1. A parabolic curve introduced between straight and a circular curve or between two branches of a compound curve for ease, comfort and safety of movement of trains on curve is called:
(a) Spur curve (b) Transition curve
(c) Summit curve (d) Valley curve
Ans : B
2. The staggered rails joints are usually provided on:
(a) Bridge (b) Curves (c) Branching (d) Tangents
Ans : B
3. The track capacity can be increased by:
(a) Faster movement of trains on the track
(b) By using more powerful engines
(c) All the above
(d) None of the above
Ans : C
4. The railway station at which a track line meets a main line is called:
(a) terminal station (b) flag station
(c) way side station (d) junction station
Ans : D
5. The limiting value of super elevation of board gauge in Indian Railways is:
(a) 16.50 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 10 cm
Ans : A
6. The chart used for recording the condition of track is known as:
(a) Rolling chart (b) Track chart
(c) Hallade chart (d) Vibro chart
Ans: C
7. The most common system of signaling in India is the …… system.
(a) automatic block (b) section clear system
(c) absolute block (d) pilot guard system
Ans : C
8. The feeder gauge …. is commonly used for feeding raw materials to big Government manufacturing concerns as well as to private factories such as steel plants, oil refineries, sugar factories etc.
(a) 0.6096 m (b) 0.792 m (c) 1m (d) 1.676 m
Ans : A
9. Which one of the following bolts is not used in rail track:
(a) Fang bolt (b) Eye bolt (c) Rag bolt (d) Fish bolt
Ans : B
10. The gradient which requires one or more additional locomotive for hauling the load over the gradient is called:
(a) Up-gradient (b) Pusher gradient
(c) Steep gradient (d) Momentum gradient
Ans : B
11. Points and crossings are provided for change of ….on permanent ways.
(a) gauge (b) direction and gradient
(c) direction (d) gradient
Ans : C
12. In locomotive ‘hunting’ is:
(a) Movement of locomotive in vertical plane perpendicular to its movement along the track
(b) Sinuous path taken by engine as against the alignment of the track
(c) Motion after brakes have been applied
(d) Combination of A and B above
Ans : D
13. The rails which get battered due to action of wheels over the end of the rails are called:
(a) Hogged rails (b) Roaring rails
(c) Creep rails (d) Bucking rails
Ans : A
14. In broad gauge, the clear horizontal distance between the inner faces of two parallel rails forming the track is:
(a) 1 m (b) 1.676 m (c) 0.6096 m (d) 0.792 m
Ans : B
15. As per Indian standard, the recommended width of ballast section at foot level of rails for broad gauge tracks should be:
(a) 4.38 m (b) 3.35 m (c) 1.83 m (d) 2.25 m
Ans : B
16. The minimum length of a passenger platform for broad gauge railway should not be less than:
(a) 305 m (b) 183 m (c) 495 m (d) 250 m
Ans : A
17. Generally the shape of fish plate is:
(a) elliptical (b) bone shaped (c) circular (d) rectangular
Ans : B
18. For wooden sleepers, size of the ballast should be:
(a) 2.54 cm (b) 10.16 cm (c) 3.8 cm (d) 5.1 cm
Ans : C
69. The length of track under the control of a Ganger is:
(a) 10 to 15 Km (b) 5 to 6 KM
(c) 3 to 5 KM (d) 1 to 2 KM
Ans : B
20. The maximum rising gradient which is provided keeping the power of locomotive in view, is called
(a) Momentum gradient (b) Pusher gradient
(c) Down gradient (d) Ruling gradient
Ans : D
21. The latest system of signaling introduced is:
(a) C.T.C. system (b) pilot guard system
(c) section clear system (d) automatic block system
Ans : A
22. Detonating signals are used:
(a) for noisy engines
(b) during foggy and cloudy weather
(c) for deaf drivers
(d) not now, were in use in nineteenth century only
Ans : B
23. The number of fish bolts used for joining the rails with the help of fish plates, is generally:
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 6
Ans : A
24. The Railways provided underground at a depth of about 18 m or more are called:
(a) Mono railway (b) Underground railway
(c) Railway (d) Tube railway
Ans : D
25. The art of providing an outward slope of …. to the treads of wheels of rolling stock is known as coning of wheels.
(a) 1 in 30 (b) 1 in 10 (c) 1 in 4 (d) 1 in 20
Ans : D
26. The process of connecting a track length by an electric circuit is known as track circuiting and the sleepers which are suitable for it are:
(a) cast iron sleepers (b) steel sleepers
(c) wooden sleepers (d) all above are suitable
Ans : C
27. The movable tapered end of the tongue rail is known as:
(a) heel of switch (b) toe of switch
(c) stretcher bar (d) throw of switch
Ans : B
28. The yard where trains and other loads are received, sorted out, trains formed and dispatched onwards are known as:
(a) locomotive yard (b) goods yard
(c) marshalling yard (d) station yard
Ans : C
29. Wider gauge permits:
(a) sleeper gradients (b) low axle load
(c) higher operating speeds (d) sharp curves
Ans : C
30. Which one of the following is expected to have shorter life?
(a) Steam engine (b) Diesel engine
(c) Electric engine (d) Shunting engine
And : B
31. The movable end of the tapered rail, by means of which the flanged wheels of the train are diverted from one track to another is known as:
(a) Toe (b) Stud (c) Heel (d) Flare
Ans : A
32. The creep in rails is measured in:
(a) cm/kg (b) cm (c) Kg/cm (d) kg cm
Ans : B
33. When a rail loses its weight by 5%, it should be renewed and the old one can be used on unimportant tracks, but the rails which have lost their weight by more than …., should not be used on any track under any circumstances.
(a) 8% (b) 33.3% (c) 10% (d) 20%
Ans : C
34. In railways, super elevation is provided to:
(a) facilitate drainage
(b) counteract the centrifugal push
(c) counteract the centripetal pull
(d) have all the effects mentioned above
Ans : B
35. The additional track connected to main line at both of its ends is called:
(a) running line (b) loop line
(c) main line (d) none are correct
Ans : B
36. The rails which help in channelising the wheels in their proper routes are known as:
(a) Guard rails (b) Wing rails? (c) Check rails (d) Lead rails
Ans : B
37. The shape of wheels of rolling stock is:
(a) Tapered with flange on outside
(b) Parallel with flange on inside
(c) Tapered with flange on inside
(d) Parallel with flange on outside
Ans : C
38. The maximum gradient for broad gauge in station yards in Indian Railways is:
(a) 1 in 100 (b) 1 in 1000 (c) 1in 200 (d) 1 in 400
Ans : D
39. The force which resists the forward movement and speed of train is called:
(a) Track modulus (b) Hauling resistance
(c) friction (d) Tractive resistance
Ans : D
4. The tractive resistance of the route in railways as compared to roadways will be:
(a) same (b) more (c) low (d) not comparable
Ans : C
41. Sand is used as ballast incase of:
(a) steel sleepers
(b) wooden sleepers
(c) reinforced concrete sleepers
(d) cast iron sleepers
Ans : D
42. Arm type fixed signals, fitted on a vertical post fixed at the side of a track, are called:
(a) Warner signals (b) Starter signals
(c) Semaphore signals (d) Cab signals
Ans : C
43. The Railway provided just below the ground level are called:
(a) Tube railway (b) Underground railway
(c) Mono railway (d) Railway
Ans : B
44. When a railway line crosses a valley, a ridge like structure consisting of a series of piers, piles or trestles on which steel girders are placed and which is constructed usually for small spans is known as:
(a) Bridge (b) Tunnel (c) Viaduct (d) Aqueduct
Ans : C
45. Creeping of rails will be reduced by using:
(a) Bearing plates (b) Spikes (c) Chairs (d) Anchors
Ans : D
46. The railway track from which a train is to be diverted is called:
(a) branch track (b) points and crossing
(c) main or through track (d) all above
Ans : C
47. An expansion gap of …. is usually kept between the adjoining rail ends to allow for expansion of rail, due to variation in temperature.
(a) 1 to 3 mm (b) 10 to 15 mm
(c) 6 to 8 mm (d) 3 to 5 mm
Ans : C
48. Generally the weight/metre of the rails used in broad gauge is:
(a) 55 kg (b) 45 kg (c) 35 kg (d) 65 kg
Ans : A
49. A dynamometer car is used for:
(a) Tourists (b) Dinning facilities
(c) Inspection of administrative officers
(d) Recording the condition of track
Ans : D
50. Which of the following is not a part of rail engine?
(a) Tender (b) Stream turbine (c) Boiler (d) Fire box
Ans : B
Sunday, March 4, 2012
RRB Generl Awareness practice questions
1. Which State has the largest coastline in India?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer (a)
2. Which of the following latitudes passes through India?
(a) Equator
(b) Arctic Circle
(c) Tropic of Capricorn
(d) Tropic of Cancer
Answer (d)
3. India is the seventh largest country in the world and it covers a total area of approximately:
(a) 2700000 sq. km
(b) 3000000 sq. km
(c) 3200000 sq. km
(d) 3600000 sq. km
Answer (c)
4. Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the formation of the following states in India?
1. Sikkim
2. Mizoram
3. Goa
4. Arunachal Pradesh
(a) 3, 1, 2, 4
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 2, 4, 3
(d) 1, 4, 2, 3
Answer(c)
5. In which one of the following Islands of India is an active volcano found?
(a) Car Nicobar Island
(b) Nancowry Island
(c) Barren Island
(d) Maya Bunder Island
Answer (c)
6. Which one of the following longitudes determines the Indian standard time?
(a) 85.5 E
(b) 86.5E
(c) 84.5 E
(d) 82.5E
Answer (d)
7. Among the following Union Territories of India, which one has the largest size?
(a) Pondicherry
(b) Lakshadweep
(c) Daman and Diu
(d) Chandigarh
Answer (a)
8. Duncan Passage is situated between:
(a) Minicoy and Amindiv
(b) Minicoy and Maldives
(c) Little Andaman and Car Nicobar
(d) South Andaman and Little Andaman
Answer (d)
9. ‘Indian Standard Meridian’ passes through the states of UP, MP:
(a) AP and Karnataka
(b) AP and Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
(d) Orissa and AP
Answer (d)
10. Which foreign country is closest to Andaman Islands?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Myanmar
(c) Indonesia
(d) Pakistan
Answer (b)
11. Jharkhand does not share boundary with:
(a) West Bengal
(b) Orissa
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer (d)
12. The States which have common borders with China are:
1. Jammu and Kashmir
2. Sikkim
3. Arunachal Pradesh
4. Himachal Pradesh
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (d)
13. Consider the following statements
1. The continental shelves of Lakshadweep are originated due to coral reefs.
2. The continental shelves of western coast are due to faulting and submergence.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (c)
14. Which state amongst the following has the highest percentage of the Scheduled Caste population of State’s population?
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Punjab
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer (a)
15. The Tropic of Cancer passes through the States of:
1. Gujarat
2. Jharkhand
3. Assam
4. Mizoram
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (a)
16. Among the following States of India, which one has the oldest rock formations in the country?
(a) Assam
(b) Bihar
(c) Karnataka
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer (c)
17. Among the following States, which one has the largest forest area?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Karnataka
(c) Orissa
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer (a)
18. Port Blair – the capital of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, is located in which one of the following islands?
(a) North Andaman
(b) Little Andaman
(c) Middle Andaman
(d) South Andaman
Answer (d)
19. 28.38 N and 77.12 E are the respective latitude and longitude of which one of the following places?
(a) Jaipur
(b) Delhi
(c) Lucknow
(d) Allahabad
Answer (b)
20. What is the correct order of occurrence of the following places as one move from east to west?
(1) Murshidabad
(2) Gorakhpur
(3) Bhopal
(4) Bhavnagar
(a) 2-4-3-1
(b) 1-3-4-2
(c) 1-2-3-4
(d) 4-3-2-1
Answer (c)
(a) Gujarat
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer (a)
2. Which of the following latitudes passes through India?
(a) Equator
(b) Arctic Circle
(c) Tropic of Capricorn
(d) Tropic of Cancer
Answer (d)
3. India is the seventh largest country in the world and it covers a total area of approximately:
(a) 2700000 sq. km
(b) 3000000 sq. km
(c) 3200000 sq. km
(d) 3600000 sq. km
Answer (c)
4. Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the formation of the following states in India?
1. Sikkim
2. Mizoram
3. Goa
4. Arunachal Pradesh
(a) 3, 1, 2, 4
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 2, 4, 3
(d) 1, 4, 2, 3
Answer(c)
5. In which one of the following Islands of India is an active volcano found?
(a) Car Nicobar Island
(b) Nancowry Island
(c) Barren Island
(d) Maya Bunder Island
Answer (c)
6. Which one of the following longitudes determines the Indian standard time?
(a) 85.5 E
(b) 86.5E
(c) 84.5 E
(d) 82.5E
Answer (d)
7. Among the following Union Territories of India, which one has the largest size?
(a) Pondicherry
(b) Lakshadweep
(c) Daman and Diu
(d) Chandigarh
Answer (a)
8. Duncan Passage is situated between:
(a) Minicoy and Amindiv
(b) Minicoy and Maldives
(c) Little Andaman and Car Nicobar
(d) South Andaman and Little Andaman
Answer (d)
9. ‘Indian Standard Meridian’ passes through the states of UP, MP:
(a) AP and Karnataka
(b) AP and Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
(d) Orissa and AP
Answer (d)
10. Which foreign country is closest to Andaman Islands?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Myanmar
(c) Indonesia
(d) Pakistan
Answer (b)
11. Jharkhand does not share boundary with:
(a) West Bengal
(b) Orissa
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer (d)
12. The States which have common borders with China are:
1. Jammu and Kashmir
2. Sikkim
3. Arunachal Pradesh
4. Himachal Pradesh
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (d)
13. Consider the following statements
1. The continental shelves of Lakshadweep are originated due to coral reefs.
2. The continental shelves of western coast are due to faulting and submergence.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (c)
14. Which state amongst the following has the highest percentage of the Scheduled Caste population of State’s population?
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Punjab
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer (a)
15. The Tropic of Cancer passes through the States of:
1. Gujarat
2. Jharkhand
3. Assam
4. Mizoram
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (a)
16. Among the following States of India, which one has the oldest rock formations in the country?
(a) Assam
(b) Bihar
(c) Karnataka
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer (c)
17. Among the following States, which one has the largest forest area?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Karnataka
(c) Orissa
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer (a)
18. Port Blair – the capital of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, is located in which one of the following islands?
(a) North Andaman
(b) Little Andaman
(c) Middle Andaman
(d) South Andaman
Answer (d)
19. 28.38 N and 77.12 E are the respective latitude and longitude of which one of the following places?
(a) Jaipur
(b) Delhi
(c) Lucknow
(d) Allahabad
Answer (b)
20. What is the correct order of occurrence of the following places as one move from east to west?
(1) Murshidabad
(2) Gorakhpur
(3) Bhopal
(4) Bhavnagar
(a) 2-4-3-1
(b) 1-3-4-2
(c) 1-2-3-4
(d) 4-3-2-1
Answer (c)
RRB Junior engineer(electrical) Model Questions
1. A resistance of 10 ohm is connected across a supply of 200V. If resistance R is now connected in parallel with a 10 ohm resistance, the current drawn from the supply gets doubled. The value of unknown resistance R is
(a) 5 ohm
(b) 20 ohm
(c) 10 ohm
(d) 15 ohm
Ans : c
2. Kirchhoff’s first law is also called as
(a) voltage law
(b) Current law
(c) Mesh Current law
(d) All the above
Ans : b
3. Find the total resistance when four 3 Ohm resistance are connected in series
(a) 3 ohm
(b) 12 ohm
(c) 14 ohm
(d) 8 ohm
Ans : b
4. The practical unit of power is
(a) Joule
(b) Ampere
(c) Watt
(d) Weber
Ans : c
5. Form factor of a sine wave is
(a) 1.414
(b) 1
(c) 0
(d) 1.11
Ans : d
6. The unit of resistance is
(a) Mho
(b) ohm-m
(c) Ohms
(d) Amps
Ans :c
7. Unit of impedance is
(a) Ampere
(b) Volt
(c) Ohm
(d) mho
Ans : c
8. The close path of the flux around any current carrying circuit is referred as
Circuit.
(a) Magnetic
(b) Electric
(c) Electromagnetic
(d) None of these
Ans : a
9. The current flowing in an electrical circuit is due to the existence of
(a) mmf
(b) emf
(c) Resistance
(d) Reluctance
Ans : b
10. The magnetic flux flow through a magnetic circuit is due to
(a) mmf
(b) emf
(c) Resistance
(d) Reluctance
Ans : a
11. The on-line UPS is also called as
a. Stand-by UPS
b. Line Interactive UPS
c. Off line UPS
d. Current line UPS
Ans. b
12. ________ is used to convert alternating current to direct current.
a. Transformer
b. Diode
c. Resistor
d. Transistor
Ans. b
13. The supply voltage varies sinusoid ally and has a frequency __________ Hz.
a. 60
b. 50
c. 20
d. 10
Ans. b
14. Expression for magneto-motive force is
(a) N/I
(b) 1/NI
(c) I/N
(d) IN
Ans : d
15. Unit of mmf is
(a) Ampere /Volt
(b) Ampere- turns
(c) Volt
(d) Volt/Ampere
Ans : b
16. Magnetic field strength is equal to
(a) mmf. L
(b) L/ mmf
(c) mmf/ L
(d) 1/mmf.L
Ans : c
17. Peak inverse voltage of bridge rectifier is as that of centre-tap circuit.
a. Same
b. Twice
c. Half
d. Four times
Ans. c
18. Peak Resistance of the diode is increased when
a. Forward biased
b. Reverse biased
c. Both forward and reverse biased
d. Either a or b
Ans. b
19. The number of lines of force passing through the secondary coil S when unit current changes in the primary coil P are called
(a) Self inductance
(b) Mutual inductance
(c) Self induction
(d) Mutual induction
Ans : c
20. Unit of flux
(a) Amp- turns
(b) Weber
(c) Volts
(d) Amps
Ans : b
(a) 5 ohm
(b) 20 ohm
(c) 10 ohm
(d) 15 ohm
Ans : c
2. Kirchhoff’s first law is also called as
(a) voltage law
(b) Current law
(c) Mesh Current law
(d) All the above
Ans : b
3. Find the total resistance when four 3 Ohm resistance are connected in series
(a) 3 ohm
(b) 12 ohm
(c) 14 ohm
(d) 8 ohm
Ans : b
4. The practical unit of power is
(a) Joule
(b) Ampere
(c) Watt
(d) Weber
Ans : c
5. Form factor of a sine wave is
(a) 1.414
(b) 1
(c) 0
(d) 1.11
Ans : d
6. The unit of resistance is
(a) Mho
(b) ohm-m
(c) Ohms
(d) Amps
Ans :c
7. Unit of impedance is
(a) Ampere
(b) Volt
(c) Ohm
(d) mho
Ans : c
8. The close path of the flux around any current carrying circuit is referred as
Circuit.
(a) Magnetic
(b) Electric
(c) Electromagnetic
(d) None of these
Ans : a
9. The current flowing in an electrical circuit is due to the existence of
(a) mmf
(b) emf
(c) Resistance
(d) Reluctance
Ans : b
10. The magnetic flux flow through a magnetic circuit is due to
(a) mmf
(b) emf
(c) Resistance
(d) Reluctance
Ans : a
11. The on-line UPS is also called as
a. Stand-by UPS
b. Line Interactive UPS
c. Off line UPS
d. Current line UPS
Ans. b
12. ________ is used to convert alternating current to direct current.
a. Transformer
b. Diode
c. Resistor
d. Transistor
Ans. b
13. The supply voltage varies sinusoid ally and has a frequency __________ Hz.
a. 60
b. 50
c. 20
d. 10
Ans. b
14. Expression for magneto-motive force is
(a) N/I
(b) 1/NI
(c) I/N
(d) IN
Ans : d
15. Unit of mmf is
(a) Ampere /Volt
(b) Ampere- turns
(c) Volt
(d) Volt/Ampere
Ans : b
16. Magnetic field strength is equal to
(a) mmf. L
(b) L/ mmf
(c) mmf/ L
(d) 1/mmf.L
Ans : c
17. Peak inverse voltage of bridge rectifier is as that of centre-tap circuit.
a. Same
b. Twice
c. Half
d. Four times
Ans. c
18. Peak Resistance of the diode is increased when
a. Forward biased
b. Reverse biased
c. Both forward and reverse biased
d. Either a or b
Ans. b
19. The number of lines of force passing through the secondary coil S when unit current changes in the primary coil P are called
(a) Self inductance
(b) Mutual inductance
(c) Self induction
(d) Mutual induction
Ans : c
20. Unit of flux
(a) Amp- turns
(b) Weber
(c) Volts
(d) Amps
Ans : b
RRB Junior engineer(electrical) Model Questions
1. The frequency of DC current
(a) Equal to voltage magnitude
(b) 0
(c) Double of AC frequency
(d) 50 HZ
Ans : b
2. The current flowing in a purely inductive circuit of 30 mH on application of 230 V,
50 Hz single phase supply is 24.4 A. If the frequency of the applied voltage is
increased to 100 Hz the current flowing in the same circuit will be
(a) 24.4 A
(b) 48.8 A
(c) 12.2 A
(d) 6.1 A
Ans : c
3. Find the total resistance when two 3 Ohm resistances are connected in parallel.
(a) 1.11 ohms
(b) 1.5 ohms
(c) 0.707 ohms
(d) 1.23 ohms
Ans : b
4. Voltage drop in a resistance given by
(a) mmf/reluctance
(b) IR
(c) I/R
(d) VI
Ans : b
5. Off-line converter, SMPS has
a. AC input and dc output
b .DC input and dc output
c. AC input and ac output
d. None
Ans. a
6. Filter circuits are constructed by means of
a. Diode
b. Resistors
c. Transformers
d. Capacitor and inductors
Ans. d
7. Resistance of the diode is decreased when
a. Forward biased
b. Reverse biased
c. Both forward and reverse biased
d. Either a or b
Ans. a
8. In earlier time is used for voltage regulation.
a. Diode
b. Transistors
c. Vacuum tubes and glow bulbs
d. SMPS
Ans. c
9. is the equipment used during power failure.
a. Rectifier
b. Voltage regulators
c. UPS
d. SMPS
Ans. c
10. Peak factor of the sine wave is equal to
(a) 0.901
(b) 1.414
(c) 1.1
(d) 1.11
Ans :b
11. The amplitude of current of full wave rectified sinusoidal wave is 80 A, its average
value will be
(a) 25.44A
(b) 80A
(c) 40A
(d) 56.56A
Ans : a
12.Find the total current supplied to the lamp rated 100w .when supply voltage is 200 v.
(a) 1.75A
(b) 2A
(c) 0.5A
(d) 1A
(e) Ans : c
13. The power factor of a inductive circuit is
(a) Lagging
(b) Leading
(c) Zero lagging
(d) Unity
Ans : a
14. The power factor of a purely capacitive circuit is always
(a) Lagging
(b) Leading
(c) Unity
(d) Zero lagging
Ans : b
15. The overall circuit power factor of a RLC series circuit is found to be 0.898 lagging. The nature of the resultant circuit is
(a) Resistive
(b) Inductive
(c) Capacitive
(d) None of these
Ans : b
16. The maximum, rms and average value of a periodic current wave form is 100 A,
64.42A and 57.5A, respectively. The peak factor of this wave is
(a) 0.644
(b) 1.552
(c) 1.12
(d) None of these
Ans : b
17. In a parallel resistance circuit
(a) Power is same in all resistance
(b) Current is same in all resistance
(c) Voltage is same in all resistance
(d) Resistances are same
Ans : c
18. Find the total resistance when 2 Ohm and 4 Ohm resistances are in parallel.
(a) 1.33 Ohms
(b) 0.33 Ohms
(c) 2.33 Ohms
(d) 1 Ohm
Ans : a
19. Expression for mmf in terms of field strength is
(a) HI
(b) H/I
(c) HL
(d) H/L
Ans : c
20. is the property of magnetic which opposes the flow of flux through it.
(a) Resistance
(b) MMF
(c) Reluctance
(d) emf
Ans : c
21. is the property of electrical conductor which oppose the flow of current through it
(a) Reluctance
(b) emf
(c) mmf
(d) Resistance
Ans : d
22. Reluctance is expressed in
(a) Ampere Weber
(b) Ohm
(c) Ampere/Weber
(d) Volt/Ampere
Ans : c
23. Reciprocal of reluctance is termed as
(a) Conductance
(b) Permenance
(c) Permeability
(d) None of these
Ans : b
24. Ohm’s law for electric circuit will be
(a) emf= current/resistance
(b) emf= current X resistance
(c) emf= resistance/current
(d) emf= 1/( resistance X current)
Ans : b
25. Ohm’s law for magnetic circuit will be
(a) mmf= flux /resistance
(b) flux= mmf X resistance
(c) reluctance = mmf/ flux
(d) Resistance= mmf X flux
Ans : c
(a) Equal to voltage magnitude
(b) 0
(c) Double of AC frequency
(d) 50 HZ
Ans : b
2. The current flowing in a purely inductive circuit of 30 mH on application of 230 V,
50 Hz single phase supply is 24.4 A. If the frequency of the applied voltage is
increased to 100 Hz the current flowing in the same circuit will be
(a) 24.4 A
(b) 48.8 A
(c) 12.2 A
(d) 6.1 A
Ans : c
3. Find the total resistance when two 3 Ohm resistances are connected in parallel.
(a) 1.11 ohms
(b) 1.5 ohms
(c) 0.707 ohms
(d) 1.23 ohms
Ans : b
4. Voltage drop in a resistance given by
(a) mmf/reluctance
(b) IR
(c) I/R
(d) VI
Ans : b
5. Off-line converter, SMPS has
a. AC input and dc output
b .DC input and dc output
c. AC input and ac output
d. None
Ans. a
6. Filter circuits are constructed by means of
a. Diode
b. Resistors
c. Transformers
d. Capacitor and inductors
Ans. d
7. Resistance of the diode is decreased when
a. Forward biased
b. Reverse biased
c. Both forward and reverse biased
d. Either a or b
Ans. a
8. In earlier time is used for voltage regulation.
a. Diode
b. Transistors
c. Vacuum tubes and glow bulbs
d. SMPS
Ans. c
9. is the equipment used during power failure.
a. Rectifier
b. Voltage regulators
c. UPS
d. SMPS
Ans. c
10. Peak factor of the sine wave is equal to
(a) 0.901
(b) 1.414
(c) 1.1
(d) 1.11
Ans :b
11. The amplitude of current of full wave rectified sinusoidal wave is 80 A, its average
value will be
(a) 25.44A
(b) 80A
(c) 40A
(d) 56.56A
Ans : a
12.Find the total current supplied to the lamp rated 100w .when supply voltage is 200 v.
(a) 1.75A
(b) 2A
(c) 0.5A
(d) 1A
(e) Ans : c
13. The power factor of a inductive circuit is
(a) Lagging
(b) Leading
(c) Zero lagging
(d) Unity
Ans : a
14. The power factor of a purely capacitive circuit is always
(a) Lagging
(b) Leading
(c) Unity
(d) Zero lagging
Ans : b
15. The overall circuit power factor of a RLC series circuit is found to be 0.898 lagging. The nature of the resultant circuit is
(a) Resistive
(b) Inductive
(c) Capacitive
(d) None of these
Ans : b
16. The maximum, rms and average value of a periodic current wave form is 100 A,
64.42A and 57.5A, respectively. The peak factor of this wave is
(a) 0.644
(b) 1.552
(c) 1.12
(d) None of these
Ans : b
17. In a parallel resistance circuit
(a) Power is same in all resistance
(b) Current is same in all resistance
(c) Voltage is same in all resistance
(d) Resistances are same
Ans : c
18. Find the total resistance when 2 Ohm and 4 Ohm resistances are in parallel.
(a) 1.33 Ohms
(b) 0.33 Ohms
(c) 2.33 Ohms
(d) 1 Ohm
Ans : a
19. Expression for mmf in terms of field strength is
(a) HI
(b) H/I
(c) HL
(d) H/L
Ans : c
20. is the property of magnetic which opposes the flow of flux through it.
(a) Resistance
(b) MMF
(c) Reluctance
(d) emf
Ans : c
21. is the property of electrical conductor which oppose the flow of current through it
(a) Reluctance
(b) emf
(c) mmf
(d) Resistance
Ans : d
22. Reluctance is expressed in
(a) Ampere Weber
(b) Ohm
(c) Ampere/Weber
(d) Volt/Ampere
Ans : c
23. Reciprocal of reluctance is termed as
(a) Conductance
(b) Permenance
(c) Permeability
(d) None of these
Ans : b
24. Ohm’s law for electric circuit will be
(a) emf= current/resistance
(b) emf= current X resistance
(c) emf= resistance/current
(d) emf= 1/( resistance X current)
Ans : b
25. Ohm’s law for magnetic circuit will be
(a) mmf= flux /resistance
(b) flux= mmf X resistance
(c) reluctance = mmf/ flux
(d) Resistance= mmf X flux
Ans : c
RRB ASM SOLVED PAPER 2009
1. The Buland Darwaja is related to
(1) Shershah
(2) Babur
(3) Akbar
(4) Jehangir
Ans. (3)
2. The Military Games were held in Hyderabad from October 17, 2007 to October 27, 2007.Which country won the highest number of medals?
(1) China
(2) Russia
(3) India
(4) Japan
Ans. (2)
3. The Railways gets the maximum income from
(1) Goods freight
(2) Passenger’s fares
(3) Advertisement
(4) None of these
Ans. (1)
4. What is sound?
(1) Energy
(2) Heat
(3) Magnet
(4) Ray
Ans. (1)
5. The chief source of heat energy is
(1) Sun light
(2) Biogas
(3) Electricity
(4) Natural gas
Ans. (1)
6. The Aravalli hills are located in
(1) Madhya Pradesh
(2) Rajasthan
(3) Assam
(4) Jharkhand
Ans. (2)
7. A plant can be disease resistant due to
(1) Pesticides
(2) Virus
(3) Fungi
(4) Bacteria
Ans. (1)
8. Which of the following Chief Ministers served for the longest tenure?
(1) Lalu Prasad
(2) Jyoti Basu
(3) Ms. Mayawati
(4) M. Karunanidhi
Ans. (2)
9. Which of the following straits separates Europe from Africa?
(1) Berring
(2) Dobar
(3) Gibralter
(4) Mulucca
Ans. (3)
10. The UN Climate Change conference was organized in Bali from December 3, 2007 to December 14, 2007 for 12 days in which 1000 people participated .Bali is situated in
(1) Indonesia
(2) Malaysia
(3) Morocco
(4) China
Ans. (1)
11. The description of caste system is found in
(1) Rig Veda
(2) Sam Veda
(3) Yajurva Veda
(4) Atharva Veda
Ans. (1)
12. Who is called the Akbar of Kashmir?
(1) Janulabeddin
(2) Sikandar
(3) Queen Didda
(4) Emperor Sangram Singh
Ans. (1)
13. The Border Road Organization comes under
(1) Defense
(2) Urban Development
(3) Corporate sector
(4) Private sector
Ans. (1)
14. Which of the following corporations was started first by the Government of India?
(1) Damodar Valley Corporation
(2) National Thermal Power Corporation
(3) National Hydel Power Corporation
(4) All the above
Ans. (1)
15. Which of the following is not a part of three gems of the Buddhism?
(1) Buddha
(2) Sangha
(3) Dhamma
(4) Ahimsa
Ans. (4)
16. Who was the first Indian to reach Antarctica?
(1) Rakesh Sharma
(2) G.S. Sirohi
(3) B.K. Dutta
(4) K. Karuna Nautial
Ans. (2)
17. A saturated solution at S.T.P. is
(1) Colorless
(2) Green
(3) Red
(4) Red and green
Ans. (1)
18. The pure element in the following is
(1) Glass
(2) Diamond
(3) Lime
(4) Salt
Ans. (2)
19. What is gypsum?
(1) Lime
(2) Bleaching powder
(3) Blue vitriol
(4) Ammonium chloride powder
Ans. (3)
20. Bones of horses of Harappan civilization were found at
(1) Lothal
(2) Harappa
(3) Surkotada
(4) Mohanjodero
Ans. (3)
21. What is Ag-mark?
(1) Technique to increase agricultural productivity
(2) Green Revolution
(3) Test of purity in the production of vegetable oil etc.
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
22. Who has taken the highest number of wickets in Test Cricket?
(11) Muttiah Muralitharan
(2) Shane Warne
(3) Anil Kumble
(4) Shoaib Akhtar
Ans. (1)
23. In 1947, 532 princely states were annexed to India except three. Which of the following was not among the three princely states?
(1) Junagarha
(2) Bhavnagar
(3) Hyderabad
(4) Kashmir
Ans. (4)
24. Which of the following gases is used to prepare Ammonia gas?
(1) Nitrogen and oxygen
(2) Nitrogen and oxide
(3) Nitrogen and hydrogen
(4) Nitrogen and carbon
Ans. (3)
25. In which of the following states of India, per capita income is highest?
(1) Orissa
(2) Assam
(3) Manipur
(4) Kerala
Ans. (4)
26. By import of — the inflation has been caused in India?
(1) Wheat
(2) Rice
(3) Sugar
(4) Petroleum
Ans. (4)
27. The meeting of Commonwealth Nations was held in Uganda on November 25, 2007. Who was elected its General Secretary?
(1) Mahesh Sharma
(2) Kamlesh Sharma
(3) Bimalesh Sharma
(4) Kailash Sharma
Ans. (2)
28. In which country the Hindu temples were razed to the ground in
December, 2007?
(1) Indonesia
(2) Malaysia
(3) Mauritius
(4) Afghanistan
Ans. (2)
Directions (29 — 33) : Read the following passage carefully and then answer the following questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage by choosing the best answer to each question out of given four options.
On hearing the news of the massacre at Jallianwala Bagh, Udham Singh did not attend his school but took a train to Armritsar and visited the spot. There, he stood for several minutes in a trance, picked up the soil, rubbed it on his forehead and put some in a phial. He fasted that night. According to his family members he placed fresh flowers on the holy dust every morning, drawing inspiration from it. One early morning he went to the river Ravi and pledged that he would Colour its waters with the colour of his blood, to create what he called the freedom’s flood. With this aim in view in 1921, he first landed in Africa. From there he went to America to meet the Indian revolutionaries working for the liberation of the motherland.
In 1923, he landed in England. In 1928, he returned to India in response to an urgent call from Bhagat Singh. When he reached Lahore, he was detained for violation of the Arms Act. He was released after four years rigorous imprisonment. In 1935, he escaped to Germany by giving a slip to the police. From Berlin, he reached Paris and purchased a revolver. He kept it ready for action and managed to reach London again. Opportunity came on March 13, 1940 when Sir Michael O’ Dwyer was to speak at a seminar in the Caxton Hall. As Sir Michael turned to resume his seat after the speech. Udham Singh pulled out his revolver and fired at him, Sir Michael died without a shriek. Udham
Singh was arrested and produced before the court on April 2, 1940. The court passed death sentence on him and he was hanged at Pentonville Prison, London on July 3, 1940.
29. Udham Singh went to America where he
(1) mobilized the Indian citizens for the liberation of the motherland
(2) collected sufficient funds to fight colonialism
(3) met fellow citizens working for the same cause
(4) went sight-seeing
Ans. (3)
30. Where did Udham Singh buy the weapon which was used for killing Sir Michael?
(1) Paris
(2) Lahore
(3) London
(4) Berlin
Ans. (1)
31. Udham Singh shot at Sir Michael O’Dwyer in
(1) Jallianwala Bagh
(2) Armritsar
(3) London
(4) Paris
Ans. (3)
32. When Udham Singh was arrest ed in Lahore, he was charged for
(1) instigating his countrymen against the Englishmen
(2) his links with anti-British forces
(3) concealing his identity and carrying on underground activities
(4) possessing unlicensed arms and ammunition
Ans. (4)
33. Udham Singh returned to India in 1928 mainly because he was:
(1) short of funds to meet his expenses
(2) to produce some arms from Lahore
(3) to escape from the British police
(4) called by a revolutionary in India
Ans. (4)
34. In the following question a word has been spelt in four different ways one of which is correct. Choose the correctly spelt word:
(1) Assemblage
(2) Asemblage
(3) Assemmblage
(4) Accemblage
Ans. (1)
35. In the following sentence, fill in the blank by choosing correct option from the given alternatives
The documents are available ? inspection.
(1) of
(2) about
(3) with
(4) for
Ans. (4)
36. In the following question, choose the Adjective.
(1) Preference
(2) Gifted
(3) Genius
(4) In vain
Ans. (2)
37. Write the synonym of the word ‘Consummate’.
(1) Novice
(2) Ambiguous
(3) Perfect
(4) Imperfect
Ans. (3)
38. Find out, which part of the following sentence has a grammatical or idiomatic error in it.
They have
(1)/held the championship
(2)/ since the past
(3)/ two years.
(4)
Ans. (3)
39. In the following question, a word has been spelt in four different ways, one of which is correct. Choose the correctly spelt word.
(1) demmurage
(2) demurrage
(3) demarrage
(4) demurage
Ans. (2)
40. In the following question, an idiomatic expression and its four possible meanings are given. Find out the correct meaning of the idiomatic expression and choose your correct answer from the given four choices:
Play one’s cards well
(1) A good gambler displaying skills
(2) A magician showing magic of cards
(3) Use means effectively
(4) A game of gamble
Ans. (3)
41. Out of the four alternatives, choose the one that can he substituted for .the given words/ phrase and mark it as your answer.
A cock and bull story
(1) An unbelievable gossip
(2) A children’s fable
(3) A quarrelsome dialogue
(4) A competition between un equal people
Ans. (1)
42. Choose the part of the following sentence containing error and mark it as your answer:
The number of orders(1). /
for that item have(2). /
increased greatly; several of them(3). /
have come from Egypt(4).
Ans. (2)
43. Identify the part of the following sentence containing an error and choose it as your answer.
In America(1)/
Presidential elections(2) /
is held every four years(3)
No error(4)
Ans. (3)
44. In the following sentence, fill in the blank by choosing correct option from the given alternatives:
‘Ram has annoyed his boss. He ? have to leave the job.
(1) might
(2) will
(3) ought to
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)
45. In the following question, three words having different meanings of a certain word are given. Select that word from the answer choices marked (1), (2), (3) and (4).
Witness, Observer; Onlooker
(1) spectator
(2) present
(3) biased
(4) careful
Ans. (1)
46. For the following word written in capital letters, four words are listed below as (1),
(2) (3) and (4). Out of these, choose the word nearest in meaning to it as your answer:
VINDICATE
(1) approve
(2) justify
(3) express
(4) exonerate
Ans. (2)
47. In the following sentence, the bold part contains an error. Answer choice (1) repeats the original, other three are 1ifferent. If you think that the original sentence displays the best way of wording the bold part, choose your answer (1): otherwise select the best alternative from the other three choices.
“Parents and teachers are be coming increasingly concerned about protecting children and the drugs which are available to them, and several parent teacher organizations, dedicated to educating children about the dangers of drug addiction, have recently been formed.”
(1) protecting children and the drugs which are available to them
(2) protecting of children and the drugs which are available to them
(3) protecting children from the drugs available to them
(4) protecting children from the drugs availability to them
Ans. (3)
48. From the given four answer choices, select the answer that gives the clearest, most exact sentence, but do not change the meaning Of the bold part of original sentence.
Such people never have and never will be trusted.
(1) never have and never will be trusted
(2) never have and will be trust ed
(3) never have been trusted and never will be trusted
(4) never have and anyone trust them and never will have anyone
Ans. (3)
49. Which one of the following statements is untrue?
(1) The sea-floor is older than the land
(2) The first rocks were formed as a result of the cooling o. molten matter
(3) Sedimentary rocks are also called aqueous rocks because they were formed by
the agency of water
(4) Stalactites and stalagmites are deposits of lime found in caves
Ans. (3)
50. The main hydro electric power potential of the Indus river system lies in India and not in Pakistan because:
(1) the need for hydro-electric power is greater in India than in Pakistan
(2) India has superior technology to develop hydro—electric power
(3) India has a greater labour force to develop hydro electric power
(4) The mountain stages of these rivers lie in India
Ans. (4)
51. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(a) Cotton 1. Madhya Pradesh
(b) Gram 2.Gujarat
(c) Black Pepper 3. West Bengal
(d) Pine apple 4. Kerala
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 2 1 4 3
(2) 2 1 3 4
(3) 1 2 4 3
(4) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (1)
52. In the production of tidal energy the maximum potential exists at:
(1) Bhavnagar
(2) Digboi
(3) Cochin
(4) Ladakh
Ans. (1)
53. The National Highway system is the responsibility of
(1) State governments
(2) Central governments
(3) Central and State governments
(4) Local body governments
Ans. (3)
54. Supersonic jets cause pollution by thinning of
(1) Sulphur dioxide layer
(2) Carbon dioxide layer
(3) Ozone layer
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
55. Which one of the following is commonly called Edible sponge mushroom’?
(1) Sargassum
(2) Morchella
(3) Agaricus
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
56. Which of the following is not an essential function of the skin in the human body?
(1) protects the internal or of the body
(2) acts as a sensory organ
(3) regulates the temperature of the body
(4) gives shape to the body
Ans. (4)
57. The device used for converting alternating current to direct current is called
(1) Inverter
(2) Rectifier
(3) Transmitter
(4) Transformer
Ans. (2)
58. Water is used in hot water bottles because:
(1) it is easily obtained in pure form
(2) it has high specific heat
(3) it is cheaper and not harmful
(4) it is easy to heat water
Ans. (2)
59. Mention the ray which appears to originate outside the earth.
(1) cosmic ray
(2) the ultra-violet ray
(3) the alpha ray
(4) the beta ray
Ans. (1)
60. A person cannot see objects clearly which are nearer than 75 cms from his eyes. What disease is he suffering from?
(1) Astigmatism
(2) Colour-blindness
(3) Myopia
(4) Hypermetropia
Ans. (4)
61. Oil rises up to wick in a lamp because
(1) oil is volatile
(2) oil is very light
(3) of the surface tension phenomenon
(4) of the diffusion of oil through the wick
Ans. (3)
62. Following Railway Training Institutes have been indicated with the cities where they are located. Find out which is wrongly matched.
(1) Railway Staff College — Vadodara
(2) Indian Railway Institute of Civil Engineering — Pune
(3) Indian Railway Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering —Jamalpur
(4) Indian Railway Institute Signal and Tele Communication Engineering — Mumbai
Ans. (4)
63. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given four options:
List -I List-II
(Zonal Railway) (Head Quarter)
(a) North Central Railway 1. Bilaspur
(b) South-East Central Railway 2. Allahabad
(c) West Central Railway 3. Jabalpur
(d) East Coast Railway 4. Bhubaneshwar
Code.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 2 1 3 4
(2) 1 2 3 4
(3) 2 3 4 1
(4) 4 1 3 2
Ans. (1)
64. In Indian Railways Network, approximately how many passenger service vehicles (passenger coaches) are working?
(1) 44,100
(2) 33.000
(3) 49,000
(4) 54,000
Ans. (2)
65. Who is the principal head of the Department of a Station Master in Zonal Railway Head Quarter Office?
(1) Chief Commercial Manager
(2) Chief Safety Officer
(3) Chief Personnel Officer
(4) Chief Operations Manager
Ans. (4)
66. Two new zones named North Western Railway and East Central Railway become functional/ operational from?
(1) October 1, 2002
(2) April 1, 2002
(3) April 1, 2003
(4) October 1, 2003
Ans. (1)
67. In one of the following State, though the Konkan Railway line does not pass through it, yet it has capital share in the K.R. Corporation. Name the State.
(1) Karnataka
(2) Goa
(3) Tamil Nadu
(4) Kerala
Ans. (3)
68. All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the Vice- President of India are decided by the
(1) High Court of a State
(2) Chief Election Commissioner
(3) Supreme Court of India
(4) President of India
Ans. (3)
69. Consider the following functionaries
1. Union Cabinet Secretary
2. Chief Election Commissioner
3. Union Cabinet Ministers
4. Chief Justice of India
Their correct sequence, in the order of precedence is
(1) 3, 4, 2, 1
(2) 4, 3, 1, 2
(3) 4, 3, 2, 1
(4) 3. 4, 1, 2
Ans. (3)
70. The basic structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that
(1) Certain features of the Constitution are so essential to it that they cannot be abrogated
(2) Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged or taken away
(3) The Constitution cannot be amended except in accordance with the procedure prescribed in Article 368
(4) The Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended
Ans. (1)
71. Which of the following enjoys the constitutional status?
1. Finance Commission
2. Planning Commission
3. Zonal Council
4. National Development Council
5. Election Commission
6. University Grants Commission
(1) 1, 3 and 5
(2) l and 5
(3) 1, 2, 5 and 6
(4) 1, 3, 5 and 6
Ans. (2)
72. The ultimate responsibility of taking due action on the comments of the Comptroller and Auditor General vests with
(1) President of India
(2) Supreme Court of India
(3) Parliament of India
(4) National Development Council
Ans. (1)
73. Mohit said to Neelam, “Your only brother’s son is my wife’s brother.” How is Neelam related to the wife of Mohit?
(1) aunt
(2) mother-in-law
(3) sister
(4) cannot be determined
Ans. (1)
74. A tourist drives 10 km towards East and turns to right hand side and takes a drive of another 3 km. He then drives towards West (turning to his right) another 3 km. He then turns to his left and walks another 2 km. Afterwards, he turns to his right and travels 7 km. How far is he from his starting point and in which direction?
(1) 10 km—East
(2) 9 km— North
(3) 8 km— West
(4) 5 km—South
Ans. (4)
75. The question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. Decide the ‘Strong’ and ‘Weak’ arguments and give answer out of four given options ‘1’, ‘2’, ‘3’ and ‘4’
Question:
Should all the professional colleges in India be encouraged to run their own courses without affiliation to any university?
Arguments:
(I) Yes, this is the only way to create more opportunities for those who seek professional training.
(II) No, this will dilute the quality of professional training as all such colleges may not be equipped to conduct such courses.
(1) Only argument I is strong
(2) Only argument II is strong
(3) Both I and II are strong
(4) Neither I nor II is strong
Ans. (2)
76. Statement: “Please do not wait for me; I may be late, start taking lunch as soon as the guests arrive.” — a message from a director of a company to his office managers.-
Assumptions:
I. Keeping guests waiting is not desirable.
II. Lunch may not be ready in time.
Consider the above statement and two assumptions to decide as to which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Choose the correct answer from the given options 1, 2, 3 and 4.
(1) Only assumption I is implicit
(2) Only assumption II is implicit
(3) Both I and II are implicit
(4) Neither I nor II is implicit
Ans. (1)
77. How many Asian countries are there in Common wealth?
(1) 49
(2) 51
(3) 54
(4) 57
Ans. (3)
78. Khan Abdul Gaffer Khan’s which action; performed in favour of Indian independence, but was against the English men?
(1) Formation of Lal-Kurti sena
(2) Assassination of an Englishman
(3) Trade of red shirts
(4) Demand for Pakhtunistan
Ans. (1)
79. On selling an article for Rs. 270 there is a gain of 12.5%. What
is its cost price?
(1) Rs. 240
(2) Rs. 220
(3) Rs. 210
(4) Rs. 250
Ans. (1)
80. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1: 2: 3. The greatest angle will be
(1) 60°
(2) 30°
(3) 90°
(4) 75°
Ans. (3)
81. The compound interest on Rs. 2500 at the rate of 6% p.a. after 2 years will be
(1) Rs. 309
(2) Rs. 318
(3) Rs. 320
(4) None of these
Ans. (1)
82. (999)2 – (998)22=?
(1) 1995
(2) 1998
(3) 1997
(4) 1992
Ans. (3)
83. A man covers a distance of 6 km at the rate 4 kmph and other 4 km at 3 kmph. His average speed is
(1) 9&13/7 kmph
(2) 3&9/17 kmph
(3) 5&9/17 kmph
(4) 3 & 5/9 kmph
Ans. (2)
84. The cost price of an article is Rs. 7840. To gain 7%, the article should be sold at
(1) Rs. 8388.80
(2) Rs. 8000
(3) Rs. 8383.80
(4) Rs. 8833.80
Ans. (1)
85. Two pipes can fill a tank in 10 minutes and 30 minutes respectively and a third pipe can empty the full tank in 20 minutes. If all the three pipes are opened simultaneously, the tank will be
(1) 10 minutes
(2) 8 minutes
(3) 7 minutes
(4) None of these
Ans. (4)
86.(4*4*4+3*3*3)/13 =
(1) 7
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
Ans. (1)
87. (6.25) 4÷ (6.25)3 =?
(1) 6.25
(2) 6.025
(3) 6.0025
(4) 6.002
Ans. (1)
88. The ratio between the ages of Ram and Mohan is 4:5 and that between Mohan and Anil is 5:6. If sum of the ages of three be 90 years, how old is Mohan?
(1) 24 years
(2) 20 years
(3) 30 years
(4) 25 years
Ans. (3)
89. The per cent of 2 /45 is?
(1) 3&4/9 %
(2) 4&4/9 %
(3) 4 %
(4) 9 %
Ans. (2)
90. If a x=b;b y=c and cz =a , then xyz =?
(1) 1
(2) -1
(3) 2
(4) 2
Ans. (1)
91. Match the name of countries in List-I with years of beginning of railways in List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List -I List—II
(Countries) (Year of beginning of railways)
(a) Britain 1. 1853
(b) America 2. 1829
(c) India 3. 1825
(d) France 4. 1830
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 2 1 4 3
(2) 4 1 3 2
(3) 3 4 1 2
(4) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (3)
92. The length of Indian rails is
(1) More than 5000 km
(2) More than 5630 km
(3) More than 6000 km
(4) More than 6531 km
Ans. (4)
93. Match the items of List-I with List-II and select the-correct answer by using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Largest Population) (States)
(a) Jains 1. Nagaland
(b) Buddhas 2. Rajasthan
(c) Christians 3. Maharashtra
(d) Muslims 4. Lakshadwip
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 2 1 4 3
(2) 2 3 1 4
(3) 1 2 4 3
(4) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (2)
94. The capital of the king of Punjab Ranjit Singh was
(1) Lahore
(2) Ludhiana
(3) Mathura
(4) Sri Nagar
Ans. (1)
95. Photosynthesis does not take place in
(1) plants
(2) fungi
(3) bacteria
(4) virus
Ans. (4)
96. In nucleuic protein, Uceriotic chromosomes are alike in
(1) prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase -
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)
97. Which type of protein is found in virus?
(1) Lyco protein
(2) Secondary protein
(3) Primary protein
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
98. In ionic solid, the velocity of electricity is
(1) fast
(2) weak
(3) less than solid
(4) less than gas
Ans. (1)
99. The largest phase in cell division is
(1) Liptotin
(2) Zagotin
(3) Pacotin
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
(1) Shershah
(2) Babur
(3) Akbar
(4) Jehangir
Ans. (3)
2. The Military Games were held in Hyderabad from October 17, 2007 to October 27, 2007.Which country won the highest number of medals?
(1) China
(2) Russia
(3) India
(4) Japan
Ans. (2)
3. The Railways gets the maximum income from
(1) Goods freight
(2) Passenger’s fares
(3) Advertisement
(4) None of these
Ans. (1)
4. What is sound?
(1) Energy
(2) Heat
(3) Magnet
(4) Ray
Ans. (1)
5. The chief source of heat energy is
(1) Sun light
(2) Biogas
(3) Electricity
(4) Natural gas
Ans. (1)
6. The Aravalli hills are located in
(1) Madhya Pradesh
(2) Rajasthan
(3) Assam
(4) Jharkhand
Ans. (2)
7. A plant can be disease resistant due to
(1) Pesticides
(2) Virus
(3) Fungi
(4) Bacteria
Ans. (1)
8. Which of the following Chief Ministers served for the longest tenure?
(1) Lalu Prasad
(2) Jyoti Basu
(3) Ms. Mayawati
(4) M. Karunanidhi
Ans. (2)
9. Which of the following straits separates Europe from Africa?
(1) Berring
(2) Dobar
(3) Gibralter
(4) Mulucca
Ans. (3)
10. The UN Climate Change conference was organized in Bali from December 3, 2007 to December 14, 2007 for 12 days in which 1000 people participated .Bali is situated in
(1) Indonesia
(2) Malaysia
(3) Morocco
(4) China
Ans. (1)
11. The description of caste system is found in
(1) Rig Veda
(2) Sam Veda
(3) Yajurva Veda
(4) Atharva Veda
Ans. (1)
12. Who is called the Akbar of Kashmir?
(1) Janulabeddin
(2) Sikandar
(3) Queen Didda
(4) Emperor Sangram Singh
Ans. (1)
13. The Border Road Organization comes under
(1) Defense
(2) Urban Development
(3) Corporate sector
(4) Private sector
Ans. (1)
14. Which of the following corporations was started first by the Government of India?
(1) Damodar Valley Corporation
(2) National Thermal Power Corporation
(3) National Hydel Power Corporation
(4) All the above
Ans. (1)
15. Which of the following is not a part of three gems of the Buddhism?
(1) Buddha
(2) Sangha
(3) Dhamma
(4) Ahimsa
Ans. (4)
16. Who was the first Indian to reach Antarctica?
(1) Rakesh Sharma
(2) G.S. Sirohi
(3) B.K. Dutta
(4) K. Karuna Nautial
Ans. (2)
17. A saturated solution at S.T.P. is
(1) Colorless
(2) Green
(3) Red
(4) Red and green
Ans. (1)
18. The pure element in the following is
(1) Glass
(2) Diamond
(3) Lime
(4) Salt
Ans. (2)
19. What is gypsum?
(1) Lime
(2) Bleaching powder
(3) Blue vitriol
(4) Ammonium chloride powder
Ans. (3)
20. Bones of horses of Harappan civilization were found at
(1) Lothal
(2) Harappa
(3) Surkotada
(4) Mohanjodero
Ans. (3)
21. What is Ag-mark?
(1) Technique to increase agricultural productivity
(2) Green Revolution
(3) Test of purity in the production of vegetable oil etc.
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
22. Who has taken the highest number of wickets in Test Cricket?
(11) Muttiah Muralitharan
(2) Shane Warne
(3) Anil Kumble
(4) Shoaib Akhtar
Ans. (1)
23. In 1947, 532 princely states were annexed to India except three. Which of the following was not among the three princely states?
(1) Junagarha
(2) Bhavnagar
(3) Hyderabad
(4) Kashmir
Ans. (4)
24. Which of the following gases is used to prepare Ammonia gas?
(1) Nitrogen and oxygen
(2) Nitrogen and oxide
(3) Nitrogen and hydrogen
(4) Nitrogen and carbon
Ans. (3)
25. In which of the following states of India, per capita income is highest?
(1) Orissa
(2) Assam
(3) Manipur
(4) Kerala
Ans. (4)
26. By import of — the inflation has been caused in India?
(1) Wheat
(2) Rice
(3) Sugar
(4) Petroleum
Ans. (4)
27. The meeting of Commonwealth Nations was held in Uganda on November 25, 2007. Who was elected its General Secretary?
(1) Mahesh Sharma
(2) Kamlesh Sharma
(3) Bimalesh Sharma
(4) Kailash Sharma
Ans. (2)
28. In which country the Hindu temples were razed to the ground in
December, 2007?
(1) Indonesia
(2) Malaysia
(3) Mauritius
(4) Afghanistan
Ans. (2)
Directions (29 — 33) : Read the following passage carefully and then answer the following questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage by choosing the best answer to each question out of given four options.
On hearing the news of the massacre at Jallianwala Bagh, Udham Singh did not attend his school but took a train to Armritsar and visited the spot. There, he stood for several minutes in a trance, picked up the soil, rubbed it on his forehead and put some in a phial. He fasted that night. According to his family members he placed fresh flowers on the holy dust every morning, drawing inspiration from it. One early morning he went to the river Ravi and pledged that he would Colour its waters with the colour of his blood, to create what he called the freedom’s flood. With this aim in view in 1921, he first landed in Africa. From there he went to America to meet the Indian revolutionaries working for the liberation of the motherland.
In 1923, he landed in England. In 1928, he returned to India in response to an urgent call from Bhagat Singh. When he reached Lahore, he was detained for violation of the Arms Act. He was released after four years rigorous imprisonment. In 1935, he escaped to Germany by giving a slip to the police. From Berlin, he reached Paris and purchased a revolver. He kept it ready for action and managed to reach London again. Opportunity came on March 13, 1940 when Sir Michael O’ Dwyer was to speak at a seminar in the Caxton Hall. As Sir Michael turned to resume his seat after the speech. Udham Singh pulled out his revolver and fired at him, Sir Michael died without a shriek. Udham
Singh was arrested and produced before the court on April 2, 1940. The court passed death sentence on him and he was hanged at Pentonville Prison, London on July 3, 1940.
29. Udham Singh went to America where he
(1) mobilized the Indian citizens for the liberation of the motherland
(2) collected sufficient funds to fight colonialism
(3) met fellow citizens working for the same cause
(4) went sight-seeing
Ans. (3)
30. Where did Udham Singh buy the weapon which was used for killing Sir Michael?
(1) Paris
(2) Lahore
(3) London
(4) Berlin
Ans. (1)
31. Udham Singh shot at Sir Michael O’Dwyer in
(1) Jallianwala Bagh
(2) Armritsar
(3) London
(4) Paris
Ans. (3)
32. When Udham Singh was arrest ed in Lahore, he was charged for
(1) instigating his countrymen against the Englishmen
(2) his links with anti-British forces
(3) concealing his identity and carrying on underground activities
(4) possessing unlicensed arms and ammunition
Ans. (4)
33. Udham Singh returned to India in 1928 mainly because he was:
(1) short of funds to meet his expenses
(2) to produce some arms from Lahore
(3) to escape from the British police
(4) called by a revolutionary in India
Ans. (4)
34. In the following question a word has been spelt in four different ways one of which is correct. Choose the correctly spelt word:
(1) Assemblage
(2) Asemblage
(3) Assemmblage
(4) Accemblage
Ans. (1)
35. In the following sentence, fill in the blank by choosing correct option from the given alternatives
The documents are available ? inspection.
(1) of
(2) about
(3) with
(4) for
Ans. (4)
36. In the following question, choose the Adjective.
(1) Preference
(2) Gifted
(3) Genius
(4) In vain
Ans. (2)
37. Write the synonym of the word ‘Consummate’.
(1) Novice
(2) Ambiguous
(3) Perfect
(4) Imperfect
Ans. (3)
38. Find out, which part of the following sentence has a grammatical or idiomatic error in it.
They have
(1)/held the championship
(2)/ since the past
(3)/ two years.
(4)
Ans. (3)
39. In the following question, a word has been spelt in four different ways, one of which is correct. Choose the correctly spelt word.
(1) demmurage
(2) demurrage
(3) demarrage
(4) demurage
Ans. (2)
40. In the following question, an idiomatic expression and its four possible meanings are given. Find out the correct meaning of the idiomatic expression and choose your correct answer from the given four choices:
Play one’s cards well
(1) A good gambler displaying skills
(2) A magician showing magic of cards
(3) Use means effectively
(4) A game of gamble
Ans. (3)
41. Out of the four alternatives, choose the one that can he substituted for .the given words/ phrase and mark it as your answer.
A cock and bull story
(1) An unbelievable gossip
(2) A children’s fable
(3) A quarrelsome dialogue
(4) A competition between un equal people
Ans. (1)
42. Choose the part of the following sentence containing error and mark it as your answer:
The number of orders(1). /
for that item have(2). /
increased greatly; several of them(3). /
have come from Egypt(4).
Ans. (2)
43. Identify the part of the following sentence containing an error and choose it as your answer.
In America(1)/
Presidential elections(2) /
is held every four years(3)
No error(4)
Ans. (3)
44. In the following sentence, fill in the blank by choosing correct option from the given alternatives:
‘Ram has annoyed his boss. He ? have to leave the job.
(1) might
(2) will
(3) ought to
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)
45. In the following question, three words having different meanings of a certain word are given. Select that word from the answer choices marked (1), (2), (3) and (4).
Witness, Observer; Onlooker
(1) spectator
(2) present
(3) biased
(4) careful
Ans. (1)
46. For the following word written in capital letters, four words are listed below as (1),
(2) (3) and (4). Out of these, choose the word nearest in meaning to it as your answer:
VINDICATE
(1) approve
(2) justify
(3) express
(4) exonerate
Ans. (2)
47. In the following sentence, the bold part contains an error. Answer choice (1) repeats the original, other three are 1ifferent. If you think that the original sentence displays the best way of wording the bold part, choose your answer (1): otherwise select the best alternative from the other three choices.
“Parents and teachers are be coming increasingly concerned about protecting children and the drugs which are available to them, and several parent teacher organizations, dedicated to educating children about the dangers of drug addiction, have recently been formed.”
(1) protecting children and the drugs which are available to them
(2) protecting of children and the drugs which are available to them
(3) protecting children from the drugs available to them
(4) protecting children from the drugs availability to them
Ans. (3)
48. From the given four answer choices, select the answer that gives the clearest, most exact sentence, but do not change the meaning Of the bold part of original sentence.
Such people never have and never will be trusted.
(1) never have and never will be trusted
(2) never have and will be trust ed
(3) never have been trusted and never will be trusted
(4) never have and anyone trust them and never will have anyone
Ans. (3)
49. Which one of the following statements is untrue?
(1) The sea-floor is older than the land
(2) The first rocks were formed as a result of the cooling o. molten matter
(3) Sedimentary rocks are also called aqueous rocks because they were formed by
the agency of water
(4) Stalactites and stalagmites are deposits of lime found in caves
Ans. (3)
50. The main hydro electric power potential of the Indus river system lies in India and not in Pakistan because:
(1) the need for hydro-electric power is greater in India than in Pakistan
(2) India has superior technology to develop hydro—electric power
(3) India has a greater labour force to develop hydro electric power
(4) The mountain stages of these rivers lie in India
Ans. (4)
51. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(a) Cotton 1. Madhya Pradesh
(b) Gram 2.Gujarat
(c) Black Pepper 3. West Bengal
(d) Pine apple 4. Kerala
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 2 1 4 3
(2) 2 1 3 4
(3) 1 2 4 3
(4) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (1)
52. In the production of tidal energy the maximum potential exists at:
(1) Bhavnagar
(2) Digboi
(3) Cochin
(4) Ladakh
Ans. (1)
53. The National Highway system is the responsibility of
(1) State governments
(2) Central governments
(3) Central and State governments
(4) Local body governments
Ans. (3)
54. Supersonic jets cause pollution by thinning of
(1) Sulphur dioxide layer
(2) Carbon dioxide layer
(3) Ozone layer
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
55. Which one of the following is commonly called Edible sponge mushroom’?
(1) Sargassum
(2) Morchella
(3) Agaricus
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
56. Which of the following is not an essential function of the skin in the human body?
(1) protects the internal or of the body
(2) acts as a sensory organ
(3) regulates the temperature of the body
(4) gives shape to the body
Ans. (4)
57. The device used for converting alternating current to direct current is called
(1) Inverter
(2) Rectifier
(3) Transmitter
(4) Transformer
Ans. (2)
58. Water is used in hot water bottles because:
(1) it is easily obtained in pure form
(2) it has high specific heat
(3) it is cheaper and not harmful
(4) it is easy to heat water
Ans. (2)
59. Mention the ray which appears to originate outside the earth.
(1) cosmic ray
(2) the ultra-violet ray
(3) the alpha ray
(4) the beta ray
Ans. (1)
60. A person cannot see objects clearly which are nearer than 75 cms from his eyes. What disease is he suffering from?
(1) Astigmatism
(2) Colour-blindness
(3) Myopia
(4) Hypermetropia
Ans. (4)
61. Oil rises up to wick in a lamp because
(1) oil is volatile
(2) oil is very light
(3) of the surface tension phenomenon
(4) of the diffusion of oil through the wick
Ans. (3)
62. Following Railway Training Institutes have been indicated with the cities where they are located. Find out which is wrongly matched.
(1) Railway Staff College — Vadodara
(2) Indian Railway Institute of Civil Engineering — Pune
(3) Indian Railway Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering —Jamalpur
(4) Indian Railway Institute Signal and Tele Communication Engineering — Mumbai
Ans. (4)
63. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given four options:
List -I List-II
(Zonal Railway) (Head Quarter)
(a) North Central Railway 1. Bilaspur
(b) South-East Central Railway 2. Allahabad
(c) West Central Railway 3. Jabalpur
(d) East Coast Railway 4. Bhubaneshwar
Code.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 2 1 3 4
(2) 1 2 3 4
(3) 2 3 4 1
(4) 4 1 3 2
Ans. (1)
64. In Indian Railways Network, approximately how many passenger service vehicles (passenger coaches) are working?
(1) 44,100
(2) 33.000
(3) 49,000
(4) 54,000
Ans. (2)
65. Who is the principal head of the Department of a Station Master in Zonal Railway Head Quarter Office?
(1) Chief Commercial Manager
(2) Chief Safety Officer
(3) Chief Personnel Officer
(4) Chief Operations Manager
Ans. (4)
66. Two new zones named North Western Railway and East Central Railway become functional/ operational from?
(1) October 1, 2002
(2) April 1, 2002
(3) April 1, 2003
(4) October 1, 2003
Ans. (1)
67. In one of the following State, though the Konkan Railway line does not pass through it, yet it has capital share in the K.R. Corporation. Name the State.
(1) Karnataka
(2) Goa
(3) Tamil Nadu
(4) Kerala
Ans. (3)
68. All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the Vice- President of India are decided by the
(1) High Court of a State
(2) Chief Election Commissioner
(3) Supreme Court of India
(4) President of India
Ans. (3)
69. Consider the following functionaries
1. Union Cabinet Secretary
2. Chief Election Commissioner
3. Union Cabinet Ministers
4. Chief Justice of India
Their correct sequence, in the order of precedence is
(1) 3, 4, 2, 1
(2) 4, 3, 1, 2
(3) 4, 3, 2, 1
(4) 3. 4, 1, 2
Ans. (3)
70. The basic structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that
(1) Certain features of the Constitution are so essential to it that they cannot be abrogated
(2) Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged or taken away
(3) The Constitution cannot be amended except in accordance with the procedure prescribed in Article 368
(4) The Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended
Ans. (1)
71. Which of the following enjoys the constitutional status?
1. Finance Commission
2. Planning Commission
3. Zonal Council
4. National Development Council
5. Election Commission
6. University Grants Commission
(1) 1, 3 and 5
(2) l and 5
(3) 1, 2, 5 and 6
(4) 1, 3, 5 and 6
Ans. (2)
72. The ultimate responsibility of taking due action on the comments of the Comptroller and Auditor General vests with
(1) President of India
(2) Supreme Court of India
(3) Parliament of India
(4) National Development Council
Ans. (1)
73. Mohit said to Neelam, “Your only brother’s son is my wife’s brother.” How is Neelam related to the wife of Mohit?
(1) aunt
(2) mother-in-law
(3) sister
(4) cannot be determined
Ans. (1)
74. A tourist drives 10 km towards East and turns to right hand side and takes a drive of another 3 km. He then drives towards West (turning to his right) another 3 km. He then turns to his left and walks another 2 km. Afterwards, he turns to his right and travels 7 km. How far is he from his starting point and in which direction?
(1) 10 km—East
(2) 9 km— North
(3) 8 km— West
(4) 5 km—South
Ans. (4)
75. The question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. Decide the ‘Strong’ and ‘Weak’ arguments and give answer out of four given options ‘1’, ‘2’, ‘3’ and ‘4’
Question:
Should all the professional colleges in India be encouraged to run their own courses without affiliation to any university?
Arguments:
(I) Yes, this is the only way to create more opportunities for those who seek professional training.
(II) No, this will dilute the quality of professional training as all such colleges may not be equipped to conduct such courses.
(1) Only argument I is strong
(2) Only argument II is strong
(3) Both I and II are strong
(4) Neither I nor II is strong
Ans. (2)
76. Statement: “Please do not wait for me; I may be late, start taking lunch as soon as the guests arrive.” — a message from a director of a company to his office managers.-
Assumptions:
I. Keeping guests waiting is not desirable.
II. Lunch may not be ready in time.
Consider the above statement and two assumptions to decide as to which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Choose the correct answer from the given options 1, 2, 3 and 4.
(1) Only assumption I is implicit
(2) Only assumption II is implicit
(3) Both I and II are implicit
(4) Neither I nor II is implicit
Ans. (1)
77. How many Asian countries are there in Common wealth?
(1) 49
(2) 51
(3) 54
(4) 57
Ans. (3)
78. Khan Abdul Gaffer Khan’s which action; performed in favour of Indian independence, but was against the English men?
(1) Formation of Lal-Kurti sena
(2) Assassination of an Englishman
(3) Trade of red shirts
(4) Demand for Pakhtunistan
Ans. (1)
79. On selling an article for Rs. 270 there is a gain of 12.5%. What
is its cost price?
(1) Rs. 240
(2) Rs. 220
(3) Rs. 210
(4) Rs. 250
Ans. (1)
80. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1: 2: 3. The greatest angle will be
(1) 60°
(2) 30°
(3) 90°
(4) 75°
Ans. (3)
81. The compound interest on Rs. 2500 at the rate of 6% p.a. after 2 years will be
(1) Rs. 309
(2) Rs. 318
(3) Rs. 320
(4) None of these
Ans. (1)
82. (999)2 – (998)22=?
(1) 1995
(2) 1998
(3) 1997
(4) 1992
Ans. (3)
83. A man covers a distance of 6 km at the rate 4 kmph and other 4 km at 3 kmph. His average speed is
(1) 9&13/7 kmph
(2) 3&9/17 kmph
(3) 5&9/17 kmph
(4) 3 & 5/9 kmph
Ans. (2)
84. The cost price of an article is Rs. 7840. To gain 7%, the article should be sold at
(1) Rs. 8388.80
(2) Rs. 8000
(3) Rs. 8383.80
(4) Rs. 8833.80
Ans. (1)
85. Two pipes can fill a tank in 10 minutes and 30 minutes respectively and a third pipe can empty the full tank in 20 minutes. If all the three pipes are opened simultaneously, the tank will be
(1) 10 minutes
(2) 8 minutes
(3) 7 minutes
(4) None of these
Ans. (4)
86.(4*4*4+3*3*3)/13 =
(1) 7
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
Ans. (1)
87. (6.25) 4÷ (6.25)3 =?
(1) 6.25
(2) 6.025
(3) 6.0025
(4) 6.002
Ans. (1)
88. The ratio between the ages of Ram and Mohan is 4:5 and that between Mohan and Anil is 5:6. If sum of the ages of three be 90 years, how old is Mohan?
(1) 24 years
(2) 20 years
(3) 30 years
(4) 25 years
Ans. (3)
89. The per cent of 2 /45 is?
(1) 3&4/9 %
(2) 4&4/9 %
(3) 4 %
(4) 9 %
Ans. (2)
90. If a x=b;b y=c and cz =a , then xyz =?
(1) 1
(2) -1
(3) 2
(4) 2
Ans. (1)
91. Match the name of countries in List-I with years of beginning of railways in List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List -I List—II
(Countries) (Year of beginning of railways)
(a) Britain 1. 1853
(b) America 2. 1829
(c) India 3. 1825
(d) France 4. 1830
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 2 1 4 3
(2) 4 1 3 2
(3) 3 4 1 2
(4) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (3)
92. The length of Indian rails is
(1) More than 5000 km
(2) More than 5630 km
(3) More than 6000 km
(4) More than 6531 km
Ans. (4)
93. Match the items of List-I with List-II and select the-correct answer by using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Largest Population) (States)
(a) Jains 1. Nagaland
(b) Buddhas 2. Rajasthan
(c) Christians 3. Maharashtra
(d) Muslims 4. Lakshadwip
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 2 1 4 3
(2) 2 3 1 4
(3) 1 2 4 3
(4) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (2)
94. The capital of the king of Punjab Ranjit Singh was
(1) Lahore
(2) Ludhiana
(3) Mathura
(4) Sri Nagar
Ans. (1)
95. Photosynthesis does not take place in
(1) plants
(2) fungi
(3) bacteria
(4) virus
Ans. (4)
96. In nucleuic protein, Uceriotic chromosomes are alike in
(1) prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase -
(4) None of these
Ans. (2)
97. Which type of protein is found in virus?
(1) Lyco protein
(2) Secondary protein
(3) Primary protein
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
98. In ionic solid, the velocity of electricity is
(1) fast
(2) weak
(3) less than solid
(4) less than gas
Ans. (1)
99. The largest phase in cell division is
(1) Liptotin
(2) Zagotin
(3) Pacotin
(4) None of these
Ans. (3)
RRB MODEL QUESTIONS
1. The limiting value of super elevation of board gauge in Indian Railways is:
(a) 16.50 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 10 cm
Ans : A
2. Which of the following is not a part of rail engine?
(a) Tender (b) Stream turbine (c) Boiler (d) Fire box
Ans : B
3. The staggered rails joints are usually provided on:
(a) Bridge (b) Curves (c) Branching (d) Tangents
Ans : B
4. In broad gauge, the clear horizontal distance between the inner faces of two parallel rails forming the track is:
(a) 1 m (b) 1.676 m (c) 0.6096 m (d) 0.792 m
Ans : B
5. Generally the shape of fish plate is:
(a) elliptical (b) bone shaped (c) circular (d) rectangular
Ans : B
6. The track capacity can be increased by:
(a) Faster movement of trains on the track
(b) By using more powerful engines
(c) All the above
(d) None of the above
Ans : C
7. Detonating signals are used:
(a) for noisy engines
(b) during foggy and cloudy weather
(c) for deaf drivers
(d) not now, were in use in nineteenth century only
Ans : B
8. Wider gauge permits:
(a) sleeper gradients (b) low axle load
(c) higher operating speeds (d) sharp curves
Ans : C
9. The railway station at which a track line meets a main line is called:
(a) terminal station (b) flag station
(c) way side station (d) junction station
Ans : D
10. Points and crossings are provided for change of ….on permanent ways.
(a) gauge (b) direction and gradient
(c) direction (d) gradient
Ans : C
11. The chart used for recording the condition of track is known as:
(a) Rolling chart (b) Track chart
(c) Hallade chart (d) Vibro chart
Ans: C
12. The most common system of signaling in India is the …… system.
(a) automatic block (b) section clear system
(c) absolute block (d) pilot guard system
Ans : C
13. The feeder gauge …. is commonly used for feeding raw materials to big Government manufacturing concerns as well as to private factories such as steel plants, oil refineries, sugar factories etc.
(a) 0.6096 m (b) 0.792 m (c) 1m (d) 1.676 m
Ans : A
14. A parabolic curve introduced between straight and a circular curve or between two branches of a compound curve for ease, comfort and safety of movement of trains on curve is called:
(a) Spur curve (b) Transition curve
(c) Summit curve (d) Valley curve
Ans : B
15. The railway track from which a train is to be diverted is called:
(a) branch track (b) points and crossing
(c) main or through track (d) all above
Ans : C
16. An expansion gap of …. is usually kept between the adjoining rail ends to allow for expansion of rail, due to variation in temperature.
(a) 1 to 3 mm (b) 10 to 15 mm
(c) 6 to 8 mm (d) 3 to 5 mm
Ans : C
17. Which one of the following bolts is not used in rail track:
(a) Fang bolt (b) Eye bolt (c) Rag bolt (d) Fish bolt
Ans : B
18. The gradient which requires one or more additional locomotive for hauling the load over the gradient is called:
(a) Up-gradient (b) Pusher gradient
(c) Steep gradient (d) Momentum gradient
Ans : B
19. In locomotive ‘hunting’ is:
(a) Movement of locomotive in vertical plane perpendicular to its movement along the track
(b) Sinuous path taken by engine as against the alignment of the track
(c) Motion after brakes have been applied
(d) Combination of A and B above
Ans : D
20. The rails which get battered due to action of wheels over the end of the rails are called:
(a) Hogged rails (b) Roaring rails
(c) Creep rails (d) Bucking rails
Ans : A
21. As per Indian standard, the recommended width of ballast section at foot level of rails for broad gauge tracks should be:
(a) 4.38 m (b) 3.35 m (c) 1.83 m (d) 2.25 m
Ans : B
22. The minimum length of a passenger platform for broad gauge railway should not be less than:
(a) 305 m (b) 183 m (c) 495 m (d) 250 m
Ans : A
23. For wooden sleepers, size of the ballast should be:
(a) 2.54 cm (b) 10.16 cm (c) 3.8 cm (d) 5.1 cm
Ans : C
24. The length of track under the control of a Ganger is:
(a) 10 to 15 Km (b) 5 to 6 KM
(c) 3 to 5 KM (d) 1 to 2 KM
Ans : B
25. The maximum rising gradient which is provided keeping the power of locomotive in view, is called
(a) Momentum gradient (b) Pusher gradient
(c) Down gradient (d) Ruling gradient
Ans : D
26. The latest system of signaling introduced is:
(a) C.T.C. system (b) pilot guard system
(c) section clear system (d) automatic block system
Ans : A
27. The maximum gradient for broad gauge in station yards in Indian Railways is:
(a) 1 in 100 (b) 1 in 1000 (c) 1in 200 (d) 1 in 400
Ans : D
28. The force which resists the forward movement and speed of train is called:
(a) Track modulus (b) Hauling resistance
(c) friction (d) Tractive resistance
Ans : D
29. The number of fish bolts used for joining the rails with the help of fish plates, is generally:
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 6
Ans : A
30. The Railways provided underground at a depth of about 18 m or more are called:
(a) Mono railway (b) Underground railway
(c) Railway (d) Tube railway
Ans : D
31. The creep in rails is measured in:
(a) cm/kg (b) cm (c) Kg/cm (d) kg cm
Ans : B
32. The art of providing an outward slope of …. to the treads of wheels of rolling stock is known as coning of wheels.
(a) 1 in 30 (b) 1 in 10 (c) 1 in 4 (d) 1 in 20
Ans : D
33. The process of connecting a track length by an electric circuit is known as track circuiting and the sleepers which are suitable for it are:
(a) cast iron sleepers (b) steel sleepers
(c) wooden sleepers (d) all above are suitable
Ans : C
34. The yard where trains and other loads are received, sorted out, trains formed and dispatched onwards are known as:
(a) locomotive yard (b) goods yard
(c) marshalling yard (d) station yard
Ans : C
35. Which one of the following is expected to have shorter life?
(a) Steam engine (b) Diesel engine
(c) Electric engine (d) Shunting engine
And : B
36. The movable end of the tapered rail, by means of which the flanged wheels of the train are diverted from one track to another is known as:
(a) Toe (b) Stud (c) Heel (d) Flare
Ans : A
37. When a rail loses its weight by 5%, it should be renewed and the old one can be used on unimportant tracks, but the rails which have lost their weight by more than …., should not be used on any track under any circumstances.
(a) 8% (b) 33.3% (c) 10% (d) 20%
Ans : C
38. A dynamometer car is used for:
(a) Tourists (b) Dinning facilities
(c) Inspection of administrative officers
(d) Recording the condition of track
Ans : D
39. When a railway line crosses a valley, a ridge like structure consisting of a series of piers, piles or trestles on which steel girders are placed and which is constructed usually for small spans is known as:
(a) Bridge (b) Tunnel (c) Viaduct (d) Aqueduct
Ans : C
40. The movable tapered end of the tongue rail is known as:
(a) heel of switch (b) toe of switch
(c) stretcher bar (d) throw of switch
Ans : B
41. In railways, super elevation is provided to:
(a) facilitate drainage
(b) counteract the centrifugal push
(c) counteract the centripetal pull
(d) have all the effects mentioned above
Ans : B
42. The rails which help in channelising the wheels in their proper routes are known as:
(a) Guard rails (b) Wing rails? (c) Check rails (d) Lead rails
Ans : B
43. The shape of wheels of rolling stock is:
(a) Tapered with flange on outside
(b) Parallel with flange on inside
(c) Tapered with flange on inside
(d) Parallel with flange on outside
Ans : C
44. The tractive resistance of the route in railways as compared to roadways will be:
(a) same (b) more (c) low (d) not comparable
Ans : C
45. Sand is used as ballast incase of:
(a) steel sleepers
(b) wooden sleepers
(c) reinforced concrete sleepers
(d) cast iron sleepers
Ans : D
46. Arm type fixed signals, fitted on a vertical post fixed at the side of a track, are called:
(a) Warner signals (b) Starter signals
(c) Semaphore signals (d) Cab signals
Ans : C
47. The Railway provided just below the ground level are called:
(a) Tube railway (b) Underground railway
(c) Mono railway (d) Railway
Ans : B
48. Creeping of rails will be reduced by using:
(a) Bearing plates (b) Spikes (c) Chairs (d) Anchors
Ans : D
49. Generally the weight/metre of the rails used in broad gauge is:
(a) 55 kg (b) 45 kg (c) 35 kg (d) 65 kg
Ans : A
50. The additional track connected to main line at both of its ends is called:
(a) running line (b) loop line
(c) main line (d) none are correct
Ans : B
(a) 16.50 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 10 cm
Ans : A
2. Which of the following is not a part of rail engine?
(a) Tender (b) Stream turbine (c) Boiler (d) Fire box
Ans : B
3. The staggered rails joints are usually provided on:
(a) Bridge (b) Curves (c) Branching (d) Tangents
Ans : B
4. In broad gauge, the clear horizontal distance between the inner faces of two parallel rails forming the track is:
(a) 1 m (b) 1.676 m (c) 0.6096 m (d) 0.792 m
Ans : B
5. Generally the shape of fish plate is:
(a) elliptical (b) bone shaped (c) circular (d) rectangular
Ans : B
6. The track capacity can be increased by:
(a) Faster movement of trains on the track
(b) By using more powerful engines
(c) All the above
(d) None of the above
Ans : C
7. Detonating signals are used:
(a) for noisy engines
(b) during foggy and cloudy weather
(c) for deaf drivers
(d) not now, were in use in nineteenth century only
Ans : B
8. Wider gauge permits:
(a) sleeper gradients (b) low axle load
(c) higher operating speeds (d) sharp curves
Ans : C
9. The railway station at which a track line meets a main line is called:
(a) terminal station (b) flag station
(c) way side station (d) junction station
Ans : D
10. Points and crossings are provided for change of ….on permanent ways.
(a) gauge (b) direction and gradient
(c) direction (d) gradient
Ans : C
11. The chart used for recording the condition of track is known as:
(a) Rolling chart (b) Track chart
(c) Hallade chart (d) Vibro chart
Ans: C
12. The most common system of signaling in India is the …… system.
(a) automatic block (b) section clear system
(c) absolute block (d) pilot guard system
Ans : C
13. The feeder gauge …. is commonly used for feeding raw materials to big Government manufacturing concerns as well as to private factories such as steel plants, oil refineries, sugar factories etc.
(a) 0.6096 m (b) 0.792 m (c) 1m (d) 1.676 m
Ans : A
14. A parabolic curve introduced between straight and a circular curve or between two branches of a compound curve for ease, comfort and safety of movement of trains on curve is called:
(a) Spur curve (b) Transition curve
(c) Summit curve (d) Valley curve
Ans : B
15. The railway track from which a train is to be diverted is called:
(a) branch track (b) points and crossing
(c) main or through track (d) all above
Ans : C
16. An expansion gap of …. is usually kept between the adjoining rail ends to allow for expansion of rail, due to variation in temperature.
(a) 1 to 3 mm (b) 10 to 15 mm
(c) 6 to 8 mm (d) 3 to 5 mm
Ans : C
17. Which one of the following bolts is not used in rail track:
(a) Fang bolt (b) Eye bolt (c) Rag bolt (d) Fish bolt
Ans : B
18. The gradient which requires one or more additional locomotive for hauling the load over the gradient is called:
(a) Up-gradient (b) Pusher gradient
(c) Steep gradient (d) Momentum gradient
Ans : B
19. In locomotive ‘hunting’ is:
(a) Movement of locomotive in vertical plane perpendicular to its movement along the track
(b) Sinuous path taken by engine as against the alignment of the track
(c) Motion after brakes have been applied
(d) Combination of A and B above
Ans : D
20. The rails which get battered due to action of wheels over the end of the rails are called:
(a) Hogged rails (b) Roaring rails
(c) Creep rails (d) Bucking rails
Ans : A
21. As per Indian standard, the recommended width of ballast section at foot level of rails for broad gauge tracks should be:
(a) 4.38 m (b) 3.35 m (c) 1.83 m (d) 2.25 m
Ans : B
22. The minimum length of a passenger platform for broad gauge railway should not be less than:
(a) 305 m (b) 183 m (c) 495 m (d) 250 m
Ans : A
23. For wooden sleepers, size of the ballast should be:
(a) 2.54 cm (b) 10.16 cm (c) 3.8 cm (d) 5.1 cm
Ans : C
24. The length of track under the control of a Ganger is:
(a) 10 to 15 Km (b) 5 to 6 KM
(c) 3 to 5 KM (d) 1 to 2 KM
Ans : B
25. The maximum rising gradient which is provided keeping the power of locomotive in view, is called
(a) Momentum gradient (b) Pusher gradient
(c) Down gradient (d) Ruling gradient
Ans : D
26. The latest system of signaling introduced is:
(a) C.T.C. system (b) pilot guard system
(c) section clear system (d) automatic block system
Ans : A
27. The maximum gradient for broad gauge in station yards in Indian Railways is:
(a) 1 in 100 (b) 1 in 1000 (c) 1in 200 (d) 1 in 400
Ans : D
28. The force which resists the forward movement and speed of train is called:
(a) Track modulus (b) Hauling resistance
(c) friction (d) Tractive resistance
Ans : D
29. The number of fish bolts used for joining the rails with the help of fish plates, is generally:
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 6
Ans : A
30. The Railways provided underground at a depth of about 18 m or more are called:
(a) Mono railway (b) Underground railway
(c) Railway (d) Tube railway
Ans : D
31. The creep in rails is measured in:
(a) cm/kg (b) cm (c) Kg/cm (d) kg cm
Ans : B
32. The art of providing an outward slope of …. to the treads of wheels of rolling stock is known as coning of wheels.
(a) 1 in 30 (b) 1 in 10 (c) 1 in 4 (d) 1 in 20
Ans : D
33. The process of connecting a track length by an electric circuit is known as track circuiting and the sleepers which are suitable for it are:
(a) cast iron sleepers (b) steel sleepers
(c) wooden sleepers (d) all above are suitable
Ans : C
34. The yard where trains and other loads are received, sorted out, trains formed and dispatched onwards are known as:
(a) locomotive yard (b) goods yard
(c) marshalling yard (d) station yard
Ans : C
35. Which one of the following is expected to have shorter life?
(a) Steam engine (b) Diesel engine
(c) Electric engine (d) Shunting engine
And : B
36. The movable end of the tapered rail, by means of which the flanged wheels of the train are diverted from one track to another is known as:
(a) Toe (b) Stud (c) Heel (d) Flare
Ans : A
37. When a rail loses its weight by 5%, it should be renewed and the old one can be used on unimportant tracks, but the rails which have lost their weight by more than …., should not be used on any track under any circumstances.
(a) 8% (b) 33.3% (c) 10% (d) 20%
Ans : C
38. A dynamometer car is used for:
(a) Tourists (b) Dinning facilities
(c) Inspection of administrative officers
(d) Recording the condition of track
Ans : D
39. When a railway line crosses a valley, a ridge like structure consisting of a series of piers, piles or trestles on which steel girders are placed and which is constructed usually for small spans is known as:
(a) Bridge (b) Tunnel (c) Viaduct (d) Aqueduct
Ans : C
40. The movable tapered end of the tongue rail is known as:
(a) heel of switch (b) toe of switch
(c) stretcher bar (d) throw of switch
Ans : B
41. In railways, super elevation is provided to:
(a) facilitate drainage
(b) counteract the centrifugal push
(c) counteract the centripetal pull
(d) have all the effects mentioned above
Ans : B
42. The rails which help in channelising the wheels in their proper routes are known as:
(a) Guard rails (b) Wing rails? (c) Check rails (d) Lead rails
Ans : B
43. The shape of wheels of rolling stock is:
(a) Tapered with flange on outside
(b) Parallel with flange on inside
(c) Tapered with flange on inside
(d) Parallel with flange on outside
Ans : C
44. The tractive resistance of the route in railways as compared to roadways will be:
(a) same (b) more (c) low (d) not comparable
Ans : C
45. Sand is used as ballast incase of:
(a) steel sleepers
(b) wooden sleepers
(c) reinforced concrete sleepers
(d) cast iron sleepers
Ans : D
46. Arm type fixed signals, fitted on a vertical post fixed at the side of a track, are called:
(a) Warner signals (b) Starter signals
(c) Semaphore signals (d) Cab signals
Ans : C
47. The Railway provided just below the ground level are called:
(a) Tube railway (b) Underground railway
(c) Mono railway (d) Railway
Ans : B
48. Creeping of rails will be reduced by using:
(a) Bearing plates (b) Spikes (c) Chairs (d) Anchors
Ans : D
49. Generally the weight/metre of the rails used in broad gauge is:
(a) 55 kg (b) 45 kg (c) 35 kg (d) 65 kg
Ans : A
50. The additional track connected to main line at both of its ends is called:
(a) running line (b) loop line
(c) main line (d) none are correct
Ans : B
Wednesday, February 22, 2012
Bangalore Metro Rail Corporation Limited (BMRCL)
Bangalore Metro Rail Corporation Limited (BMRCL) 3rd Floor, BMTC Complex, K.H. Road, Shanthinagar, Bagalore-560027
Bangalore Metro Rail Corporation Limited (BMRCL), invites qualified and experienced personnel for a walk-in-interview for appointment to key senior and middle level management positions on deputation / contract basis :
- Chief Engineer (Designs) : 01 post, Pay : Rs. 90000
- Chief Accounts Officer (DGM) : 01 post, Pay : Rs. 55000
- Deputy General Manager (F&A) : 01 post, Pay : Rs.55000
- Officer (Property Development) : 01 post, Pay : Rs.40000
- Stores Officer : 01 post, Pay : Rs.4000
Please visit http://www.bmrc.co.in/careers.htm for details and application form.
Wednesday, February 15, 2012
RRB(RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD)-ASSISTANT LOCO PILOT EXAM BOOK
RRB(RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD)-ASSISTANT LOCO PILOT EXAM BOOK by Dr. Lal & JAIN:
This book contain 2008,2007,2006,2005 solved question papers and some important material
Click here for reading Online:
This book contain 2008,2007,2006,2005 solved question papers and some important material
Click here for reading Online:
Sunday, February 5, 2012
DFCCIL RECRUITMENT
(Under Ministry of Railways)
5th Floor, Pragati Maidan, Metro Station Building Complex, New Delhi - 110001
DFCCIL is a Public Sector Undertaking under Ministry of Railways, Government of India. DFCCIL invites applications for the following posts :
- Executive/ Civil : 60 posts (UR-32, SC-8, ST-4, OBC-16), Age : 18-33 years, Pay Scale : Rs. 12600-32500 (IDA)
- Executive/ Electrical : 20 posts (UR-11, SC-3, ST-1, OBC-5), Age : 18-33 years, Pay Scale : Rs. 12600-32500 (IDA)
- Executive/ Singnal and Telecommunication : 20 posts (UR-11,SC-3,ST-1,OBC-5), Age : 18-33 years, Pay Scale : Rs. 12600-32500 (IDA)
Qualification : 3 years Diploma in relevant Engineering stream.
Application Fee : Rs.200/- (No fee for SC/ST/PH/Ex-SM candidates) in the paid by Bank DD in favour of DFCCIL payable at New Delhi. Candidate should write Name, Post Applied for, Mailling Address and Mobile no. in capital letters on the back side of the DD.
How to Apply : Application in the prescribed format filled in English Language only with Black Ball Point pen only should be send by ordinary post within 30 days (published on 04/02/2012) to Post Box no. 2, Indraprastha Estate Post Office, New Delhi - 110002.
Please visit http://www.dfccil.org/ for details and application format.
Tuesday, January 31, 2012
RITES LIMITED
RITES LIMITED(A Govt. of India Enterprise)
Applications are invited from young, dynamic, energetic and motivated persons of Indian Nationality for the following posts on contract basis :
- Jt. GM/ Sr.DGM Structural (Elevated) : 01 post
- Jt. GM/Sr. DGM Structural (Cut & Cover): 02 posts
- Jt. GM/Sr. DGM Structural (Tunnel works) : 02 posts
- Jt. GM/Sr. DGM Geotechnical: 02 posts
How to Apply : Apply Online at Rites website on or before 05/03/2012.
Please view http://www.rites.com/web/images/stories/uploadVacancy/GC_BLR%202012.pdf for details and online submission of the application is available at http://www.rmacsa.in/default.aspx
Monday, January 30, 2012
RRB KOLKATA TC EXAM
General Awareness
Exam Held on 05-11-20061. Who is considered the real founder of the Gupta Empire?
(a) Chandragupta II
(b) Chandragupta I
(c) Samudragupta
(d) Srigupta
2. Shahjahan ascended the Mughal throne in
(a) 1628 AD
(b) 1626 AD
(c) 1625 AD
(d) 1627 AD
3. Which is correct order?
(a) Babur, Humayun, Jahangir, Akbar, Shahjahan, Aurangzeb
(b) Babur, Humayun, Akbar, Jahangir, Shahjahan, Aurangzeb
(c) Babur, Akbar, Humayun, Shahjahan, Jahangir, Aurangzeb
(d) Babur, Humayun, Shahjahan, Akbar, Jahangir, Aurangzeb
4. Ibn Batutah visited India during the rule of
(a) Alauddin Khilji
(b) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(c) Sher Shah Suri
(d) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
5. Who was the Nawab of Bengal during ‘Battle of Plassey’?
(a) Siraj-ud-daola
(b) Mir Jafar
(c) Mir Qasim
(d) None of these
6. FIFA World Cup, 2006 was played in
(a) Germany
(b) France
(c) Spain
(d) UK
7. Munaf Patel plays which sport?
(a) Badminton
(b) Football
(c) Cricket
(d) Table-Tennis
8. The first Asian lady swimmer to have crossed the English Channel was
(a) Bula Choudhury
(b) Arati Saha
(c) Nilima Ghosh
(d) None of these
9. Which country has never won the Cricket World Cup?
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) Sri-Lanka
(d) England
10. Which cricket playing countries fight for the ‘ASHES’?
(a) Indian and Pakistan
(b) Australia and South Africa
(c) Australia and England
(d) England and West Indies
11. Who was the first Law Minister of independent India?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(d) Dr. B.R.Ambedkar
12. Who was the first speaker of the Lok-Sabha?
(a) B.R.Ambedkar
(b) G.V.Mavlankar
(c) N.Sanjeeva Reddy
(d) Dr. S.P.Mukherjee
13. How many states (except Delhi) are there in India?
(a) 28
(b) 29
(c) 25
(d) 30
14. Which country won the first World Cup Cricket?
(a) Australia
(b) India
(c) England
(d) West Indies
15. Who was the woman President of the United Nations?
(a) Sarojini Naidu
(b) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
(c) Golda Mayer
(d) Margaret Thatcher
16. Who was the first man to land on moon?
(a) Neil Armstrong
(b) Edwin
(c) Gagarin
(d) John Collins
17. One inch is equal to how many centimeters?
(a) 2.54
(b) 2.84
(c) 2.94
(d) 3.0
18. Bronze is an alloy of copper and
(a) Nickel
(b) Tin
(c) Zinc
(d) Aluminium
19. Minus 40 degree centigrade is equal to _____ degree Fahrenheit.
(a) 104
(b) 122
(c) -40
(d) None of these
20. What is the value of XC (Roman Number)?
(a) 100
(b) 40
(c) 110
(d) 90
21. The person of which of the following blood groups can accept the blood of any group?
(a) AB
(b) O
(c) A
(d) B
22. Mountain K2 is known as
(a) Everest
(b) Nanga Parbat
(c) Godwin
(d) Austen
23. Lucknow is situated on the banks of river
(a) Yamuna
(b) Tapti
(c) Shipra
(d) Gomti
24. Who won the Golden Ball Award during FIFA World Cup 2006?
(a) Ronaldo
(b) Klose
(c) Ronaldinho
(d) Zidane
25. Who is the Chief Minister of Orissa?
(a) K C Singhdeo
(b) Nandini Satyaji
(c) Navin Patnaik
(d) Rameshwar Thakur
26. Who is the Finance Minister of India?
(a) Manmohan Singh
(b) P Chidambaram
(c) Murasoli Maran
(d) Pranab Mukherjee
27. Where is the headquarters of South-East Central Railway located?
(a) Bilaspur
(b) Jabalpur
(c) Bhopal
(d) Raipur
28. Which of the following places in India receives maximum precipitation?
(a) Itanagar
(b) Mawsynram
(c) Cherrapunjee
(d) Tezpur
29. Who was elected the President of the Cricket Association of Bengal (CAB) in July 2006?
(a) Prasen Mukherjee
(b) Ajit Panja
(c) Jagmohan Dalmiya
(d) Sourav Ganguly
ANSWERS
1. (a)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (d)
5. (a)
6. (a)
7. (c)
8. (b)
9. (d)
10. (c)
11. (d)
12. (b)
13. (a)
14. (d)
15. (b)
16. (a)
17. (a)
18. (b)
19. (c)
20. (d)
21. (a)
22. (c)
23. (d)
24. (b)
25. (c)
26. (b)
27. (a)
28. (b)
29. (c)
rrb generl awareness practice questions
1. Recently, the Mittal group acquired the steel company________.
(1) Arcellor
(2) Chorus
(3) Posco
(4) Jindal
2. Where is the headquarters of UNESCO located ?
(1) Paris
(2) Oslo
(3) Rome
(4) Istanbul
3. Which of the following locations is known for missile test?
(1) Chandiput
(2) Pokharan
(3) Shri Harikota
(4) Sunderban
4. When the rate of interest is decreased to 12.5% p.a. from 13% there is a loss of Rs. 104 in the annual income. What is the principal?
(1) Rs. 20800
(2) Rs. 21200
(3) Rs. 22400
(4) Rs. 23200
5. The Kalinga battle was fought near which of the following places ?
(1) Barabati
(2) Balasore
(3) Dhouli (4) Udaygiri
6. Which least number when added to 2000 makes it exactly divisible by 19?
(1) 7
(2) 11
(3) 14
(4) 17
7. Which kind of energy is there in a stretched rubber band?
(1) Kinetic
(2) Magnetic
(3) Potential
(4) Constant
8. Which of the following places is known for path figurine painting ?
(1) Painting
(2) Raghurajpur
(3) Pipili
(4) Jajpur
9. A car covers the 13 rd of its total distance at 60 kmph. next 13 rd at 30kmph and the
remaining distance at 10 kmph, then what is the average speed of the whole journey?
(1) 33 kmph
(2) 25 kmph
(3) 20 kmph
(4) 15 kmph
10. Who is the present captain of Indian National Hockey team?
(1) Dhanraj Pillai
(2) Probodh Tirki
(3) Gaganjit Singh
(4) Dilip Tirki
11. Who built the famous Jagannath temple ?
(1) Ashoka
(2) Kharvel
(3) Jajati Keshari
(4) Chola Gangdev
12. What will be the compound interest on a sum of Rs. 6000 for 2 years at the rate of 12% per annum ?
(1) Rs. 1526
(2) Rs. 1772
(3) Rs. 1886
(4) Rs. 2072
13. Indicating towards a picture Rita tells her daughter. ‘He is the only son of my mother’s mother." How is Rita related to that man?
(1) Sister
(2) Nephew / Niece
(3) Aunt / Maternal mother (
4) Mother
14. Hindustan Zinc plant is located at
(1) Engule
(2) Udaipur
(3) Kakinanda (4) Vishakhapatnam
15. Which is the longest river of India ?
(1) Godavari
(2) Krishna
(3) Sindhu
(4) Ganges
16. At which of the following places was located an important village of old Kalinga?
(1) Puri (2) Baripada
(3) Tosali (4) Kyonjhar
17. Who was awarded first with Prime Minister prize for significant work in public administration?
(1) Y.V. Reddy
(2) Bimal Jalan
(3) N. Gopalaswamy
(4) Rajiv Chawla
18. Which part of the body is affected by Pneumonia ?
(1) Brain (
2) Heart
(3) Lungs (4) Kidney
19. The average weight of A,B and C is 70 kg but the average weight of A and B is 90 kg. What is the weight oC?
(1) 30 kg.
(2) 35 kg
(3) 40 kg.
(4) 45 kg.
20. Which river originates from Orissa and merges with Godavari?
(1) Brahmani
(2) Rushikulya
(3) Nagawali
(4) Indravati
21. The Chilka lake is famous for
(1) White Whale
(2) White Shark
(3) White Dolphin
(4) White Prawn
22. Light, radiowaves and X-rays are______ waves.
(1) Electro magnetic
(2) Nuclear
(3) Magnetic resonance
(4) Seismic
23. Which of the following is a red planet ?
(1) Jupiter (2) Mars
(3) Mercury (4) Sun
24. The ratio of A and B is 5:7. The value of A is 185, then B is equal to
(1) 129
(2) 239
(3) 259
(4) 379
25. The headquarters of World Health Organization is located at
(1) Geneva
(2) Paris
(3) Berlin
(4) Washington
Answers
1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (3) 8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (4)
11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (2) 15. (3)
16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (4)
21. (4) 22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (3) 25. (1)
Monday, January 16, 2012
RRB General Knowledge Questions
1. Which of the following countries is a land locked country in south
America?
a. Ecuador
b. Peru
c. Uruguay
d. Bolivia
Ans : d
2. Canary Islands belongs to
a. Norway
b. Spain
c. New Zealand
d. Portugal
Ans : b
3. Titan is the largest natural satellite of planet
a. Mercury
b. Venus
c. Saturn
d. Neptune
Ans : c
4. Which of the following planets rotates clock wise?
a. Pluto
b. Jupiter
c. Venus
d. Mercury
Ans : c
5. A difference of 1 degree in longitude at the Equator is equivalent
to nearly
a. 101 km
b. 111 km
c. 121 km
d. 125 km
Ans : b
6. The earliest known Indian script is
a. Mori
b. Devanagari
c. Brahmi
d. Kharosti
Ans : c
7. How many times the preamble was amended
a. once
b. twice
c. thrice
d. four times
Ans : a
8. The term socialist was added in the Preamble by the…amendment
a. 40th
b. 42nd
c. 44th
d. 49th
Ans : b
9. The state with the lowest population in India is
a. Goa
b. Tripura
c. Mizoram
d. Sikkim
Ans : d
10. Which person or organisation received the Nobel Prize three times
so far?
a. Medame Curie
b. Linus Pauling
c. Alexender Flemming
d. International Committee of the Redcross
Ans : d
11. The Finance Commission is appointed for every… year
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
Ans : c
12. Under which five year plan did agriculture show a negative growth?
a. 1st plan
b. 2nd plan
c. 3rd plan
d. 4th plan
Ans : c
13. Who is the founder of the Capital city of Agra?
a. Akbar
b. Babar
c. Sikinder Lodi
d. Mubarak Shah Sayyad
Ans: c
14. The first tide generated electricity project was established at
a. Vizhinjam, Kerala
b. Mangalore, Karnataka
c. Paradeep, Orissa
d. Vishakapattanam
Ans : a
15. National Institute of Oceanography is located in :
a. Calcutta
b. Chennai
c. Mangalore
d. Panaji
Ans : d
16. The 2004 Olympics were held in :
a. Bangkok
b. Rome
c. Athens
d. Nagasaki
Ans : c
17. Who headed the committee appointed on Kargil War ?
a. Gen. V. P. Malik
b. Gen. S. K. Sinha
c. K. Subramanyam
d. K. C. Panth
Ans : c
18. The C. K. Nayudu Trophy is related to the sport of
a. cricket
b. Hockey
c. Football
d. Chess
Ans : a
19. New York is situated on the river
a. Hudson
b. Thames
c. Danube
d. Tigris
Ans : a
20. “The Woman of the Millennium†selected by the British Broadcasting
Corporation (BBC) is
a. Margaret Thacher
b. Hillary Clinton
c. Chandrika Kumaratunga
d. Indira Gandhi
Ans : d
21. The General Assembly of United Nations meets
a. Once a year
b. twice a year
c. thrice a year
d. Once in five years
Ans : a
22. The “Common Wealth Games 2002″ will be held in
a. Toranto
b. Manchester
c. Tokyo
d. Canberra
Ans : b
23. All India Radio commenced operations in
a. 1926
b. 1936
c. 1945
d. 1947
Ans : b
24. The “Killer Instinct†is written by
a. Sulakshan Mohan
b. M.K.Santanam
c. O.P.Sabharwal
d. Subash Jain
Ans : c
25. The Secretary-General of UN is appointed by the
a. Security Council
b. Trusteeship Council
c. General Assembly
d. World Bank
Ans : c
26. Postal Voting is other wise called:
a. external voting
b. secret voting
c. plural voting
d. proxy voting
Ans : d
27. The Common Wealth of Independent states (CIS) consists of….republica?
a. 10
b. 11
c. 12
d. 13
Ans : c
28. Which of the following harbours is considered as the world’s
finest natural harbour?
a. Sydney harbour
b. Toronto harbour
c. New Jersy harbour
d. Singapore harbour
Ans : a
29. Who invented Radar?
a. Henrey Backquerel
b. Max Planck
c. Robert Watson Watt
d. Humphrey Davy
Ans : c
30. Sandal Wood trees are mostly found in…
a. Trophical Evergreen Forests
b. Tropical most Decidous
c. Alpine forests
d. Trophical Thorn Forests
Ans : d
31. The first country to legalise medically assisted suicide is
a. Switzerland
b. New Zealand
c. USA
d. Netherlands
Ans : d
31. India’s newsprint industry is mainly located in
a. Indore
b. Dehradun
c. Nepanagar
d. Nagpur
Ans : c
32. The tomb of Babur is at
a. Kabul
b. Lahore
c. Multan
d. Larkhana
Ans : a
33. The joint session of the two houses is presided by
a. the speaker
b. the president
c. chairman of Rajyasabha
d. none of these
Ans : a
34. The Gandhara school of Art was influenced most by the
a. Greeks
b. Shakas
c. persians
d. Kushans
Ans : a
35. The Simon Commission was appointed in
a. 1927
b. 1928
c. 1929
d. 1930
Ans : c
36. Sikkim became a full fledged state of the Indian Union, in the
year ?
a. 1972
b. 1973
c. 1974
d. 1975
Ans : d
37. Who is the founder of Mahabalipuram ?
a. Rajaraja Chola
b. Mahendra Varman
c. Narsimha Varman
d. Narsimha Chola
Ans : c
38. The 189th member of United Nations is
a. Palau
b. Tuvalu
c. Soloman Islands
d. Nauru
Ans : b
39. When was Burma separated from India
a. 1947
b. 1942
c. 1937
c. 1932
Ans : c
40. Which of the following country has more than 55,000 lakes?
a. Poland
b. Denmark
c. Finland
d. Norway
Ans : c
Monday, January 9, 2012
Recruitment of Scouts & Guides in Vijayawada division
Government of India
Ministry of Railways
South Central Railway
Vijayawada Division RECRUITMENT OF SCOUTS & GUIDES EMPLOYMENT NOTICE NO. 1/2011
Applications are invited in the prescribed proforma given below from the eligible Scouts & Guides candidates for Recruitment in PB-1 in scale Rs.5200-20200 with grade pay Rs.1800/- in erstwhile Group ‘D’ posts on Vijayawada Division against Scouts & Guides quota.
Download Details
Wednesday, December 28, 2011
Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd. (DMRC) Recruitment
Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd. (DMRC) A Joint Venture of Govt. of India and Govt. of Delhi
Fire Brigade Lane, Barakhamba Road, New Delhi - 110001, India
Requirement of Diploma/ Degree/ Graduate/ ITI Holders in DMRC
Applications are invited from dynamic, experienced and highly motivated persons of Indian Nationality for appointment for following category of 815 posts in DMRC :
- Station Controller/ Train Operator : 411 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.13500-25520/-
- Customer Relations Assistant : 189 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.10170-18500/-
- Jr. Engineers : 79 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.13500-25520/-
- Maintainers : 114 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 8000-14140/-
- Fire Inspector : 02 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.13500-25520/-
- Office Assistant : 07 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 10170-18500/-
- Account Assistant : 10 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 10170-18500/-
- Store Assistant : 03 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 10170-18500/-
How to Apply : Eligible and willing candidates may apply Online at DMRC website only from 30/12/2011 to 24/01/2012. Take printout of system generated registration slip and send it on or before 31/01/2012.
For further details and Apply online, Please visit http://delhimetrorail.com/career.aspx from 30/12/2011 onwards.
Sunday, December 18, 2011
Container Corporation of India Ltd. Recruitment
Container Corporation of India Ltd. (CONCOR)(A Govt. of India Undertaking)
A Blue-Chip Mini-Ratna Company Container Corporation Of India popularly known as 'CONCOR' requires the following professionals :
- Sr. Assistant (Technical) : 36 posts in various regions, Pay Scale : Rs. 9120-3%-20500, Age : 28 years.
- Assistant Supervisor (Civil) : 05 posts in various regions, Pay Scale : Rs. 11800-3%-28600, Age : 32 years.
- Stenographer Grade-I : 13 posts in various regions, Pay Scale : Rs. 9120-3%-20500, Age : 28 years.
Application Fee : The candidates (except those belong to SC/ST, PH and Ex-servicemen category) are required to pay application of fee of Rs. 150/- for 1st and third posts and Rs.250/- for second posts in the form of Demand Draft in favour of “Container Corporation of India Ltd.” payable at New Delhi.
How to Apply: Application in the prescribed format should be sent to the following address on or before 09/01/2011 :
Group General Manager (HR), Container Corporation of India Ltd., C-3, Mathura Road, Opp. Apollo Hospital, New Delhi-110076
Please view http://www.concorindia.com/upload/rectU/photo/img/pic109rect-add.pdf for details and application format.
How to Apply: Application in the prescribed format should be sent to the following address on or before 09/01/2011 :
Group General Manager (HR), Container Corporation of India Ltd., C-3, Mathura Road, Opp. Apollo Hospital, New Delhi-110076
Please view http://www.concorindia.com/upload/rectU/photo/img/pic109rect-add.pdf for details and application format.
Saturday, December 10, 2011
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