RRB BHUBANESHWAR GROUP ‘D’ EXAM SOLVED PAPER

RRB BHUBANESHWAR GROUP ‘D’ EXAM

(Held on 30.09.2007) 

 

1. Recently, the Mittal group acquired the steel company________.

(1) Arcellor

(2) Chorus

(3) Posco

(4) Jindal

2. Where is the headquarters of UNESCO located ?

(1) Paris

(2) Oslo

(3) Rome

(4) Istanbul

3. Which of the following locations is known for missile test?

(1) Chandiput

(2) Pokharan

(3) Shri Harikota

(4) Sunderban

4. When the rate of interest is decreased to 12.5% p.a. from 13% there is a loss of Rs. 104 in the annual income. What is the principal?

(1) Rs. 20800

(2) Rs. 21200

(3) Rs. 22400

(4) Rs. 23200

5. The Kalinga battle was fought near which of the following places ?

(1) Barabati

(2) Balasore

(3) Dhouli (4) Udaygiri

6. Which least number when added to 2000 makes it exactly divisible by 19?

(1) 7

(2) 11

(3) 14

(4) 17

7. Which kind of energy is there in a stretched rubber band?

(1) Kinetic

(2) Magnetic

(3) Potential

(4) Constant

8. Which of the following places is known for path figurine painting ?

(1) Painting

(2) Raghurajpur

(3) Pipili

(4) Jajpur

9. A car covers the 13 rd of its total distance at 60 kmph. next 13 rd at 30kmph and the

remaining distance at 10 kmph, then what is the average speed of the whole journey?

(1) 33 kmph

(2) 25 kmph

(3) 20 kmph

(4) 15 kmph

10. Who is the present captain of Indian National Hockey team?

(1) Dhanraj Pillai

(2) Probodh Tirki

(3) Gaganjit Singh

(4) Dilip Tirki

11. Who built the famous Jagannath temple ?

(1) Ashoka

(2) Kharvel

(3) Jajati Keshari

(4) Chola Gangdev

12. What will be the compound interest on a sum of Rs. 6000 for 2 years at the rate of 12% per annum ?

(1) Rs. 1526

(2) Rs. 1772

(3) Rs. 1886

(4) Rs. 2072

13. Indicating towards a picture Rita tells her daughter. ‘He is the only son of my mother’s mother." How is Rita related to that man?

(1) Sister

(2) Nephew / Niece

(3) Aunt / Maternal mother (

4) Mother

14. Hindustan Zinc plant is located at

(1) Engule

(2) Udaipur

(3) Kakinanda (4) Vishakhapatnam

15. Which is the longest river of India ?

(1) Godavari

(2) Krishna

(3) Sindhu

(4) Ganges

16. At which of the following places was located an important village of old Kalinga?

(1) Puri (2) Baripada

(3) Tosali (4) Kyonjhar

17. Who was awarded first with Prime Minister prize for significant work in public administration?

(1) Y.V. Reddy

(2) Bimal Jalan

(3) N. Gopalaswamy

(4) Rajiv Chawla

18. Which part of the body is affected by Pneumonia ?

(1) Brain (

2) Heart

(3) Lungs (4) Kidney

19. The average weight of A,B and C is 70 kg but the average weight of A and B is 90 kg. What is the weight oC?

(1) 30 kg.

(2) 35 kg

(3) 40 kg.

(4) 45 kg.

20. Which river originates from Orissa and merges with Godavari?

(1) Brahmani

(2) Rushikulya

(3) Nagawali

(4) Indravati

21. The Chilka lake is famous for

(1) White Whale

(2) White Shark

(3) White Dolphin

(4) White Prawn

22. Light, radiowaves and X-rays are______ waves.

(1) Electro magnetic

(2) Nuclear

(3) Magnetic resonance

(4) Seismic

23. Which of the following is a red planet ?

(1) Jupiter (2) Mars

(3) Mercury (4) Sun

24. The ratio of A and B is 5:7. The value of A is 185, then B is equal to

(1) 129

(2) 239

(3) 259

(4) 379

25. The headquarters of World Health Organization is located at

(1) Geneva

(2) Paris

(3) Berlin

(4) Washington

26. In Orissa, Mig is built at

(1) Cuttak

(2) Sambalpur

(3) Berhampur

(4) Sunaveda

27. Which of the following is the first college of Orissa?

(1) Orissa Veterinary College

(2) Revanshaw College

(3) Wurla Engineering College

(4) Government Arts College

28. Which of the following is a Hockey player?

(1) Dilip Tirki

(2) V.V.S. Lakshman

(3) W.Bhutia

(4) Pravin Thipse

29. The square root of 24649 is

(1) 127

(2) 137

(3) 157

(4) 247

30. Which of the following is a chief kharif crop in Orissa ?

(1) Jawar

(2) Bajara

(3) Rice

(4) Wheat

31. Eager : interest : : Sharp : ?

(1) Desire

(2) Height

(3) Smile

(4) Intelligence

32. The ratio of 50 ml and 2 litres is

(1) 1 : 20

(2) 1 : 25

(3) 1 : 40

(4) 1 : 80

33. Who wrote ‘My Experiments with Truth’?

(1) Jawaharlal Nehru

(2) Rabindranath Tagore

(3) M.K. Gandhi

(4) Jai Prakash Narayan

34. The deficiency of vitamin ‘C’ causes

(1) Paralysis

(2) Scurvey

(3) T.B.

(4) Jaundice

35. What will come in place of the question mark in the following number series?

16 ,21, 7, 13, 18, 6, 19, ?, ?

(1) 22 and 6

(2) 24 and 8

(3) 22 and 8

(4) 24 and 6

36. If one side of a square is decreased by 5% its area decreases by

(1) 6.75%

(2) 9.75%

(3) 12.50%

(4) 25%

37. Which of the following states is the most densely covered by forests ?

(1) Orissa

(2) Madhya Pradesh

(3) Assam

(4) Arunachal Pradesh

38. Who among the following was awarded with Nodel Prize in Physics ?

(1) J.C. Bose

(2) Hargobind Khurana

(3) S. Chandra Shekhar

(4) Amartya Sen

39. The ‘ Gateway of India’ is situated in

(1) Delhi (2) Mumbai

(3) Chennai (4) Kolkata

40. Sultan Azlan Sah Hockey Tournament 2007 was won by

(1) India (2) Pakistan

(3) South Korea (4) Australia

41. Winter crop season is known in India as

(1) Rabi (2) Winter

(3) Kharif (4) Poddu

42. 3 49 1 2 1 of ? 7 10 7 7 + + − =

(1) 15 (2) 12

(3) 13 (4)121

43. Which Indian player has taken the highest number of wickets in Test Cricket ?

(1) B.S. Bedi (2) Kapil Dev

(3) Sri Nath (4) Anil Kumble

44. The population of a city is 70000. it increases at 10% in the first year and at 20% in the following year. What will be the population after 2 years ?

(1) 77000 (2) 84000

(3) 92400 (4) 104000

45. Which river flows in India through Tibbet ?

(1) Ravi (2) Beas

(3) Brahmaputra (4) Ganges

46. The decimal equivalent of 7 gm of a kilogram is

(1) 0.7 (2) 0.07

(3) 0.007 (4) 0.0007

47. Hyderabad was earlier known as

(1) Bhagyanagar (2) Nizamabad

(3) Secunderabad (4) Golconda

48. Kullu Valley is situated in

(1) Punjab (2) Himachal Pradesh

(3) Kashmir (4) Uttarakhand

49. Muchkund power project is situated in the state of

(1) Andhra Pradesh (2) Orissa

(3) Gujarat (4) Karnataka

50. Which mountain range divides India into north and south ?

(1) Nilgiris (2) Satpura

(3) Vidhyas (4) Aravali

51. The telegraphic code was invented by

(1) S.F.B. Morse (2) Arcwright

(3) Thomas Addison (4) G.Marconi

52. In a sum of Rs. 11.70, the coins of one rupee, 50 paise and 5 paise and 5 paise are in the ratio 3: 5 :7. Find the number of 50 paise coins.

(1) 6 (2) 10

(3) 14 (4) 20

53. Which place is famous for Jain caves ?

(1) Eilora (2) Khandgiri

(3) Kapilash (4) Sarnath

54. The first successful synchronous satellite of India is

(1) SLV (2) APPLE

(3) ROHINI (4) INSAT

55. Find the missing number in the following matrix.

2	5	?
10	5	50
5	4	20

(1) 10 (2) 15

(3) 20 (4) 25

56. Which of the following places is famous for thermal power plant ?

(1) Hirakud (2) Manipal

(3) Polavaram (4) Talcher

57. Indira Gandhi Zoological park is located in

(1) Vishakhapatnam (2) Gyderabad

(3) Puri (4) Bhubaneshwar

58. The universal blood donor is

(1) Group ‘A’ (2) Group ‘B’

(3) Group ‘AB’ (4) Group ‘O’

59. Which state is the biggest producer of cotton ?

(1) Kerala (2) Karnataka

(3) Andhra Pradesh (4) Maharashtra

60. The VIBGYOR spectrum is related to

(1) Light (2) Sound

(3) Motion (4) Energy

61. Who invented telephone ?

(1) Graham Bell (2) K.G. Gillete

(3) Wright brothers (4) E. Torricelli

62. A man sells an article for Rs. 3550 and loses 19%. The cost price of the article is

(1) Rs. 4283 (2) Rs. 4350

(3) Rs. 4383 (4) Rs. 4450

63. The largest number which divides 411.752 and 1031 leaving remainder 8 in each case, is

(1) 8 (2) 11

(3) 21 (4) 31

64. The pilotless aircraft developed by DRDO whichis targeted, is

(1) Tejas (2) Vijay

(3) Lakshya (4) Varun

65. The first Indian woman justice of Supreme Court of India is

(1) Kiran Bedi (2) Brinda Karat

(3) Fatima Bibi (4) Mohini Giri

66. The instrument used to measure the intensity of earthquake is

(1) Dynamometer (2) Seismograph

(3) Fathometer (4) Magnetometer

67. The LCM of 2457,,,39612andis

(1) 118 (2) 136

(3) 359 (4) 1403

68. The first train in India was inaugurated in

(1) 1753 (2) 1784

(3) 1853 (4) 1857

69. The calculating machine was invented by

(1) Pascal (2) Bill Gates

(3) Issac Newton (4) Goodyear

70. A man travels for 4 hours. The half of the journey is covered by bus at 40 kmph and the remaining at 30 kmph by scooter. What distance did he cover?

(1) 17.5 km (2) 37.14 km

(3) 137.14 km (4) 117.5 km

71. Who is the chairman of National Human Rights Commission in India?

(1) S.Rajendra Babu (2) V.N. Kaul

(3) U.S. Mishra (4) R.C. Lahouti

72. The urban population is most in

(1) Tamil Nadu (2) West Bengal

(3) Karnataka (4) Maharashtra

73. Who wrote ‘Abhigyan Shakuntalam’?

(1) Charak (2) Harisen

(3) Bann Bhatta (4) Kalidas

74. A man buys 8 mangoes for Rs. 9 and sells them at 9 mangoes for Rs. 8. his gain or loss per cent is

(1) 10.18% loss (2) 10.18% gain

(3) 20.98% loss (4) 20.98% gain

75. Which is understood best for conducting electricity?

(1) Radiators (2) Conductors

(3) Vectors (4) Regulators

76. The other name of evergreen forests is

(1) Deciduous forests (2) Tropical forests

(3) Alpine forests (4) None of these

77. 7, 8, 10, 13, 17, ?

(1) 18 (2) 20

(3) 22 (4) 24

78. Lignite is found in abundance in

(1) Orissa (2) Andhra Pradesh

(3) Tamil Nadu (4) Karnataka

79. The western seacoast in India is known as

(1) Coromandal (2) Malabar

(3) Palk Strait (4) Konkan

80. The river called China’s sorrow is

(1) Yang te (2) Hwang Ho

(3) Three Gorges (4) Shinago

81. Fraction 32 is equivalent to what per cent?

(1) 55% (2) 75%

(3) 150% (4) 175%

82. On January 26, 1950, India became

(1) Independent (2) Democratic

(3) Republic (4) Non-aligned

83. A car moves at 120 kmph, the distance covered by it in 15 minutes, is

(1) 20 km (2) 30 km

(3) 40 km (4) 50 km

84. Who invented the cholera vaccine?

(1) Joseph Lister (2) Louis Pasteur

(3) Edward Jenner (4) Roger Beacon

85. The smallest fraction in the following is

(1) 79 (2) 59

(3) 89 (4) 57

86. The two nuclear explosions took place in

(1) Kutch (2) Andaman

(3) Pokharan (4) Sunderban

87. In a group, the grandfather and his wife, father, mother, their three sons and their wives and two daughters of each son are included. The number of women in the group is

(1) 11 (2) 13

(3) 15 (4) 17

88. A cricketer scored at an average of 52 runs in 8 matches. The average of first 5 matches was 50, the average of the last 3 matches is

(1) 51.5 (2) 52.3

(3) 53.5 (4) 55.3

89. The missile fired from ground to air is

(1) Agni (2) Trishul

(3) Naag (4) Prithvi

90. The Railway Coach factory is situated in

(1) Varanast (2) Kapurthala

(3) Chittaranjan (4) Perambur

91. If a bus covers 135 km in 3 hours. The time taken to cover 200 km at the same speed is

(1) 3.22 hrs (2) 3.44 hrs

(3) 4.22 hrs (4) 4.44 hrs

92. The vegetation has life. Who researched on it?

(1) Hargobind Khurana (2) Hippocratus

(3) Edward Jenner (4) J.C. Bose

93. Which is an ice fed river?

(1) Ganges (2) Mahanadi

(3) Tapti (4) Godavari

94. The largest among the following

(1) 719 (2) 1216

(3) 1117 (4) 1318

95. The Runn of Kutch is known for

(1) Lion (2) Tigers

(3) Herbivores (4) Wild ass

96. The first commercial noncivilian aircraft is

(1) Tejas (2) Saras

(3) Indian (4) Volan

97. For contribution in the field of trade. Padma Bhushan, 2007 was awarded to

(1) LN Mittal (2) S.B. Mittal

(3) Ratan Tata (4) Azim Premji

98. The HCF of 12984, and is10864

(1) 182 (2) 380

(3) 3320 (4) 482

99. The first Indian to get Nobel Prize is

(1) Rabindra Nath Tagore (2) C.V. Raman

(3) J.C. Bose (4) Subhash Chandra Bose

100. Which latest satellite of INSAT series was launched in 2007?

(1) INSAT – 2B (2) INSAT-2C

(3) INSAT-3D (4) INSAT-4B

101. If difference between the ages of X and Y is 12 years and the ratio of their ages is 3 : 7, they what is the age of Y ?

(1) 4 years (2) 7 years

(3) 11 years (4) 21 years

102. 6.7 + 9(8-(2.6+1.5) + 12) = ?

(1) 13.6 (2) 31.6

(3) 143.1 (4) 149.8

103. The highest prize in literature of Indian government is

(1) Literature Prize (2) Lalit Kala Puraskar

(3) Dada Saheb Phalke Puraskar (4) Jnanpith Puraskar

104. The area of a circle whose radius is 3.5 cm. is

(1) 12.5 cm^{2 (2) 22.5 cm2}

(2) 28.5 cm2 (4) 38.5 cm2

105. A sum of Rs. 6300 was lent at 5% rate of interest for 9 years. The simple interest

will be

(1) Rs. 1840 (2) Rs. 1942

(3) Rs. 2742 (4) Rs. 2835

106. In the following the Belghar wild- life sanctuary is known for

(1) Crocodile (2) Elephants

(3) Tigers (4) None of these

107. International Gandhi Prize 2006 was given to

(1) Kofi Annan (2) Desmond Tutu

(3) Yohi Sasakava (4) Sunderial Bahuguna

108. The player of tournament of World Cup Cricket 2007 was

(1) Graeme Smith (2) Muttaih Muralitharan

(3) Rahul Dravid (4) Gelnn McGrath

109. If the compound interest on a certain sum for 2 years at the rate of 10% p.a. is Rs. 630, the sum is

(1) Rs. 1000 (2) Rs. 2000

(3) Rs. 3000 (4) Rs. 4000

110. The largest gland in human body to secrete bile is

(1) Gall bladder (2) Liver

(3) Skin (4) Pancreas

111. The deepest lake of Asia is

(1) Rengali (2) Pulicut

(3) Chilka (4) Baikal

112. Chalk : Lime : : Coal : ?

(1) Carbon (2) Fire

(3) Oven (4) Chimney

113. Oriss is a chief producer of

(1) Wheat (2) Cotton

(3) Pulse (4) Jute

114. Which of the following is known for Bali journey?

(1) Cuttak (2) Paradip

(3) Gopalpur (4) Jajpur

115. In how many years will the simple interest on Rs. 6900 at the rate of 4% per annum be Rs. 2484?

(1) 4 years (2) 7 years

(3) 9 years (4) 12 years

116. In Forbes list, the richest man in the world is

(1) L.N. Mittal (2) Bill Gates

(3) Queen Elizabeth (4) George Bush

117. Jayadev belonged to

(1) Kakinada (2) Machhalipatnam

(3) Vijaywada (4) Puri

118. The study of heredity is called

(1) Anatomy (2) Cytology

(3) Psychology (4) Genetics

119. The last matches of Afro- Asian cricket championship were held in

(1) India (2) Pakistan

(3) South Africa (4) Kenya

120. Who is the first Indian spaceman?

(1) Homi Bhabha (2) Rakesh Sharma

(3) Kalpana Chawla (4) Sunita Williams

121. Which city hosted the Arab league conference?

(1) Dubai (2) Muscat

(3) Riyadh (4) Doha

122. If STORMY is coded as QVMTKA, then WINTER will be coded as

(1) UGLRCO (2) UKLVCT

(3) XKNVDT (4) XKLCVO

123. Barabat fort is situated at

(1) Cuttak (2) Khurda

(3) Warangal (4) Ahmedabad

124. The Commonwealth Games- 2010 will be held in

(1) Colombo (2) Canberra

(3) New Delhi (4) Dhaka

125. The dimensions of a rectangular hall are 5m x 4m x 3m. A window occupies an area of 4m^{2 . Without window the area of walls is}

(1) 50m2 (2) 54m2

(3) 56m2 (4) 60m2

126. The nature of carbon dioxide is

(1) Inflammable (2) Smellless

(3) Yellowish (4) Sour

127. The largest store of bauxite has been found in the district of

(1) Nellore (2) Engule

(3) Vishakhapattnam (4) Tulcher

128. X starts for his office and walks 500m straight and turns left and walks 300m. he again turns left and walks 500m. he then turns right to walk 900m. How far is he from his office?

(1) 1000 m (2) 1000 m

(3) 1200 m (4) 1300 m

129. Which of the following is a non-metallic element?

(1) Mercury (2) Manganese

(3) Carbon (4) Gold

130. In respect of territorial area, the state of Andhra Pradesh is placed at

(1) Third (2) Fourth

(3) Fifth (4) Sixth

131. The recently discovered earthlike planet has been named ______ by the European scientists.

(1) NW 581C (2) EU 581C

(3) PL 581C (4) GL 581C

132. Karnam Malleswari is related to

(1) Weightlifting (2) Wrestling

(3) Shotput (4) Long jump 1 4

133. 300 men can do a work in 16 days. To do of the work in 15 days the number of men required is

(1) 80 (2) 75

(3) 60 (4) 45

134. The south- west monsoon starts during

(1) May- June (2) June- July

(3) July – August (4) August- September

135. The chairman of the Planning Commission in India is

(1) Dr. Manmohan Singh (2) Arjun Singh

(3) P. Chidambaram (4) Pranab Mukherjee

136. Salarjung museum is located in

(1) Hyderabad (2) Delhi

(3) Kolkata (4) Ahmedabad

137. The chief foodgrain crop of Andhra Pradesh is

(1) Ragi (2) Jowar

(3) Wheat (4) Rice

138. If DEADLY is coded as GHDGOB, then MOTIVE will be coded as

(1) OQVKXG (2) NPUJWF

(3) PRWLYH (4) QSXMZI

139. If A : B = 2 :1 and B :C = 6 : 5, then A : B : C =?

(1) 2 : 6 : 5 (2) 2 : 7 : 5

(3) 4 :10 : 7 (4) 12 : 6 : 5

140. The state with lowest area is

(1) Lakshadwip (2) Pudicherry

(3) Goa (4) Delhi

141. 47 kmph is equivalent to

(1) 10.03 m/s (2) 11.04 m/s

(3) 13.05 m/s (4) 14.06 m/s

142. Rocket is launched from

(1) Balasore (2) Sri Harikota

(3) Trombay (4) Siachen

143. Who is the President of Afghanistan?

(1) Pervez Musharraf (2) Hamid Karzai

(3) M. Ahmedinejad (4) M. Abbaas

144. The first novelist of Orissa is

(1) Faqir Mohan Senapti (2) Gopinath Mohanty

(3) Anant Patnaik (4) Manoj Das

145. A trader marks his goods at 20% higher than the cost price and then allows a discount of 10%. His gain per cent is

(1) 8% (2) 10%

(3) 12% (4) 14%

146. The outermost layer of earth’s atmosphere is

(1) Troposphere (2) Lithosphere

(3) Mesosphere (4) lonosphere

147. X, Y and Z can complete a work in 7, 14 and 28 days respectively. They together can complete the work in

(1) 4 days (2) 8 days

(3) 12 days (4) 16 days

148. A 140m long train is moving at 70 kmph. It will cross a man running at 4 kmph in the same direction of train in

(1) 4.63 seconds (2) 5.63 seconds

(3) 6.63 seconds (4) 7.63 seconds

149. 25m is what per cent of 7.5 km?

(1) 33% (2) 3.3%

(3) 0.33% (4) 0.03%

150. A tap can fill a tank in 8 minutes and an other tap can empty the tank in 16 minutes. If both the taps are opened together, the tank will be filled in

(1) 8 minutes (2) 16 minutes

(3) 20 minutes (4) 24 minutes 

ANSWERS

1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (3)
6. (3) 7. (3) 8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (4)
11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (2) 15. (3)
16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (4)
21. (4) 22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (3) 25. (1)
26. (4) 27. (2) 28. (1) 29. (3) 30. (3)
31. (4) 32. (3) 33. (3) 34. (2) 35. (2)
36. (2) 37. (4) 38. (3) 39. (2) 40. (4)
41. (1) 42. (3) 43. (4) 44. (3) 45. (3)
46. (3) 47. (1) 48. (2) 49. (2) 50. (3)
51. (1) 52. (2) 53. (2) 54. (2) 55. (1)
56. (4) 57. (4) 58. (4) 59. (4) 60. (1)
61. (1) 62. (3) 63. (4) 64. (3) 65. (3)
66. (2) 67. (4) 68. (3) 69. (1) 70. (3)
71. (1) 72. (4) 73. (4) 74. (3) 75. (2)
76. (2) 77. (3) 78. (3) 79. (4) 80. (2)
81. (3) 82. (3) 83. (2) 84. (3) 85. (2)
86. (3) 87. (1) 88. (4) 89. (2) 90. (4)
91. (4) 92. (4) 93. (1) 94. (2) 95. (4)
96. (1) 97. (2) 98. (3) 99. (1) 100. (4)
101. (4) 102. (4) 103. (4) 104. (4) 105. (4)
106. (2) 107. (3) 108. (4) 109. (3) 110. (2)
111. (4) 112. (1) 113. (4) 114. (4) 115. (3)
116. (2) 117. (4) 118. (4) 119. (4) 120. (2)
121. (3) 122. (2) 123. (1) 124. (3) 125. (1)
126. (4) 127. (1) 128. (3) 129. (3) 130. (3)
131. (4) 132. (1) 133. (1) 134. (1) 135. (1)
136. (1) 137. (4) 138. (3) 139. (4) 140. (1)
141. (3) 142. (2) 143. (2) 144. (2) 145. (1)
146. (4) 147. (1) 148. (4) 149. (3) 150. (1)

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Mechanic Workshop – 106
Mechanical / Carriage and Wagon – 233
Mechanical/Electrical (Diesel Mechanical / Loko) – 56
Engineering Workshop – 01
Jig and Tools – 14
Design Mechanical – 04
Electrical / Electrical GS – 235
Electrical TRD / TRS – 68
Electrical Workshop – 04
Electrical Maintenance – 01
EWS Engineer Workshop – 03
T & C (DSL) – 06
Drawing / Design and Drawing (Electrical) – 08
electrical (Design) – 01
Signal – 62
Telecommunication – 45
Drawing / Design/Signal/S&T- 02
Track Machine – 117
Printing Press -10 

 Qualification : Engineering in concerned Subject

2. Junior Engineer

P-Way – 754
Works – 411
Bridge – 95
Drawing / Design (Civil) – 240
Design (Civil) – 26
Production Control Operations – 11
Mechanical (Workshop) – 427
Mechanical / Carriage Wagon – 525
Mechanical Electrical / Mechanical Power – 160
Engineering Workshop – 07
Civil Engineering Workshop – 15
Jig and Tools – 91
Mechanical / Design – 52
Carriage and Wagon (Design) – 12
Electrical / Electrical General / Electrical TRD – 672
Electrical (Workshop) – 37
Electrical TRS – 124
Drawing / Design -35
Electrical (Design) – 21
Signal – 269
Telecommunication - 173
Telecom Maintenance Section -01
Workshop (S & T) – 07
Design (S & T) – 09
Drawing / Signal – 34,
IT – 36
Track Machine – 49
Printing Press -11   
Qualification : Passed Engineering Diploma in concerned Subject

3. Senior Supervisor – 160 Vacancies

4. Chief Depot Material Superintendent – 37 Vacancies

5. Depot Material Superintendent – 65 Vacancies

Last Date : 9th April, 2012

1. more details visit on official website-http://rrcb.gov.in and http://www.rrbsec.org/

DMRC Executive Trainees Requirement

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd. (DMRC)
A Joint Venture of Govt. of India and Govt. of Delhi
Fire Brigade Lane, Barakhamba Road, New Delhi - 110001, India

Requirement of Executive Trainees in Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Limited (DMRC)  

Applications are invited from young,dynamic and motivated persons of Indian nationality for appoint for following category pf posts in DMRC as Junior executive level : 

• Executive Trainees : 25 posts (Civil-10, Electrical-8, Signal/Telecom-6, Architect-1), Pay Scale : Rs.20600-46500, Age : 28 years as on 01/01/12, Stipend :  Rs.25000/- p.m .

How to Apply : Apply Online at DMRC website from 05/03/2012 to 30/03/2012 only. Take a printout of the system generated application forma and send it with requisite documents/ photo by ordinary post to  DMRC Limited, Post Bag No. 9, Lodhi Road Post Office, New Delhi - 110003 on or before 04/04/2012.

Please visit http://www.eonlineapply.com/dmrc2/index.aspx for details and apply online.

Assistant Director (Administration), Jobs In Indian Railways

Indian Railways invited for filling up the following posts:-
Job Designation: Assistant Director (Administration)

Number of Positions: 01 (One)

Scale of Pay: Pay Band-2 of Rs.9300-34800/- + Grade Pay of Rs.4800/- (Rs.6500-10500 in pre-revised scale).

Educational Qualification:
1. Degree in Civil or Electrical or Mechanical Engineering from a recognized university or equivalent;or
2. Diploma in Civil or Electrical or Mechanical Engineering from a recognized University or Institute along with three years’ experience of supervisory nature in respective engineering field.

Desirable Qualification: Knowledge of upkeep of heritage sites etc.

Age Limit: The maximum age limit for appointment by deputation shall not be exceeding 56 years of age as on the closing date of receipt of the applications.

How To Apply For Opening:
The eligible officers may send their applications through proper channel in the prescribed format given at Annexure-A, to Under Secretary (E),Room No.536-A,Rail Bhavan,Raisina Road,New Delhi-110 001,within 60 days of publication of this advertisement.

Last Date To Apply: 25th April,2012

Contact Address: Indian Railways, Room No.536-A,Rail Bhavan,Raisina Road,New Delhi-110 001

Advertisement Details: Employment News (25February-2March) Page 7

RRB SOLVED PREVIOUS PAPER

1. A parabolic curve introduced between straight and a circular curve or between two branches of a compound curve for ease, comfort and safety of movement of trains on curve is called:
(a) Spur curve (b) Transition curve
(c) Summit curve (d) Valley curve
Ans : B
2. The staggered rails joints are usually provided on:
(a) Bridge (b) Curves (c) Branching (d) Tangents
Ans : B
3. The track capacity can be increased by:
(a) Faster movement of trains on the track
(b) By using more powerful engines
(c) All the above
(d) None of the above
Ans : C
4. The railway station at which a track line meets a main line is called:
(a) terminal station (b) flag station
(c) way side station (d) junction station
Ans : D
5. The limiting value of super elevation of board gauge in Indian Railways is:
(a) 16.50 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 10 cm
Ans : A
6. The chart used for recording the condition of track is known as:
(a) Rolling chart (b) Track chart
(c) Hallade chart (d) Vibro chart
Ans: C
7. The most common system of signaling in India is the …… system.
(a) automatic block (b) section clear system
(c) absolute block (d) pilot guard system
Ans : C
8. The feeder gauge …. is commonly used for feeding raw materials to big Government manufacturing concerns as well as to private factories such as steel plants, oil refineries, sugar factories etc.
(a) 0.6096 m (b) 0.792 m (c) 1m (d) 1.676 m
Ans : A
9. Which one of the following bolts is not used in rail track:
(a) Fang bolt (b) Eye bolt (c) Rag bolt (d) Fish bolt
Ans : B
10. The gradient which requires one or more additional locomotive for hauling the load over the gradient is called:
(a) Up-gradient (b) Pusher gradient
(c) Steep gradient (d) Momentum gradient
Ans : B
11. Points and crossings are provided for change of ….on permanent ways.
(a) gauge (b) direction and gradient
(c) direction (d) gradient
Ans : C
12. In locomotive ‘hunting’ is:
(a) Movement of locomotive in vertical plane perpendicular to its movement along the track
(b) Sinuous path taken by engine as against the alignment of the track
(c) Motion after brakes have been applied
(d) Combination of A and B above
Ans : D
13. The rails which get battered due to action of wheels over the end of the rails are called:
(a) Hogged rails (b) Roaring rails
(c) Creep rails (d) Bucking rails
Ans : A
14. In broad gauge, the clear horizontal distance between the inner faces of two parallel rails forming the track is:
(a) 1 m (b) 1.676 m (c) 0.6096 m (d) 0.792 m
Ans : B
15. As per Indian standard, the recommended width of ballast section at foot level of rails for broad gauge tracks should be:
(a) 4.38 m (b) 3.35 m (c) 1.83 m (d) 2.25 m
Ans : B
16. The minimum length of a passenger platform for broad gauge railway should not be less than:
(a) 305 m (b) 183 m (c) 495 m (d) 250 m
Ans : A
17. Generally the shape of fish plate is:
(a) elliptical (b) bone shaped (c) circular (d) rectangular
Ans : B
18. For wooden sleepers, size of the ballast should be:
(a) 2.54 cm (b) 10.16 cm (c) 3.8 cm (d) 5.1 cm
Ans : C
69. The length of track under the control of a Ganger is:
(a) 10 to 15 Km (b) 5 to 6 KM
(c) 3 to 5 KM (d) 1 to 2 KM
Ans : B
20. The maximum rising gradient which is provided keeping the power of locomotive in view, is called
(a) Momentum gradient (b) Pusher gradient
(c) Down gradient (d) Ruling gradient
Ans : D
21. The latest system of signaling introduced is:
(a) C.T.C. system (b) pilot guard system
(c) section clear system (d) automatic block system
Ans : A
22. Detonating signals are used:
(a) for noisy engines
(b) during foggy and cloudy weather
(c) for deaf drivers
(d) not now, were in use in nineteenth century only
Ans : B
23. The number of fish bolts used for joining the rails with the help of fish plates, is generally:
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 6
Ans : A
24. The Railways provided underground at a depth of about 18 m or more are called:
(a) Mono railway (b) Underground railway
(c) Railway (d) Tube railway
Ans : D
25. The art of providing an outward slope of …. to the treads of wheels of rolling stock is known as coning of wheels.
(a) 1 in 30 (b) 1 in 10 (c) 1 in 4 (d) 1 in 20
Ans : D
26. The process of connecting a track length by an electric circuit is known as track circuiting and the sleepers which are suitable for it are:
(a) cast iron sleepers (b) steel sleepers
(c) wooden sleepers (d) all above are suitable
Ans : C
27. The movable tapered end of the tongue rail is known as:
(a) heel of switch (b) toe of switch
(c) stretcher bar (d) throw of switch
Ans : B
28. The yard where trains and other loads are received, sorted out, trains formed and dispatched onwards are known as:
(a) locomotive yard (b) goods yard
(c) marshalling yard (d) station yard
Ans : C
29. Wider gauge permits:
(a) sleeper gradients (b) low axle load
(c) higher operating speeds (d) sharp curves
Ans : C
30. Which one of the following is expected to have shorter life?
(a) Steam engine (b) Diesel engine
(c) Electric engine (d) Shunting engine
And : B
31. The movable end of the tapered rail, by means of which the flanged wheels of the train are diverted from one track to another is known as:
(a) Toe (b) Stud (c) Heel (d) Flare
Ans : A
32. The creep in rails is measured in:
(a) cm/kg (b) cm (c) Kg/cm (d) kg cm
Ans : B
33. When a rail loses its weight by 5%, it should be renewed and the old one can be used on unimportant tracks, but the rails which have lost their weight by more than …., should not be used on any track under any circumstances.
(a) 8% (b) 33.3% (c) 10% (d) 20%
Ans : C
34. In railways, super elevation is provided to:
(a) facilitate drainage
(b) counteract the centrifugal push
(c) counteract the centripetal pull
(d) have all the effects mentioned above
Ans : B
35. The additional track connected to main line at both of its ends is called:
(a) running line (b) loop line
(c) main line (d) none are correct
Ans : B
36. The rails which help in channelising the wheels in their proper routes are known as:
(a) Guard rails (b) Wing rails? (c) Check rails (d) Lead rails
Ans : B
37. The shape of wheels of rolling stock is:
(a) Tapered with flange on outside
(b) Parallel with flange on inside
(c) Tapered with flange on inside
(d) Parallel with flange on outside
Ans : C
38. The maximum gradient for broad gauge in station yards in Indian Railways is:
(a) 1 in 100 (b) 1 in 1000 (c) 1in 200 (d) 1 in 400
Ans : D
39. The force which resists the forward movement and speed of train is called:
(a) Track modulus (b) Hauling resistance
(c) friction (d) Tractive resistance
Ans : D
4. The tractive resistance of the route in railways as compared to roadways will be:
(a) same (b) more (c) low (d) not comparable
Ans : C
41. Sand is used as ballast incase of:
(a) steel sleepers
(b) wooden sleepers
(c) reinforced concrete sleepers
(d) cast iron sleepers
Ans : D
42. Arm type fixed signals, fitted on a vertical post fixed at the side of a track, are called:
(a) Warner signals (b) Starter signals
(c) Semaphore signals (d) Cab signals
Ans : C
43. The Railway provided just below the ground level are called:
(a) Tube railway (b) Underground railway
(c) Mono railway (d) Railway
Ans : B
44. When a railway line crosses a valley, a ridge like structure consisting of a series of piers, piles or trestles on which steel girders are placed and which is constructed usually for small spans is known as:
(a) Bridge (b) Tunnel (c) Viaduct (d) Aqueduct
Ans : C
45. Creeping of rails will be reduced by using:
(a) Bearing plates (b) Spikes (c) Chairs (d) Anchors
Ans : D
46. The railway track from which a train is to be diverted is called:
(a) branch track (b) points and crossing
(c) main or through track (d) all above
Ans : C
47. An expansion gap of …. is usually kept between the adjoining rail ends to allow for expansion of rail, due to variation in temperature.
(a) 1 to 3 mm (b) 10 to 15 mm
(c) 6 to 8 mm (d) 3 to 5 mm
Ans : C
48. Generally the weight/metre of the rails used in broad gauge is:
(a) 55 kg (b) 45 kg (c) 35 kg (d) 65 kg
Ans : A
49. A dynamometer car is used for:
(a) Tourists (b) Dinning facilities
(c) Inspection of administrative officers
(d) Recording the condition of track
Ans : D
50. Which of the following is not a part of rail engine?
(a) Tender (b) Stream turbine (c) Boiler (d) Fire box
Ans : B

RRB Generl Awareness practice questions

1. Which State has the largest coastline in India?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer (a)
2. Which of the following latitudes passes through India?
(a) Equator
(b) Arctic Circle
(c) Tropic of Capricorn
(d) Tropic of Cancer
Answer (d)
3. India is the seventh largest country in the world and it covers a total area of approximately:
(a) 2700000 sq. km
(b) 3000000 sq. km
(c) 3200000 sq. km
(d) 3600000 sq. km
Answer (c)
4. Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the formation of the following states in India?
1. Sikkim
2. Mizoram
3. Goa
4. Arunachal Pradesh
(a) 3, 1, 2, 4
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 2, 4, 3
(d) 1, 4, 2, 3
Answer(c)
5. In which one of the following Islands of India is an active volcano found?
(a) Car Nicobar Island
(b) Nancowry Island
(c) Barren Island
(d) Maya Bunder Island
Answer (c)
6. Which one of the following longitudes determines the Indian standard time?
(a) 85.5 E
(b) 86.5E
(c) 84.5 E
(d) 82.5E
Answer (d)
7. Among the following Union Territories of India, which one has the largest size?
(a) Pondicherry
(b) Lakshadweep
(c) Daman and Diu
(d) Chandigarh
Answer (a)
8. Duncan Passage is situated between:
(a) Minicoy and Amindiv
(b) Minicoy and Maldives
(c) Little Andaman and Car Nicobar
(d) South Andaman and Little Andaman
Answer (d)
9. ‘Indian Standard Meridian’ passes through the states of UP, MP:
(a) AP and Karnataka
(b) AP and Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
(d) Orissa and AP
Answer (d)
10. Which foreign country is closest to Andaman Islands?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Myanmar
(c) Indonesia
(d) Pakistan
Answer (b)
11. Jharkhand does not share boundary with:
(a) West Bengal
(b) Orissa
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer (d)
12. The States which have common borders with China are:
1. Jammu and Kashmir
2. Sikkim
3. Arunachal Pradesh
4. Himachal Pradesh
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (d)
13. Consider the following statements
1. The continental shelves of Lakshadweep are originated due to coral reefs.
2. The continental shelves of western coast are due to faulting and submergence.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (c)
14. Which state amongst the following has the highest percentage of the Scheduled Caste population of State’s population?
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Punjab
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer (a)
15. The Tropic of Cancer passes through the States of:
1. Gujarat
2. Jharkhand
3. Assam
4. Mizoram
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (a)
16. Among the following States of India, which one has the oldest rock formations in the country?
(a) Assam
(b) Bihar
(c) Karnataka
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer (c)
17. Among the following States, which one has the largest forest area?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Karnataka
(c) Orissa
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer (a)
18. Port Blair – the capital of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, is located in which one of the following islands?
(a) North Andaman
(b) Little Andaman
(c) Middle Andaman
(d) South Andaman
Answer (d)
19. 28.38 N and 77.12 E are the respective latitude and longitude of which one of the following places?
(a) Jaipur
(b) Delhi
(c) Lucknow
(d) Allahabad
Answer (b)
20. What is the correct order of occurrence of the following places as one move from east to west?
(1) Murshidabad
(2) Gorakhpur
(3) Bhopal
(4) Bhavnagar
(a) 2-4-3-1
(b) 1-3-4-2
(c) 1-2-3-4
(d) 4-3-2-1
Answer (c)

RRB Junior engineer(electrical) Model Questions

1. A resistance of 10 ohm is connected across a supply of 200V. If resistance R is now connected in parallel with a 10 ohm resistance, the current drawn from the supply gets doubled. The value of unknown resistance R is
(a) 5 ohm
(b) 20 ohm
(c) 10 ohm
(d) 15 ohm
Ans : c
2. Kirchhoff’s first law is also called as
(a) voltage law
(b) Current law
(c) Mesh Current law
(d) All the above
Ans : b
3. Find the total resistance when four 3 Ohm resistance are connected in series
(a) 3 ohm
(b) 12 ohm
(c) 14 ohm
(d) 8 ohm
Ans : b
4. The practical unit of power is
(a) Joule
(b) Ampere
(c) Watt
(d) Weber
Ans : c
5. Form factor of a sine wave is
(a) 1.414
(b) 1
(c) 0
(d) 1.11
Ans : d
6. The unit of resistance is
(a) Mho
(b) ohm-m
(c) Ohms
(d) Amps
Ans :c
7. Unit of impedance is
(a) Ampere
(b) Volt
(c) Ohm
(d) mho
Ans : c
8. The close path of the flux around any current carrying circuit is referred as
Circuit.
(a) Magnetic
(b) Electric
(c) Electromagnetic
(d) None of these
Ans : a
9. The current flowing in an electrical circuit is due to the existence of
(a) mmf
(b) emf
(c) Resistance
(d) Reluctance
Ans : b
10. The magnetic flux flow through a magnetic circuit is due to
(a) mmf
(b) emf
(c) Resistance
(d) Reluctance
Ans : a
11. The on-line UPS is also called as
a. Stand-by UPS
b. Line Interactive UPS
c. Off line UPS
d. Current line UPS
Ans. b
12. ________ is used to convert alternating current to direct current.
a. Transformer
b. Diode
c. Resistor
d. Transistor
Ans. b
13. The supply voltage varies sinusoid ally and has a frequency __________ Hz.
a. 60
b. 50
c. 20
d. 10
Ans. b
14. Expression for magneto-motive force is
(a) N/I
(b) 1/NI
(c) I/N
(d) IN
Ans : d
15. Unit of mmf is
(a) Ampere /Volt
(b) Ampere- turns
(c) Volt
(d) Volt/Ampere
Ans : b
16. Magnetic field strength is equal to
(a) mmf. L
(b) L/ mmf
(c) mmf/ L
(d) 1/mmf.L
Ans : c
17. Peak inverse voltage of bridge rectifier is as that of centre-tap circuit.
a. Same
b. Twice
c. Half
d. Four times
Ans. c
18. Peak Resistance of the diode is increased when
a. Forward biased
b. Reverse biased
c. Both forward and reverse biased
d. Either a or b
Ans. b
19. The number of lines of force passing through the secondary coil S when unit current changes in the primary coil P are called
(a) Self inductance
(b) Mutual inductance
(c) Self induction
(d) Mutual induction
Ans : c
20. Unit of flux
(a) Amp- turns
(b) Weber
(c) Volts
(d) Amps
Ans : b

RRB Junior engineer(electrical) Model Questions

1. The frequency of DC current
(a) Equal to voltage magnitude
(b) 0
(c) Double of AC frequency
(d) 50 HZ
Ans : b
2. The current flowing in a purely inductive circuit of 30 mH on application of 230 V,
50 Hz single phase supply is 24.4 A. If the frequency of the applied voltage is
increased to 100 Hz the current flowing in the same circuit will be
(a) 24.4 A
(b) 48.8 A
(c) 12.2 A
(d) 6.1 A
Ans : c
3. Find the total resistance when two 3 Ohm resistances are connected in parallel.
(a) 1.11 ohms
(b) 1.5 ohms
(c) 0.707 ohms
(d) 1.23 ohms
Ans : b
4. Voltage drop in a resistance given by
(a) mmf/reluctance
(b) IR
(c) I/R
(d) VI
Ans : b
5. Off-line converter, SMPS has
a. AC input and dc output
b .DC input and dc output
c. AC input and ac output
d. None
Ans. a
6. Filter circuits are constructed by means of
a. Diode
b. Resistors
c. Transformers
d. Capacitor and inductors
Ans. d
7. Resistance of the diode is decreased when
a. Forward biased
b. Reverse biased
c. Both forward and reverse biased
d. Either a or b
Ans. a
8. In earlier time is used for voltage regulation.
a. Diode
b. Transistors
c. Vacuum tubes and glow bulbs
d. SMPS
Ans. c
9. is the equipment used during power failure.
a. Rectifier
b. Voltage regulators
c. UPS
d. SMPS
Ans. c
10. Peak factor of the sine wave is equal to
(a) 0.901
(b) 1.414
(c) 1.1
(d) 1.11
Ans :b
11. The amplitude of current of full wave rectified sinusoidal wave is 80 A, its average
value will be
(a) 25.44A
(b) 80A
(c) 40A
(d) 56.56A
Ans : a
12.Find the total current supplied to the lamp rated 100w .when supply voltage is 200 v.
(a) 1.75A
(b) 2A
(c) 0.5A
(d) 1A
(e) Ans : c
13. The power factor of a inductive circuit is
(a) Lagging
(b) Leading
(c) Zero lagging
(d) Unity
Ans : a
14. The power factor of a purely capacitive circuit is always
(a) Lagging
(b) Leading
(c) Unity
(d) Zero lagging
Ans : b
15. The overall circuit power factor of a RLC series circuit is found to be 0.898 lagging. The nature of the resultant circuit is
(a) Resistive
(b) Inductive
(c) Capacitive
(d) None of these
Ans : b
16. The maximum, rms and average value of a periodic current wave form is 100 A,
64.42A and 57.5A, respectively. The peak factor of this wave is
(a) 0.644
(b) 1.552
(c) 1.12
(d) None of these
Ans : b
17. In a parallel resistance circuit
(a) Power is same in all resistance
(b) Current is same in all resistance
(c) Voltage is same in all resistance
(d) Resistances are same
Ans : c
18. Find the total resistance when 2 Ohm and 4 Ohm resistances are in parallel.
(a) 1.33 Ohms
(b) 0.33 Ohms
(c) 2.33 Ohms
(d) 1 Ohm
Ans : a
19. Expression for mmf in terms of field strength is
(a) HI
(b) H/I
(c) HL
(d) H/L
Ans : c
20. is the property of magnetic which opposes the flow of flux through it.
(a) Resistance
(b) MMF
(c) Reluctance
(d) emf
Ans : c
21. is the property of electrical conductor which oppose the flow of current through it
(a) Reluctance
(b) emf
(c) mmf
(d) Resistance
Ans : d
22. Reluctance is expressed in
(a) Ampere Weber
(b) Ohm
(c) Ampere/Weber
(d) Volt/Ampere
Ans : c
23. Reciprocal of reluctance is termed as
(a) Conductance
(b) Permenance
(c) Permeability
(d) None of these
Ans : b
24. Ohm’s law for electric circuit will be
(a) emf= current/resistance
(b) emf= current X resistance
(c) emf= resistance/current
(d) emf= 1/( resistance X current)
Ans : b
25. Ohm’s law for magnetic circuit will be
(a) mmf= flux /resistance
(b) flux= mmf X resistance
(c) reluctance = mmf/ flux
(d) Resistance= mmf X flux
Ans : c

RRB ASM SOLVED PAPER 2009

1. The Buland Darwaja is related to
(1) Shershah

(2) Babur

(3) Akbar

(4) Jehangir

Ans. (3)

2. The Military Games were held in Hyderabad from October 17, 2007 to October 27, 2007.Which country won the highest number of medals?

(1) China

(2) Russia

(3) India

(4) Japan

Ans. (2)

3. The Railways gets the maximum income from

(1) Goods freight

(2) Passenger’s fares

(3) Advertisement

(4) None of these

Ans. (1)

4. What is sound?

(1) Energy

(2) Heat

(3) Magnet

(4) Ray

Ans. (1)

5. The chief source of heat energy is

(1) Sun light

(2) Biogas

(3) Electricity

(4) Natural gas

Ans. (1)

6. The Aravalli hills are located in

(1) Madhya Pradesh

(2) Rajasthan

(3) Assam

(4) Jharkhand

Ans. (2)

7. A plant can be disease resistant due to

(1) Pesticides

(2) Virus

(3) Fungi

(4) Bacteria

Ans. (1)

8. Which of the following Chief Ministers served for the longest tenure?

(1) Lalu Prasad

(2) Jyoti Basu

(3) Ms. Mayawati

(4) M. Karunanidhi

Ans. (2)

9. Which of the following straits separates Europe from Africa?

(1) Berring

(2) Dobar

(3) Gibralter

(4) Mulucca

Ans. (3)

10. The UN Climate Change conference was organized in Bali from December 3, 2007 to December 14, 2007 for 12 days in which 1000 people participated .Bali is situated in

(1) Indonesia

(2) Malaysia

(3) Morocco

(4) China

Ans. (1)

11. The description of caste system is found in

(1) Rig Veda

(2) Sam Veda

(3) Yajurva Veda

(4) Atharva Veda

Ans. (1)

12. Who is called the Akbar of Kashmir?

(1) Janulabeddin

(2) Sikandar

(3) Queen Didda

(4) Emperor Sangram Singh

Ans. (1)

13. The Border Road Organization comes under

(1) Defense

(2) Urban Development

(3) Corporate sector

(4) Private sector

Ans. (1)

14. Which of the following corporations was started first by the Government of India?

(1) Damodar Valley Corporation

(2) National Thermal Power Corporation

(3) National Hydel Power Corporation

(4) All the above

Ans. (1)

15. Which of the following is not a part of three gems of the Buddhism?

(1) Buddha

(2) Sangha

(3) Dhamma

(4) Ahimsa

Ans. (4)

16. Who was the first Indian to reach Antarctica?

(1) Rakesh Sharma

(2) G.S. Sirohi

(3) B.K. Dutta

(4) K. Karuna Nautial

Ans. (2)

17. A saturated solution at S.T.P. is

(1) Colorless

(2) Green

(3) Red

(4) Red and green

Ans. (1)

18. The pure element in the following is

(1) Glass

(2) Diamond

(3) Lime

(4) Salt

Ans. (2)

19. What is gypsum?

(1) Lime

(2) Bleaching powder

(3) Blue vitriol

(4) Ammonium chloride powder

Ans. (3)

20. Bones of horses of Harappan civilization were found at

(1) Lothal

(2) Harappa

(3) Surkotada

(4) Mohanjodero

Ans. (3)

21. What is Ag-mark?

(1) Technique to increase agricultural productivity

(2) Green Revolution

(3) Test of purity in the production of vegetable oil etc.

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

22. Who has taken the highest number of wickets in Test Cricket?

(11) Muttiah Muralitharan

(2) Shane Warne

(3) Anil Kumble

(4) Shoaib Akhtar

Ans. (1)

23. In 1947, 532 princely states were annexed to India except three. Which of the following was not among the three princely states?

(1) Junagarha

(2) Bhavnagar

(3) Hyderabad

(4) Kashmir

Ans. (4)

24. Which of the following gases is used to prepare Ammonia gas?

(1) Nitrogen and oxygen

(2) Nitrogen and oxide

(3) Nitrogen and hydrogen

(4) Nitrogen and carbon

Ans. (3)

25. In which of the following states of India, per capita income is highest?

(1) Orissa

(2) Assam

(3) Manipur

(4) Kerala

Ans. (4)

26. By import of — the inflation has been caused in India?

(1) Wheat

(2) Rice

(3) Sugar

(4) Petroleum

Ans. (4)

27. The meeting of Commonwealth Nations was held in Uganda on November 25, 2007. Who was elected its General Secretary?

(1) Mahesh Sharma

(2) Kamlesh Sharma

(3) Bimalesh Sharma

(4) Kailash Sharma

Ans. (2)

28. In which country the Hindu temples were razed to the ground in

December, 2007?

(1) Indonesia

(2) Malaysia

(3) Mauritius

(4) Afghanistan

Ans. (2)


Directions (29 — 33) : Read the following passage carefully and then answer the following questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage by choosing the best answer to each question out of given four options.

On hearing the news of the massacre at Jallianwala Bagh, Udham Singh did not attend his school but took a train to Armritsar and visited the spot. There, he stood for several minutes in a trance, picked up the soil, rubbed it on his forehead and put some in a phial. He fasted that night. According to his family members he placed fresh flowers on the holy dust every morning, drawing inspiration from it. One early morning he went to the river Ravi and pledged that he would Colour its waters with the colour of his blood, to create what he called the freedom’s flood. With this aim in view in 1921, he first landed in Africa. From there he went to America to meet the Indian revolutionaries working for the liberation of the motherland.

In 1923, he landed in England. In 1928, he returned to India in response to an urgent call from Bhagat Singh. When he reached Lahore, he was detained for violation of the Arms Act. He was released after four years rigorous imprisonment. In 1935, he escaped to Germany by giving a slip to the police. From Berlin, he reached Paris and purchased a revolver. He kept it ready for action and managed to reach London again. Opportunity came on March 13, 1940 when Sir Michael O’ Dwyer was to speak at a seminar in the Caxton Hall. As Sir Michael turned to resume his seat after the speech. Udham Singh pulled out his revolver and fired at him, Sir Michael died without a shriek. Udham

Singh was arrested and produced before the court on April 2, 1940. The court passed death sentence on him and he was hanged at Pentonville Prison, London on July 3, 1940.

29. Udham Singh went to America where he

(1) mobilized the Indian citizens for the liberation of the motherland

(2) collected sufficient funds to fight colonialism

(3) met fellow citizens working for the same cause

(4) went sight-seeing

Ans. (3)

30. Where did Udham Singh buy the weapon which was used for killing Sir Michael?

(1) Paris

(2) Lahore

(3) London

(4) Berlin

Ans. (1)

31. Udham Singh shot at Sir Michael O’Dwyer in

(1) Jallianwala Bagh

(2) Armritsar

(3) London

(4) Paris

Ans. (3)

32. When Udham Singh was arrest ed in Lahore, he was charged for

(1) instigating his countrymen against the Englishmen

(2) his links with anti-British forces

(3) concealing his identity and carrying on underground activities

(4) possessing unlicensed arms and ammunition

Ans. (4)

33. Udham Singh returned to India in 1928 mainly because he was:

(1) short of funds to meet his expenses

(2) to produce some arms from Lahore

(3) to escape from the British police

(4) called by a revolutionary in India

Ans. (4)

34. In the following question a word has been spelt in four different ways one of which is correct. Choose the correctly spelt word:

(1) Assemblage

(2) Asemblage

(3) Assemmblage

(4) Accemblage

Ans. (1)

35. In the following sentence, fill in the blank by choosing correct option from the given alternatives

The documents are available ? inspection.

(1) of

(2) about

(3) with

(4) for

Ans. (4)

36. In the following question, choose the Adjective.

(1) Preference

(2) Gifted

(3) Genius

(4) In vain

Ans. (2)

37. Write the synonym of the word ‘Consummate’.

(1) Novice

(2) Ambiguous

(3) Perfect

(4) Imperfect

Ans. (3)

38. Find out, which part of the following sentence has a grammatical or idiomatic error in it.

They have

(1)/held the championship

(2)/ since the past

(3)/ two years.

(4)

Ans. (3)

39. In the following question, a word has been spelt in four different ways, one of which is correct. Choose the correctly spelt word.

(1) demmurage

(2) demurrage

(3) demarrage

(4) demurage

Ans. (2)

40. In the following question, an idiomatic expression and its four possible meanings are given. Find out the correct meaning of the idiomatic expression and choose your correct answer from the given four choices:

Play one’s cards well

(1) A good gambler displaying skills

(2) A magician showing magic of cards

(3) Use means effectively

(4) A game of gamble

Ans. (3)

41. Out of the four alternatives, choose the one that can he substituted for .the given words/ phrase and mark it as your answer.

A cock and bull story

(1) An unbelievable gossip

(2) A children’s fable

(3) A quarrelsome dialogue

(4) A competition between un equal people

Ans. (1)

42. Choose the part of the following sentence containing error and mark it as your answer:

The number of orders(1). /

for that item have(2). /

increased greatly; several of them(3). /

have come from Egypt(4).

Ans. (2)

43. Identify the part of the following sentence containing an error and choose it as your answer.

In America(1)/

Presidential elections(2) /

is held every four years(3)

No error(4)

Ans. (3)

44. In the following sentence, fill in the blank by choosing correct option from the given alternatives:

‘Ram has annoyed his boss. He ? have to leave the job.

(1) might

(2) will

(3) ought to

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

45. In the following question, three words having different meanings of a certain word are given. Select that word from the answer choices marked (1), (2), (3) and (4).

Witness, Observer; Onlooker

(1) spectator

(2) present

(3) biased

(4) careful

Ans. (1)

46. For the following word written in capital letters, four words are listed below as (1),

(2) (3) and (4). Out of these, choose the word nearest in meaning to it as your answer:

VINDICATE

(1) approve

(2) justify

(3) express

(4) exonerate

Ans. (2)

47. In the following sentence, the bold part contains an error. Answer choice (1) repeats the original, other three are 1ifferent. If you think that the original sentence displays the best way of wording the bold part, choose your answer (1): otherwise select the best alternative from the other three choices.

“Parents and teachers are be coming increasingly concerned about protecting children and the drugs which are available to them, and several parent teacher organizations, dedicated to educating children about the dangers of drug addiction, have recently been formed.”

(1) protecting children and the drugs which are available to them

(2) protecting of children and the drugs which are available to them

(3) protecting children from the drugs available to them

(4) protecting children from the drugs availability to them

Ans. (3)

48. From the given four answer choices, select the answer that gives the clearest, most exact sentence, but do not change the meaning Of the bold part of original sentence.

Such people never have and never will be trusted.

(1) never have and never will be trusted

(2) never have and will be trust ed

(3) never have been trusted and never will be trusted

(4) never have and anyone trust them and never will have anyone

Ans. (3)

49. Which one of the following statements is untrue?

(1) The sea-floor is older than the land

(2) The first rocks were formed as a result of the cooling o. molten matter

(3) Sedimentary rocks are also called aqueous rocks because they were formed by

the agency of water

(4) Stalactites and stalagmites are deposits of lime found in caves

Ans. (3)

50. The main hydro electric power potential of the Indus river system lies in India and not in Pakistan because:

(1) the need for hydro-electric power is greater in India than in Pakistan

(2) India has superior technology to develop hydro—electric power

(3) India has a greater labour force to develop hydro electric power

(4) The mountain stages of these rivers lie in India

Ans. (4)

51. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List-I List-II

(a) Cotton 1. Madhya Pradesh

(b) Gram 2.Gujarat

(c) Black Pepper 3. West Bengal

(d) Pine apple 4. Kerala

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 2 1 3 4

(3) 1 2 4 3

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (1)

52. In the production of tidal energy the maximum potential exists at:

(1) Bhavnagar

(2) Digboi

(3) Cochin

(4) Ladakh

Ans. (1)

53. The National Highway system is the responsibility of

(1) State governments

(2) Central governments

(3) Central and State governments

(4) Local body governments

Ans. (3)

54. Supersonic jets cause pollution by thinning of

(1) Sulphur dioxide layer

(2) Carbon dioxide layer

(3) Ozone layer

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

55. Which one of the following is commonly called Edible sponge mushroom’?

(1) Sargassum

(2) Morchella

(3) Agaricus

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

56. Which of the following is not an essential function of the skin in the human body?

(1) protects the internal or of the body

(2) acts as a sensory organ

(3) regulates the temperature of the body

(4) gives shape to the body

Ans. (4)

57. The device used for converting alternating current to direct current is called

(1) Inverter

(2) Rectifier

(3) Transmitter

(4) Transformer

Ans. (2)

58. Water is used in hot water bottles because:

(1) it is easily obtained in pure form

(2) it has high specific heat

(3) it is cheaper and not harmful

(4) it is easy to heat water

Ans. (2)

59. Mention the ray which appears to originate outside the earth.

(1) cosmic ray

(2) the ultra-violet ray

(3) the alpha ray

(4) the beta ray

Ans. (1)

60. A person cannot see objects clearly which are nearer than 75 cms from his eyes. What disease is he suffering from?

(1) Astigmatism

(2) Colour-blindness

(3) Myopia

(4) Hypermetropia

Ans. (4)

61. Oil rises up to wick in a lamp because

(1) oil is volatile

(2) oil is very light

(3) of the surface tension phenomenon

(4) of the diffusion of oil through the wick

Ans. (3)

62. Following Railway Training Institutes have been indicated with the cities where they are located. Find out which is wrongly matched.

(1) Railway Staff College — Vadodara

(2) Indian Railway Institute of Civil Engineering — Pune

(3) Indian Railway Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering —Jamalpur

(4) Indian Railway Institute Signal and Tele Communication Engineering — Mumbai

Ans. (4)

63. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given four options:

List -I List-II

(Zonal Railway) (Head Quarter)

(a) North Central Railway 1. Bilaspur

(b) South-East Central Railway 2. Allahabad

(c) West Central Railway 3. Jabalpur

(d) East Coast Railway 4. Bhubaneshwar

Code.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 3 4

(2) 1 2 3 4

(3) 2 3 4 1

(4) 4 1 3 2

Ans. (1)

64. In Indian Railways Network, approximately how many passenger service vehicles (passenger coaches) are working?

(1) 44,100

(2) 33.000

(3) 49,000

(4) 54,000

Ans. (2)

65. Who is the principal head of the Department of a Station Master in Zonal Railway Head Quarter Office?

(1) Chief Commercial Manager

(2) Chief Safety Officer

(3) Chief Personnel Officer

(4) Chief Operations Manager

Ans. (4)

66. Two new zones named North Western Railway and East Central Railway become functional/ operational from?

(1) October 1, 2002

(2) April 1, 2002

(3) April 1, 2003

(4) October 1, 2003

Ans. (1)

67. In one of the following State, though the Konkan Railway line does not pass through it, yet it has capital share in the K.R. Corporation. Name the State.

(1) Karnataka

(2) Goa

(3) Tamil Nadu

(4) Kerala

Ans. (3)

68. All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the Vice- President of India are decided by the

(1) High Court of a State

(2) Chief Election Commissioner

(3) Supreme Court of India

(4) President of India

Ans. (3)

69. Consider the following functionaries

1. Union Cabinet Secretary

2. Chief Election Commissioner

3. Union Cabinet Ministers

4. Chief Justice of India

Their correct sequence, in the order of precedence is

(1) 3, 4, 2, 1

(2) 4, 3, 1, 2

(3) 4, 3, 2, 1

(4) 3. 4, 1, 2

Ans. (3)

70. The basic structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that

(1) Certain features of the Constitution are so essential to it that they cannot be abrogated

(2) Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged or taken away

(3) The Constitution cannot be amended except in accordance with the procedure prescribed in Article 368

(4) The Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended

Ans. (1)

71. Which of the following enjoys the constitutional status?

1. Finance Commission

2. Planning Commission

3. Zonal Council

4. National Development Council

5. Election Commission

6. University Grants Commission

(1) 1, 3 and 5

(2) l and 5

(3) 1, 2, 5 and 6

(4) 1, 3, 5 and 6

Ans. (2)

72. The ultimate responsibility of taking due action on the comments of the Comptroller and Auditor General vests with

(1) President of India

(2) Supreme Court of India

(3) Parliament of India

(4) National Development Council

Ans. (1)

73. Mohit said to Neelam, “Your only brother’s son is my wife’s brother.” How is Neelam related to the wife of Mohit?

(1) aunt

(2) mother-in-law

(3) sister

(4) cannot be determined

Ans. (1)

74. A tourist drives 10 km towards East and turns to right hand side and takes a drive of another 3 km. He then drives towards West (turning to his right) another 3 km. He then turns to his left and walks another 2 km. Afterwards, he turns to his right and travels 7 km. How far is he from his starting point and in which direction?

(1) 10 km—East

(2) 9 km— North

(3) 8 km— West

(4) 5 km—South

Ans. (4)

75. The question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. Decide the ‘Strong’ and ‘Weak’ arguments and give answer out of four given options ‘1’, ‘2’, ‘3’ and ‘4’

Question:

Should all the professional colleges in India be encouraged to run their own courses without affiliation to any university?

Arguments:

(I) Yes, this is the only way to create more opportunities for those who seek professional training.

(II) No, this will dilute the quality of professional training as all such colleges may not be equipped to conduct such courses.

(1) Only argument I is strong

(2) Only argument II is strong

(3) Both I and II are strong

(4) Neither I nor II is strong

Ans. (2)

76. Statement: “Please do not wait for me; I may be late, start taking lunch as soon as the guests arrive.” — a message from a director of a company to his office managers.-

Assumptions:

I. Keeping guests waiting is not desirable.

II. Lunch may not be ready in time.

Consider the above statement and two assumptions to decide as to which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Choose the correct answer from the given options 1, 2, 3 and 4.

(1) Only assumption I is implicit

(2) Only assumption II is implicit

(3) Both I and II are implicit

(4) Neither I nor II is implicit

Ans. (1)

77. How many Asian countries are there in Common wealth?

(1) 49

(2) 51

(3) 54

(4) 57

Ans. (3)

78. Khan Abdul Gaffer Khan’s which action; performed in favour of Indian independence, but was against the English men?

(1) Formation of Lal-Kurti sena

(2) Assassination of an Englishman

(3) Trade of red shirts

(4) Demand for Pakhtunistan

Ans. (1)

79. On selling an article for Rs. 270 there is a gain of 12.5%. What

is its cost price?

(1) Rs. 240

(2) Rs. 220

(3) Rs. 210

(4) Rs. 250

Ans. (1)

80. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1: 2: 3. The greatest angle will be

(1) 60°

(2) 30°

(3) 90°

(4) 75°

Ans. (3)

81. The compound interest on Rs. 2500 at the rate of 6% p.a. after 2 years will be

(1) Rs. 309

(2) Rs. 318

(3) Rs. 320

(4) None of these

Ans. (1)

82. (999)2 – (998)22=?

(1) 1995

(2) 1998

(3) 1997

(4) 1992

Ans. (3)

83. A man covers a distance of 6 km at the rate 4 kmph and other 4 km at 3 kmph. His average speed is

(1) 9&13/7 kmph

(2) 3&9/17 kmph

(3) 5&9/17 kmph

(4) 3 & 5/9 kmph

Ans. (2)

84. The cost price of an article is Rs. 7840. To gain 7%, the article should be sold at

(1) Rs. 8388.80

(2) Rs. 8000

(3) Rs. 8383.80

(4) Rs. 8833.80

Ans. (1)

85. Two pipes can fill a tank in 10 minutes and 30 minutes respectively and a third pipe can empty the full tank in 20 minutes. If all the three pipes are opened simultaneously, the tank will be

(1) 10 minutes

(2) 8 minutes

(3) 7 minutes

(4) None of these

Ans. (4)

86.(4*4*4+3*3*3)/13 =

(1) 7

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4

Ans. (1)

87. (6.25) 4÷ (6.25)3 =?

(1) 6.25

(2) 6.025

(3) 6.0025

(4) 6.002

Ans. (1)

88. The ratio between the ages of Ram and Mohan is 4:5 and that between Mohan and Anil is 5:6. If sum of the ages of three be 90 years, how old is Mohan?

(1) 24 years

(2) 20 years

(3) 30 years

(4) 25 years

Ans. (3)

89. The per cent of 2 /45 is?

(1) 3&4/9 %

(2) 4&4/9 %

(3) 4 %

(4) 9 %

Ans. (2)

90. If a x=b;b y=c and cz =a , then xyz =?

(1) 1

(2) -1

(3) 2

(4) 2

Ans. (1)

91. Match the name of countries in List-I with years of beginning of railways in List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List -I List—II

(Countries) (Year of beginning of railways)

(a) Britain 1. 1853

(b) America 2. 1829

(c) India 3. 1825

(d) France 4. 1830

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 4 1 3 2

(3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (3)

92. The length of Indian rails is

(1) More than 5000 km

(2) More than 5630 km

(3) More than 6000 km

(4) More than 6531 km

Ans. (4)

93. Match the items of List-I with List-II and select the-correct answer by using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Largest Population) (States)

(a) Jains 1. Nagaland

(b) Buddhas 2. Rajasthan

(c) Christians 3. Maharashtra

(d) Muslims 4. Lakshadwip

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 2 3 1 4

(3) 1 2 4 3

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (2)

94. The capital of the king of Punjab Ranjit Singh was

(1) Lahore

(2) Ludhiana

(3) Mathura

(4) Sri Nagar

Ans. (1)

95. Photosynthesis does not take place in

(1) plants

(2) fungi

(3) bacteria

(4) virus

Ans. (4)

96. In nucleuic protein, Uceriotic chromosomes are alike in

(1) prophase

(2) Metaphase

(3) Anaphase -

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

97. Which type of protein is found in virus?

(1) Lyco protein

(2) Secondary protein

(3) Primary protein

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

98. In ionic solid, the velocity of electricity is

(1) fast

(2) weak

(3) less than solid

(4) less than gas

Ans. (1)

99. The largest phase in cell division is

(1) Liptotin

(2) Zagotin

(3) Pacotin

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

RRB MODEL QUESTIONS

1. The limiting value of super elevation of board gauge in Indian Railways is:
(a) 16.50 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 10 cm
Ans : A

2. Which of the following is not a part of rail engine?
(a) Tender (b) Stream turbine (c) Boiler (d) Fire box
Ans : B

3. The staggered rails joints are usually provided on:
(a) Bridge (b) Curves (c) Branching (d) Tangents
Ans : B

4. In broad gauge, the clear horizontal distance between the inner faces of two parallel rails forming the track is:
(a) 1 m (b) 1.676 m (c) 0.6096 m (d) 0.792 m
Ans : B

5. Generally the shape of fish plate is:
(a) elliptical (b) bone shaped (c) circular (d) rectangular
Ans : B

6. The track capacity can be increased by:
(a) Faster movement of trains on the track
(b) By using more powerful engines
(c) All the above
(d) None of the above
Ans : C

7. Detonating signals are used:
(a) for noisy engines
(b) during foggy and cloudy weather
(c) for deaf drivers
(d) not now, were in use in nineteenth century only
Ans : B

8. Wider gauge permits:
(a) sleeper gradients (b) low axle load
(c) higher operating speeds (d) sharp curves
Ans : C

9. The railway station at which a track line meets a main line is called:
(a) terminal station (b) flag station
(c) way side station (d) junction station
Ans : D

10. Points and crossings are provided for change of ….on permanent ways.
(a) gauge (b) direction and gradient
(c) direction (d) gradient
Ans : C

11. The chart used for recording the condition of track is known as:
(a) Rolling chart (b) Track chart
(c) Hallade chart (d) Vibro chart
Ans: C

12. The most common system of signaling in India is the …… system.
(a) automatic block (b) section clear system
(c) absolute block (d) pilot guard system
Ans : C

13. The feeder gauge …. is commonly used for feeding raw materials to big Government manufacturing concerns as well as to private factories such as steel plants, oil refineries, sugar factories etc.
(a) 0.6096 m (b) 0.792 m (c) 1m (d) 1.676 m
Ans : A

14. A parabolic curve introduced between straight and a circular curve or between two branches of a compound curve for ease, comfort and safety of movement of trains on curve is called:
(a) Spur curve (b) Transition curve
(c) Summit curve (d) Valley curve
Ans : B

15. The railway track from which a train is to be diverted is called:
(a) branch track (b) points and crossing
(c) main or through track (d) all above
Ans : C

16. An expansion gap of …. is usually kept between the adjoining rail ends to allow for expansion of rail, due to variation in temperature.
(a) 1 to 3 mm (b) 10 to 15 mm
(c) 6 to 8 mm (d) 3 to 5 mm
Ans : C

17. Which one of the following bolts is not used in rail track:
(a) Fang bolt (b) Eye bolt (c) Rag bolt (d) Fish bolt
Ans : B

18. The gradient which requires one or more additional locomotive for hauling the load over the gradient is called:
(a) Up-gradient (b) Pusher gradient
(c) Steep gradient (d) Momentum gradient
Ans : B

19. In locomotive ‘hunting’ is:
(a) Movement of locomotive in vertical plane perpendicular to its movement along the track
(b) Sinuous path taken by engine as against the alignment of the track
(c) Motion after brakes have been applied
(d) Combination of A and B above
Ans : D

20. The rails which get battered due to action of wheels over the end of the rails are called:
(a) Hogged rails (b) Roaring rails
(c) Creep rails (d) Bucking rails
Ans : A

21. As per Indian standard, the recommended width of ballast section at foot level of rails for broad gauge tracks should be:
(a) 4.38 m (b) 3.35 m (c) 1.83 m (d) 2.25 m
Ans : B

22. The minimum length of a passenger platform for broad gauge railway should not be less than:
(a) 305 m (b) 183 m (c) 495 m (d) 250 m
Ans : A

23. For wooden sleepers, size of the ballast should be:
(a) 2.54 cm (b) 10.16 cm (c) 3.8 cm (d) 5.1 cm
Ans : C

24. The length of track under the control of a Ganger is:
(a) 10 to 15 Km (b) 5 to 6 KM
(c) 3 to 5 KM (d) 1 to 2 KM
Ans : B




25. The maximum rising gradient which is provided keeping the power of locomotive in view, is called
(a) Momentum gradient (b) Pusher gradient
(c) Down gradient (d) Ruling gradient
Ans : D

26. The latest system of signaling introduced is:
(a) C.T.C. system (b) pilot guard system
(c) section clear system (d) automatic block system
Ans : A

27. The maximum gradient for broad gauge in station yards in Indian Railways is:
(a) 1 in 100 (b) 1 in 1000 (c) 1in 200 (d) 1 in 400
Ans : D

28. The force which resists the forward movement and speed of train is called:
(a) Track modulus (b) Hauling resistance
(c) friction (d) Tractive resistance
Ans : D

29. The number of fish bolts used for joining the rails with the help of fish plates, is generally:
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 6
Ans : A

30. The Railways provided underground at a depth of about 18 m or more are called:
(a) Mono railway (b) Underground railway
(c) Railway (d) Tube railway
Ans : D

31. The creep in rails is measured in:
(a) cm/kg (b) cm (c) Kg/cm (d) kg cm
Ans : B

32. The art of providing an outward slope of …. to the treads of wheels of rolling stock is known as coning of wheels.
(a) 1 in 30 (b) 1 in 10 (c) 1 in 4 (d) 1 in 20
Ans : D

33. The process of connecting a track length by an electric circuit is known as track circuiting and the sleepers which are suitable for it are:
(a) cast iron sleepers (b) steel sleepers
(c) wooden sleepers (d) all above are suitable
Ans : C

34. The yard where trains and other loads are received, sorted out, trains formed and dispatched onwards are known as:
(a) locomotive yard (b) goods yard
(c) marshalling yard (d) station yard
Ans : C

35. Which one of the following is expected to have shorter life?
(a) Steam engine (b) Diesel engine
(c) Electric engine (d) Shunting engine
And : B

36. The movable end of the tapered rail, by means of which the flanged wheels of the train are diverted from one track to another is known as:
(a) Toe (b) Stud (c) Heel (d) Flare
Ans : A

37. When a rail loses its weight by 5%, it should be renewed and the old one can be used on unimportant tracks, but the rails which have lost their weight by more than …., should not be used on any track under any circumstances.
(a) 8% (b) 33.3% (c) 10% (d) 20%
Ans : C

38. A dynamometer car is used for:
(a) Tourists (b) Dinning facilities
(c) Inspection of administrative officers
(d) Recording the condition of track
Ans : D

39. When a railway line crosses a valley, a ridge like structure consisting of a series of piers, piles or trestles on which steel girders are placed and which is constructed usually for small spans is known as:
(a) Bridge (b) Tunnel (c) Viaduct (d) Aqueduct
Ans : C

40. The movable tapered end of the tongue rail is known as:
(a) heel of switch (b) toe of switch
(c) stretcher bar (d) throw of switch
Ans : B

41. In railways, super elevation is provided to:
(a) facilitate drainage
(b) counteract the centrifugal push
(c) counteract the centripetal pull
(d) have all the effects mentioned above
Ans : B

42. The rails which help in channelising the wheels in their proper routes are known as:
(a) Guard rails (b) Wing rails? (c) Check rails (d) Lead rails
Ans : B

43. The shape of wheels of rolling stock is:
(a) Tapered with flange on outside
(b) Parallel with flange on inside
(c) Tapered with flange on inside
(d) Parallel with flange on outside
Ans : C

44. The tractive resistance of the route in railways as compared to roadways will be:
(a) same (b) more (c) low (d) not comparable
Ans : C

45. Sand is used as ballast incase of:
(a) steel sleepers
(b) wooden sleepers
(c) reinforced concrete sleepers
(d) cast iron sleepers
Ans : D

46. Arm type fixed signals, fitted on a vertical post fixed at the side of a track, are called:
(a) Warner signals (b) Starter signals
(c) Semaphore signals (d) Cab signals
Ans : C

47. The Railway provided just below the ground level are called:
(a) Tube railway (b) Underground railway
(c) Mono railway (d) Railway
Ans : B

48. Creeping of rails will be reduced by using:
(a) Bearing plates (b) Spikes (c) Chairs (d) Anchors
Ans : D

49. Generally the weight/metre of the rails used in broad gauge is:
(a) 55 kg (b) 45 kg (c) 35 kg (d) 65 kg
Ans : A

50. The additional track connected to main line at both of its ends is called:
(a) running line (b) loop line
(c) main line (d) none are correct
Ans : B