions.
-
Try as hard as you can. The more questions you get right, the higher your score will be.
-
Do not try to copy the answers of your neighbor as his question booklet may be different from you.