1. Which state has the lowest per capita income in India? - Bihar
2. ´Flame of the forest´ refers to - A forest full of trees which burst with red flowers during autumn
3. Paditrupathu (Ten Tens) deals mostly with the history of - The Cheras
4. Diamond is chemically - Pure carbon
5. One of the pandemic diseases is - Influenza
6. What is the maximum age for election to the office of the President? - No limit
7. The Prime Minister is the chairman of - The Planning Commission
8. An object weighs maximum in - Vacuum
9. Content of carbon is minimum in - Wrought iron
10. The Main objective of TRYSEM was - To train rural youth for self employment
11. In India, new Ass India Service can be created - By the Parliament
12. In which part of India does Saffron grow - Jammu and Kashmir
13. The Indian Federal System is modeled on the Federal System of - Canada
14. ´Who did not participate´ in the revolt of 1857? - Bhagat Singh
15. Marsh gas, formed from decaying organic matter and in coal mines, is - Methane
16. Value-added tax is - An ad-valorem tax on domestic final consumption
collected at all stages between production and the point of final sale
17. The exports of India - Are spread over several commodity groups
18. Moist tropical evergreen forests are found in - The Shillong Plateau
19. Who controls the activities of indigenous bankers? - None of these
20. Adhoc Judges can be appointed in the Supreme Court - By the Chief Justice of India with the Prior consent of the President
21. Meera Seth Committee was related to - Development of Handlooms
22. All acids contain the element - Hydrogen
23. The boundary between India and Pakistan was demarcated by - Sir Cyril Radcliffe
24. Which one of the following has since ceased to be a Fundamental Right? - Right to property
25. The heaviest among the inner planets is the - Earth
26. During the Sangam Age which of the following dynasties was not in power? - Pallavas
27. Chairman of Tax Reform committee was - Raja Chelliah
28. Finance Commission is appointed by the President under Article - 280 of. constitution
29. Heavy water - Contains deuterium in place of hydrogen
30. Foot and mouth disease occurs in - Cattle, sheep and pigs
31. Iron pipes are often coated with a layer of zinc to prevent corrosion. This process is termed - Galvanization
32. Unix, DOS, Windows are examples of - Operating systems
33. Railway Budget in India was separated from general budget in - 1924-25
34. A solar eclipse occurs when - The moon comes between the sun and the earth
35. The National Development Council is mainly concerned with - Approval of five-year plans
36. A steel ball floats on mercury because - The density of mercury is higher than that of steel
37. Which of the following would be most suitable for making an electromagnet? - Soft iron
38.Synthetic detergents are - A mixture of sodium salts of aromatic and diphatic sulphonic acids
39. The Saka era began in the year - 78 AD
40. When the East India Company was set up India’s ruler was - Akbar
Sunday, July 28, 2013
RRB PARAMEDICAL EXAM HEALTH INSPECTOR QUESTIONS
1. For education of measles, immunization coverage should be at least
(a) 80% (b) 85% (c) 96% (d) 100%
2. Period of maximum infectivity in mumps is during
(a) incubation period (b) onset of swelling (c) after swelling appears
(d) prodromal period
3. Major epidemics of influenza A occur at intervals of
(a) 1 year (b) 2-3 years (c) 10-15 years (d) 20-25 years
4. The most common source of infection for diphtheria is a
(a) case (b) sub clinical case (c) carrier (d) all of the above
5. Shick test is done in
(a) meningitis (b) diphtheria (c) pertussis (d) polimyelitis
6. Adjuvant present in DPT vaccine is
(a) aluminium phosphate (b) aluminium hydroxide (c) zinc phosphate (d) magnesium
phosphate
7. Recommended site of administration of DPT in infants is
(a) gluteal (b) deltoid (c) lateral aspect of thigh (d) forearm
8. The most severe complications following DPT are due to …….. component
(a) diphtheria (b) pertussis (c) tetanus (d) adjuvant
9. The vaccine usually given to pilgrims to the Middle East is
(a) DPT (b) influenza (c) yellow fever (d) meningitis
10. Best index to estimate case load of T.B. in a community is
(a) incidence of infection (b) prevalence of infection (c) incidence of disease
(d) prevalence of disease
11. Prevalence of T.B. infection in a community is estimated by
(a) tuberculin test (b) sputum microscopy (c) culture (d) chest X-ray
12. The amount of PPD used in mantoux test in India is
(a) 1 TU (b) 5 TU (c) 25 TU (d) 250 TU
13. Result of mantoux test is read after
(a) 6 hours (b) 24 hours (c) 48 hours (d) 72 hours
14. Present day BCG vaccine is supplied as
(a) liquid vaccine (b) freeze dried vaccine (c) both (d) none of the above
15. The diluent used for reconstituting BCG vaccine is
(a) normal saline (b) distilled water (c) dextrose (d) none of the above
16. Reconstituted BCG vaccine should be used with in
(a) 3 hours (b) 6 hours (c) 18 hours (d) 24 hours
17. The age for BCG vaccination is recommended at
(a) birth or at 6th week (b) only 6th week (c) 6-8 weeks (d) within 1 year
18. At the village level sputum for AFB is collected and fixed by
(a) anganwadi worker (b) village health guide (c) health worker male (d) health
worker female
19. Source of most polio infections are
(a) clinical cases (b) sub clinical cases (c) carrier (d) both (b)&(c)
20. Risk factors for development of paralytic polio include
(a) 1/M injections (b) Tonsillectomy (c) DPT (d) all of the above
21. Major route of transmission of Hepatitis A is
(a) Facco oral route (b) parentral route (c) sexual transmission (d) perinatal
transmission
22. Vaccine vial monitor is present on which of these vaccines
(a) BCG (b) DPT (c) OPV (d) Measles
23. Immunity after Hepatitis A lasts for
(a) 6 months (b) 1 year (c) 6 years (d) life long
24. Following methods destroy vibrio cholerae except
(a) boiling (b) drying (c) bleaching powder 1 mg/L (d) cresol
25. Best method of collecting choleric stools for diagnosis is by
(a) rectal catheter (b) rectal swab (c) disinfected stool (d) all of the above
26. All are vaccines included under the Universal Immunization Programme
except
(a) diphtheria (b) pertussis (c) measles (d) MMR
27. The MTP act was passed in the year
(a) 1975 (b) 1971 (c) 1986 (d) 2000
28. All are Anti Rabies vaccine currently used in Kerala except
(a) chick embryo cell vaccine (b) human diploid cell vaccine (c) vero cell
vaccine (d) neural tissue vaccine
29. Annual Parasitic incidence is used to measure the problem of
(a) Filariasis (b) Dengue fever (c) Malaria (d) Japanese encephalitis
30. The causative organism of plague is
(a) Y pestis (b) R. Prowazeki (c) Coryne bacterium (d) Arbovirus
31. Which of these is a Conventional Contraceptive
(a) Combined pill (b) IUD (c) Condom (d) Mini pill
32. Which of these insecticides is used as a space spray
(a) paris green (b) abate (c) pyrethrum (d) mineral oil
33. Chemical ideally used for disinfecting sputum is
(a) cresol (b) dettol (c) savlon (d) phenol
34. Census is carried out at regular intervals of
(a) 5 years (b) 10 years (c) 7 years (d) 15 years
35. Vaccine carrier should ideally have number of ice packs
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
36. The dose of elemental iron in Folifer tablet given to pregnant women
under the RCH programme is
(a) 60 mg (b) 80 mg (c) 50 mg (d) 100 mg
37. Sanitary latrine should be located at least …. feet from source of
contamination
(a) 15 (b) 25 (c) 50 (d) 75
38. For calculating Bacterial index in Leprosy a minimum of ….. sites
should be examined
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 9
39. Number of Tetanus toxoid doses to be given to an antenatal mother with
last child birth 2 years back is
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) none
40. As per the Birth and Deaths Registration Act all births are to be
registered with in a period of
(a) 7 days (b) 14 days (c) 21 days (d) 1 month
41. Dengue fever is transmitted by the bite of ……. mosquito
(a) anopheles (b) aedes (c) mansonia (d) culex
42. Route of administration of BCG vaccine is
(a) intramuscular (b) intradermal (c) subcutaneous (d) intrathecal
43. Pasteurisation of milk kills all organisms except
(a) Anthrax (b) M. Tuberculosis (c) Streptococcus (d) Brucella
44. Prevalence of hook worm infection in a community is assessed by
(a) pearl index (b) breteaux index (c) chandler index (d) none of the above
45. The level of iodisation of iodised salt at the consumer level as
specified under the IDD control programme is
(a) 40 ppm (b) 30 ppm (c) 15 ppm (d) 50 ppm
46. All are steps in Primary Prevention of diseases except
(a) promotion of healthy life styles (b) good nutrition (c) immunization (d)
treatment
47. Communicability of measles declines
(a) after onset of fever (b) during prodromal period (c) at the time of eruption
(d) after appearance of rash
48. After effective chlorination of water free residual chlorine should
not be less than
(a) 0.5 mg/L (b) 1 mg/L (c) 50 mg/L (d) 200 mg/L
49. All are side effects of oral contraceptives except
(a) hypertension (b) cervical cancer risk (c) gall bladder disease (d) iron
deficiency anameia
50. World AIDS day is observed on
(a) December 1st (b) January 31st (c) May 1st (d) October 1st
51. Highest source of vitamin A is seen in
(a) Cod liver oil (b) green leafy vegetables (c) papaya (d) carrot
52. Which is a live vaccine
(a) Hepatitis B vaccine (b) Hepatitis A vaccine (c) Oral polio vaccine (d) DPT
vaccine
53. Scurvy is a deficiency disease due to
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin D (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin B12
54. Number of sputum smears to be taken for confirmation of tuberculosis
under the Revised National Tuberculosis control
programme is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
55. The target population under the Universal Immunization Programme is
(a) infants and antenatal mothers (b) infants (c) under fives (d) under fives
and antenatal mothers
56. RCH programme was launched in the year
(a) 1997 (b) 1992 (c) 1990 (d) 1998
57. Additional energy requirement to be supplemented for a lactating
mother is
(a) 200 calories (b) 550 calories (c) 350 calories (d) 100 calories
58. Dental caries is caused due to deficiency of
(a) Iodine (b) Iron (c) Fluorine (d) Copper
59. Most ideal equipment for vaccine storage in a PHC is
(a) domestic refrigerator (b) ice lined refrigerator (c) cold box (d) vaccine
carrier
60. Village Health Guide is present in all these states except
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar (c) Orissa (d) Kerala
61. Route of transmission of pneumonic plague is
(a) Vector (b) Droplet (c) Formite (d) Food
62. Most simple way of data presentation to a common man is
(a) Bar chart (b) Line diagram (c) Pictogram (d) Histogram
63. The best method for operation theatre disinfection is
(a) dettol (b) phenol (c) lysol (d) fromaldehyde
64. Primary schedule of hepatitis B immunization is
(a) 0,1,6 months (b) 1,3,6 months (c) 1,2,12 months (d) 0,1,5 years
65. The control of ….. has led to the eradication of guinea worm disease
(a) mosquito (b) rat flea (c) sand fly (d) cyclops
66. The confirmatory test for paralytic poliomyelitis is a
(a) stool examination (b) CSF examination (c) blood examination (d) nerve
examination
67. The drug given to peripheral health worker under the Actute
Respiratory infection Control Programme is
(a) Tetracycline (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Doxy cycline (d) Chloroquine
68. The fitration technique in modern water treatment plant is
(a) slow sand filter (b) rapid sand filter (c) activated sludge process (d)
double pot method
69. World Health Day is observed every year on
(a) May 9th (b) July 11th (c) April 7th (d) July 1st
70. Health education technique most suited for introducing the correct use
of O.R.S. among Rural mothers is
(a) group discussion (b) flash card (c) demonstration (d) flannel graph
71. All are anti scabies preparations except
(a) BHC (b) permethrin (c) benzyl benzoate (d) malathion
72. All are tests used for bacteriological quality testing of drinking water
except
(a) multiple tube method (b) membrane filtration technique (c) colony count (d)
biological oxygen demand
73. During an epidemic of cholera, wells should be disinfected ideally
(a) Every day (b) 2 days (c) 3 days (d) 1 week
74. All are components of under five clinic except
(a) immunization (b) growth monitoring (c) oral rehydration (d) referral
treatment
75. All are true of prevention of Food Adulteration Act except
(a) prescribes minimum standards (b) is not mandatory
(c) punishment includes imprisonment (d) latest amendment was in the year 1986
76. Physical quality of life index includes all except
(a) infant mortality (b) life expectancy at age one (c) per capita GNP (d)
literacy
77. Incubation period is less than 3 days in all the following except
(a) influenza (b) cholera (c) mumps (d) staphylococcal food poisoning
78. The type of influenza virus causing epidemics every year is
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) Any one of the above
79. The incubation period of Rabies in men is determined by
(a) Site of bite (b) Severity of bite (c) Number of wounds (d) All of the above
80. Noso comial infection means
(a) infection of nose (b) hospital acquired infection (c) notifiable disease (d)
new disease
81. All of the following are mosquito borne diseases except
(a) Malaria (b) Filaria (c) Kysanur forest disease (d) Dengue fever
82. Which is not true of small pox
(a) No animal reservoir (b) No carrier stage (c) No sub-clinical infection (d)
No air borne transmission
83. ORS contains all except
(a) sodium chloride (b) potassium sulphate (c) trisodium citrate (d) glucose
84. The danger zone for bacterial growth in food is
(a) 10-49 degree C (b) 20-49 degree C (c) 10-60 degree C (d) 20-60 degree C
85. Aldehyde test is used for the diagnosis of
(a) Malaria (b) Kala Azar (c) Japanese encephalitis (d) Typhus fever
86. The period from disease initiation to disease detection in chronic
disease is called
(a) incubation period (b) serial interval (c) latent period (d) median period
87. Herd immunity does not protect an individual in
(a) Diphtheria (b) Poliomyelitis (c) Small pox (d) Tetanus
88. Vaccines which should not be frozen include
(a) Typhoid (b) DPT (c) TT (d) All of the above
89. ILR stands for
(a) Income Literacy Ratio (b) Illiteracy- Literacy Ratio
(c) Ice Lined Refrigerator (d) Infant Living Rate
90. Cold chain equipment used at out reach sites is
(a) cold box (b) vaccine carrier (c) ice pack (d) freezer
91. Most heat sensitive vaccine is
(a) BCG (b) Polio (c) Measles (d) DPT
92. Zero dose of polio vaccine means
(a) no vaccination (b) dose before first dose (c) no antibody response (d)
vaccination at mobile camps
93. Pasteurisation of milk is an example disinfection
(a) Pre current (b) Con current (c) Terminal (d) Absolute
94. Boiling for 5-10 minutes kills
(a) bacteria (b) spores (c) virus (d) none of the above
95. All of the following can be sterilized by Auto claving except
(a) gloves (b) culture media (c) plastics (d) linen
96. All are suitable for disinfection of faces and urine except
(a) 8% bleaching powder (b) 1% crude phenol (c) 5% cresol (d) 1-2% formalin
97. Ideally bed pans and urinals are sterilized using
(a) 1% cresol (b) bleaching powder (c) steam (d) all of the above
98. Sputum is best disposed by
(a) burning (b) boiling (c) 5% cresol (d) any of the above
99. Immunity conferred by an attack of small pox is for
(a) 10 years (b) 15 years (c) 20 years (d) life long
100. Which is not true regarding measles
(a) source of infection is a case (b) secondary attack rate is 80%
(c) carries do not occur (d) sub clinical measles not known
Answers:
1 B 11 A 21 A 31 C 41 B 51 A 61 B 71 D 81 C 91 B
2 A 12 A 22 B 32 C 42 A 52 C 62 C 72 D 82 C 92 B
3 D 13 C 23 A 33 A 43 B 53 C 63 D 73 A 83 B 93 A
4 B 14 B 24 D 34 B 44 C 54 C 64 A 74 D 84 C 94 D
5 A 15 A 25 A 35 D 45 C 55 C 65 D 75 B 85 B 95 C
6 C 16 B 26 C 36 C 46 D 56 B 66 A 76 D 86 A 96 D
7 C 17 A 27 B 37 D 47 D 57 B 67 B 77 C 87 B 97 B
8 D 18 A 28 C 38 C 48 A 58 C 68 A 78 B 88 D 98 C
9 C 19 C 29 A 39 C 49 A 59 B 69 C 79 D 89 C 99 D
10C 20 D 30 A 40 C 50 A 60 C 70 C 80 D 90 B 100B
(a) 80% (b) 85% (c) 96% (d) 100%
2. Period of maximum infectivity in mumps is during
(a) incubation period (b) onset of swelling (c) after swelling appears
(d) prodromal period
3. Major epidemics of influenza A occur at intervals of
(a) 1 year (b) 2-3 years (c) 10-15 years (d) 20-25 years
4. The most common source of infection for diphtheria is a
(a) case (b) sub clinical case (c) carrier (d) all of the above
5. Shick test is done in
(a) meningitis (b) diphtheria (c) pertussis (d) polimyelitis
6. Adjuvant present in DPT vaccine is
(a) aluminium phosphate (b) aluminium hydroxide (c) zinc phosphate (d) magnesium
phosphate
7. Recommended site of administration of DPT in infants is
(a) gluteal (b) deltoid (c) lateral aspect of thigh (d) forearm
8. The most severe complications following DPT are due to …….. component
(a) diphtheria (b) pertussis (c) tetanus (d) adjuvant
9. The vaccine usually given to pilgrims to the Middle East is
(a) DPT (b) influenza (c) yellow fever (d) meningitis
10. Best index to estimate case load of T.B. in a community is
(a) incidence of infection (b) prevalence of infection (c) incidence of disease
(d) prevalence of disease
11. Prevalence of T.B. infection in a community is estimated by
(a) tuberculin test (b) sputum microscopy (c) culture (d) chest X-ray
12. The amount of PPD used in mantoux test in India is
(a) 1 TU (b) 5 TU (c) 25 TU (d) 250 TU
13. Result of mantoux test is read after
(a) 6 hours (b) 24 hours (c) 48 hours (d) 72 hours
14. Present day BCG vaccine is supplied as
(a) liquid vaccine (b) freeze dried vaccine (c) both (d) none of the above
15. The diluent used for reconstituting BCG vaccine is
(a) normal saline (b) distilled water (c) dextrose (d) none of the above
16. Reconstituted BCG vaccine should be used with in
(a) 3 hours (b) 6 hours (c) 18 hours (d) 24 hours
17. The age for BCG vaccination is recommended at
(a) birth or at 6th week (b) only 6th week (c) 6-8 weeks (d) within 1 year
18. At the village level sputum for AFB is collected and fixed by
(a) anganwadi worker (b) village health guide (c) health worker male (d) health
worker female
19. Source of most polio infections are
(a) clinical cases (b) sub clinical cases (c) carrier (d) both (b)&(c)
20. Risk factors for development of paralytic polio include
(a) 1/M injections (b) Tonsillectomy (c) DPT (d) all of the above
21. Major route of transmission of Hepatitis A is
(a) Facco oral route (b) parentral route (c) sexual transmission (d) perinatal
transmission
22. Vaccine vial monitor is present on which of these vaccines
(a) BCG (b) DPT (c) OPV (d) Measles
23. Immunity after Hepatitis A lasts for
(a) 6 months (b) 1 year (c) 6 years (d) life long
24. Following methods destroy vibrio cholerae except
(a) boiling (b) drying (c) bleaching powder 1 mg/L (d) cresol
25. Best method of collecting choleric stools for diagnosis is by
(a) rectal catheter (b) rectal swab (c) disinfected stool (d) all of the above
26. All are vaccines included under the Universal Immunization Programme
except
(a) diphtheria (b) pertussis (c) measles (d) MMR
27. The MTP act was passed in the year
(a) 1975 (b) 1971 (c) 1986 (d) 2000
28. All are Anti Rabies vaccine currently used in Kerala except
(a) chick embryo cell vaccine (b) human diploid cell vaccine (c) vero cell
vaccine (d) neural tissue vaccine
29. Annual Parasitic incidence is used to measure the problem of
(a) Filariasis (b) Dengue fever (c) Malaria (d) Japanese encephalitis
30. The causative organism of plague is
(a) Y pestis (b) R. Prowazeki (c) Coryne bacterium (d) Arbovirus
31. Which of these is a Conventional Contraceptive
(a) Combined pill (b) IUD (c) Condom (d) Mini pill
32. Which of these insecticides is used as a space spray
(a) paris green (b) abate (c) pyrethrum (d) mineral oil
33. Chemical ideally used for disinfecting sputum is
(a) cresol (b) dettol (c) savlon (d) phenol
34. Census is carried out at regular intervals of
(a) 5 years (b) 10 years (c) 7 years (d) 15 years
35. Vaccine carrier should ideally have number of ice packs
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
36. The dose of elemental iron in Folifer tablet given to pregnant women
under the RCH programme is
(a) 60 mg (b) 80 mg (c) 50 mg (d) 100 mg
37. Sanitary latrine should be located at least …. feet from source of
contamination
(a) 15 (b) 25 (c) 50 (d) 75
38. For calculating Bacterial index in Leprosy a minimum of ….. sites
should be examined
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 9
39. Number of Tetanus toxoid doses to be given to an antenatal mother with
last child birth 2 years back is
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) none
40. As per the Birth and Deaths Registration Act all births are to be
registered with in a period of
(a) 7 days (b) 14 days (c) 21 days (d) 1 month
41. Dengue fever is transmitted by the bite of ……. mosquito
(a) anopheles (b) aedes (c) mansonia (d) culex
42. Route of administration of BCG vaccine is
(a) intramuscular (b) intradermal (c) subcutaneous (d) intrathecal
43. Pasteurisation of milk kills all organisms except
(a) Anthrax (b) M. Tuberculosis (c) Streptococcus (d) Brucella
44. Prevalence of hook worm infection in a community is assessed by
(a) pearl index (b) breteaux index (c) chandler index (d) none of the above
45. The level of iodisation of iodised salt at the consumer level as
specified under the IDD control programme is
(a) 40 ppm (b) 30 ppm (c) 15 ppm (d) 50 ppm
46. All are steps in Primary Prevention of diseases except
(a) promotion of healthy life styles (b) good nutrition (c) immunization (d)
treatment
47. Communicability of measles declines
(a) after onset of fever (b) during prodromal period (c) at the time of eruption
(d) after appearance of rash
48. After effective chlorination of water free residual chlorine should
not be less than
(a) 0.5 mg/L (b) 1 mg/L (c) 50 mg/L (d) 200 mg/L
49. All are side effects of oral contraceptives except
(a) hypertension (b) cervical cancer risk (c) gall bladder disease (d) iron
deficiency anameia
50. World AIDS day is observed on
(a) December 1st (b) January 31st (c) May 1st (d) October 1st
51. Highest source of vitamin A is seen in
(a) Cod liver oil (b) green leafy vegetables (c) papaya (d) carrot
52. Which is a live vaccine
(a) Hepatitis B vaccine (b) Hepatitis A vaccine (c) Oral polio vaccine (d) DPT
vaccine
53. Scurvy is a deficiency disease due to
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin D (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin B12
54. Number of sputum smears to be taken for confirmation of tuberculosis
under the Revised National Tuberculosis control
programme is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
55. The target population under the Universal Immunization Programme is
(a) infants and antenatal mothers (b) infants (c) under fives (d) under fives
and antenatal mothers
56. RCH programme was launched in the year
(a) 1997 (b) 1992 (c) 1990 (d) 1998
57. Additional energy requirement to be supplemented for a lactating
mother is
(a) 200 calories (b) 550 calories (c) 350 calories (d) 100 calories
58. Dental caries is caused due to deficiency of
(a) Iodine (b) Iron (c) Fluorine (d) Copper
59. Most ideal equipment for vaccine storage in a PHC is
(a) domestic refrigerator (b) ice lined refrigerator (c) cold box (d) vaccine
carrier
60. Village Health Guide is present in all these states except
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar (c) Orissa (d) Kerala
61. Route of transmission of pneumonic plague is
(a) Vector (b) Droplet (c) Formite (d) Food
62. Most simple way of data presentation to a common man is
(a) Bar chart (b) Line diagram (c) Pictogram (d) Histogram
63. The best method for operation theatre disinfection is
(a) dettol (b) phenol (c) lysol (d) fromaldehyde
64. Primary schedule of hepatitis B immunization is
(a) 0,1,6 months (b) 1,3,6 months (c) 1,2,12 months (d) 0,1,5 years
65. The control of ….. has led to the eradication of guinea worm disease
(a) mosquito (b) rat flea (c) sand fly (d) cyclops
66. The confirmatory test for paralytic poliomyelitis is a
(a) stool examination (b) CSF examination (c) blood examination (d) nerve
examination
67. The drug given to peripheral health worker under the Actute
Respiratory infection Control Programme is
(a) Tetracycline (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Doxy cycline (d) Chloroquine
68. The fitration technique in modern water treatment plant is
(a) slow sand filter (b) rapid sand filter (c) activated sludge process (d)
double pot method
69. World Health Day is observed every year on
(a) May 9th (b) July 11th (c) April 7th (d) July 1st
70. Health education technique most suited for introducing the correct use
of O.R.S. among Rural mothers is
(a) group discussion (b) flash card (c) demonstration (d) flannel graph
71. All are anti scabies preparations except
(a) BHC (b) permethrin (c) benzyl benzoate (d) malathion
72. All are tests used for bacteriological quality testing of drinking water
except
(a) multiple tube method (b) membrane filtration technique (c) colony count (d)
biological oxygen demand
73. During an epidemic of cholera, wells should be disinfected ideally
(a) Every day (b) 2 days (c) 3 days (d) 1 week
74. All are components of under five clinic except
(a) immunization (b) growth monitoring (c) oral rehydration (d) referral
treatment
75. All are true of prevention of Food Adulteration Act except
(a) prescribes minimum standards (b) is not mandatory
(c) punishment includes imprisonment (d) latest amendment was in the year 1986
76. Physical quality of life index includes all except
(a) infant mortality (b) life expectancy at age one (c) per capita GNP (d)
literacy
77. Incubation period is less than 3 days in all the following except
(a) influenza (b) cholera (c) mumps (d) staphylococcal food poisoning
78. The type of influenza virus causing epidemics every year is
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) Any one of the above
79. The incubation period of Rabies in men is determined by
(a) Site of bite (b) Severity of bite (c) Number of wounds (d) All of the above
80. Noso comial infection means
(a) infection of nose (b) hospital acquired infection (c) notifiable disease (d)
new disease
81. All of the following are mosquito borne diseases except
(a) Malaria (b) Filaria (c) Kysanur forest disease (d) Dengue fever
82. Which is not true of small pox
(a) No animal reservoir (b) No carrier stage (c) No sub-clinical infection (d)
No air borne transmission
83. ORS contains all except
(a) sodium chloride (b) potassium sulphate (c) trisodium citrate (d) glucose
84. The danger zone for bacterial growth in food is
(a) 10-49 degree C (b) 20-49 degree C (c) 10-60 degree C (d) 20-60 degree C
85. Aldehyde test is used for the diagnosis of
(a) Malaria (b) Kala Azar (c) Japanese encephalitis (d) Typhus fever
86. The period from disease initiation to disease detection in chronic
disease is called
(a) incubation period (b) serial interval (c) latent period (d) median period
87. Herd immunity does not protect an individual in
(a) Diphtheria (b) Poliomyelitis (c) Small pox (d) Tetanus
88. Vaccines which should not be frozen include
(a) Typhoid (b) DPT (c) TT (d) All of the above
89. ILR stands for
(a) Income Literacy Ratio (b) Illiteracy- Literacy Ratio
(c) Ice Lined Refrigerator (d) Infant Living Rate
90. Cold chain equipment used at out reach sites is
(a) cold box (b) vaccine carrier (c) ice pack (d) freezer
91. Most heat sensitive vaccine is
(a) BCG (b) Polio (c) Measles (d) DPT
92. Zero dose of polio vaccine means
(a) no vaccination (b) dose before first dose (c) no antibody response (d)
vaccination at mobile camps
93. Pasteurisation of milk is an example disinfection
(a) Pre current (b) Con current (c) Terminal (d) Absolute
94. Boiling for 5-10 minutes kills
(a) bacteria (b) spores (c) virus (d) none of the above
95. All of the following can be sterilized by Auto claving except
(a) gloves (b) culture media (c) plastics (d) linen
96. All are suitable for disinfection of faces and urine except
(a) 8% bleaching powder (b) 1% crude phenol (c) 5% cresol (d) 1-2% formalin
97. Ideally bed pans and urinals are sterilized using
(a) 1% cresol (b) bleaching powder (c) steam (d) all of the above
98. Sputum is best disposed by
(a) burning (b) boiling (c) 5% cresol (d) any of the above
99. Immunity conferred by an attack of small pox is for
(a) 10 years (b) 15 years (c) 20 years (d) life long
100. Which is not true regarding measles
(a) source of infection is a case (b) secondary attack rate is 80%
(c) carries do not occur (d) sub clinical measles not known
Answers:
1 B 11 A 21 A 31 C 41 B 51 A 61 B 71 D 81 C 91 B
2 A 12 A 22 B 32 C 42 A 52 C 62 C 72 D 82 C 92 B
3 D 13 C 23 A 33 A 43 B 53 C 63 D 73 A 83 B 93 A
4 B 14 B 24 D 34 B 44 C 54 C 64 A 74 D 84 C 94 D
5 A 15 A 25 A 35 D 45 C 55 C 65 D 75 B 85 B 95 C
6 C 16 B 26 C 36 C 46 D 56 B 66 A 76 D 86 A 96 D
7 C 17 A 27 B 37 D 47 D 57 B 67 B 77 C 87 B 97 B
8 D 18 A 28 C 38 C 48 A 58 C 68 A 78 B 88 D 98 C
9 C 19 C 29 A 39 C 49 A 59 B 69 C 79 D 89 C 99 D
10C 20 D 30 A 40 C 50 A 60 C 70 C 80 D 90 B 100B
RRC GROUP-D EXAM (NOTIFICATION NO. E.NO.1/2008) SOLVED PAPER (SET E1)
1. Which of the following is a major tea producing state ?
(A) Assam (B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Punjab
2. Which of the following states is a major producer of wheat ?
(A) Nagaland (B) Mizoram
(C) Arunachal Pradesh (D) Punjab
3. Which of the following states is an important producer of sugarcane ?
(A) Maharashtra (B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Tripura (D) Sikkim
4. The Earth rotates 360 degree in about
(A) 12 hours (B) 24 hours
(C) 36 hours (D) 48 hours
5. A leap year has
(A) 365 days (B) 366 days
(C) 367 days (D) 368 days
6. The occurrence of days and nights is the result of
(A) revolution of the earth around the sun (B) rotation of the earth about its axis
(C) movement of the moon around the earth (D) Newton’s laws of motion
7. The duration of day and night becomes equal at all place on
(A) 21st March and 23rd September (B) 21st March and 21st June
(C) 21st June and 22nd December (D) does not happen
8. Solar eclipse occurs when
(A) the moon comes in between the sun and the earth
(B) the earth comes in between the sun and the moon
(C) the sun comes in between the moon and the earth
(D) None of the above
9. The crust of the earth is divided into two parts – the hydrosphere and the land mass. The land
mass occupies
(A) 50 % of the earth’s surface area
(B) about 29.2 % of the earth’s surface area
(C) 80 % of the earth’s surface area
(D) it keeps on varying
10. The Manas National Park is situated in the state of
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Assam
(C) Himachal Pradesh (D) Jammu and Kahsmir
11. Mausynram receives the highest rainfall in the world. It is located in the state of
(A) Tripura (B) Nagaland
(C) Arunachal Pradesh (D) Meghalaya
12. Green Revolution in India led to a substantial increase in the production of
(A) food grains (B) milk
(C) steel (D) automobiles
13. ‘White Revolution’ in India is related to the development of
(A) dairy industry (B) paper industry
(C) silk industry (D) sugar industry
14. What is a tsunami ?
(A) Name of a flower
(B) Name of a mountain
(C) a series of water waves caused by the displacement of a large volume of a body of
water
(D) Name of a virus
15. Which country was hit by an earthquake and tsunami in March 2011 resulting in loss of lives
and property ?
(A) Argentina (B) Mexico
(C) Japan (D) Egypt
16. The zonal head quarter of Northeast Frontier Railway is at
(A) New Jalpaiguri (B) Shillong
(C) Guwahati (D) Katihar
17. The railway track in the Darjeeling Himalayan Railway (DHR) is
(A) Narrow gauge (B) Metre gauge
(C) Broad gauge (D) None of these
18. The Palk Strait lies between the countries
(A) Sri Lanka and Maldives (B) India and Sri Lanka
(C) India and Maldives (D) Bangladesh and Myanmar
19. Richter scale measures the magnitude of
(A) volcanoes (B) earthquakes
(C) floods (D) rainfall
20 ‘Jhum’ practiced in the northeastern states of India is a method of
(A) learning (B) agriculture
(C) dancing (D) cooking
21. The Kaziranga National Park is famous for its
(A) Asiatic lion (B) Bengal Tiger
(C) One horned rhinoceros (D) Eagle
22. Which is the largest continent ?
(A) Africa (B) Asia
(C) Australia (D) North America
23. ‘One light year’ is a unit of
(A) time (B) speed
(C) distance (D) sound
24. Which of the following is not a renewable resource ?
(A) forest (B) bio-energy
(C) solar energy (D) petroleum
25. Which is the third nearest planet to the sun ?
(A) Venus (B) Earth
(C) Mercury (D) Mars
RRC GROUP-D EXAM (NOTIFICATION NO. E.NO.1/2008) SOLVED PAPER (SET E2)
1. Balloons are filled with
(A) oxygen (B) nitrogen
(C) helium (D) argon
2. What is the scientific name for common salt ?
(A) sodium carbonate (B) sodium chloride
(C) sodium bicarbonate (D) calcium chloride
3. Ecology deals with
(A) Birds
(B) Cell formation
(C) Tissues
(D) Relation between organisms and their environment
4. Houseflies, dragonflies, beetles and ants are all insects. An insect has
(A) six legs (B) eight legs
(C) four legs (D) five legs
5. Which of the following is an important source of Vitamin C ?
(A) Potato (B) Butter
(C) Orange (D) Fish
6. Which of the following is necessary for burning ?
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Hydrogen
(C) Oxygen (D) Neon
7. AIDS (Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome) is caused by one type of
(A) Virus (B) Bacteria
(C) Protozoa (D) Fungus
8. Which of the following is a reptile ?
(A) Elephant (B) Bats
(C) Snake (D) Ostrich
9. Plants make their own food by a process called
(A) Breathing (B) Transpiration
(C) Photosynthesis (D) Pollination
10. Electricity is supplied to consumers at
(A) 420 kilovolts (B) 33 kilovolts
(C) 220 volts (D) 132 kilovolts
11. The number of chambers in the human heart is
(A) six (B) four
(C) two (D) eight
12. Acids contain at least one atom of
(A) Hydrogen (B) Oxygen
(C) Nitrogen (D) Carbon
13. India’s first mission to moon is called
(A) Prithvi (B) Aryabhatta
(C) Ashoka (D) Chandrayaan-1
14. If a piece of stone weighs 6 kilogram on earth’s surface, what will be the weight of the same
piece of stone on the surface of the moon ?
(A) 6 kilogram (B) 3 kilogram
(C) 1 kilogram (D) 12 kilogram
15. The purity of gold ornaments is measured in ‘carats’. Pure gold is
(A) 20 carats (B) 22 carats
(C) 23 carats (D) 24 carats
16. Diamond is a form of
(A) gold (B) silver
(C) carbon (D) iron
17. Which of the following was first learnt by primitive man ?
(A) agriculture (B) manufacture of wheel
(C) making fire (D) taming animals
18. Who started the Saka era ?
(A) Alexander (B) Kanishka
(C) Ashoka (D) Samudragupta
19. The word India is derived from the river
(A) Indus (B) Ganga
(C) Yamuna (D) Mahanadi
20. The ‘Anga’ is the main scripture of the Jains. It is written in
(A) Pali (B) Prakrit
(C) Sanskrit (D) Hindi
21. Who established the Maurya dynasty ?
(A) Ashoka (B) Chandragupta Maurya
(C) Bindusara (D) Kanishka
22. Buddhism was founded by
(A) Siddhartha (also known as Gautama) (B) Mahavira
(C) Fa-Hien (D) Alexander
23. Gautama Buddha attained enlightenment at Bodh Gaya. It is situated in the present day
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) West Bengal
(C) Bihar (D) Madhya Pradesh
24. The first railway line was opened to traffic in 1853. It ran from Bombay to
(A) Delhi (B) Madras
(C) Calcutta (D) Thane
25. The partition of Bengal took place in the year
(A) 1902 (B) 1903
(C) 1904 (D) 1905
(A) oxygen (B) nitrogen
(C) helium (D) argon
2. What is the scientific name for common salt ?
(A) sodium carbonate (B) sodium chloride
(C) sodium bicarbonate (D) calcium chloride
3. Ecology deals with
(A) Birds
(B) Cell formation
(C) Tissues
(D) Relation between organisms and their environment
4. Houseflies, dragonflies, beetles and ants are all insects. An insect has
(A) six legs (B) eight legs
(C) four legs (D) five legs
5. Which of the following is an important source of Vitamin C ?
(A) Potato (B) Butter
(C) Orange (D) Fish
6. Which of the following is necessary for burning ?
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Hydrogen
(C) Oxygen (D) Neon
7. AIDS (Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome) is caused by one type of
(A) Virus (B) Bacteria
(C) Protozoa (D) Fungus
8. Which of the following is a reptile ?
(A) Elephant (B) Bats
(C) Snake (D) Ostrich
9. Plants make their own food by a process called
(A) Breathing (B) Transpiration
(C) Photosynthesis (D) Pollination
10. Electricity is supplied to consumers at
(A) 420 kilovolts (B) 33 kilovolts
(C) 220 volts (D) 132 kilovolts
11. The number of chambers in the human heart is
(A) six (B) four
(C) two (D) eight
12. Acids contain at least one atom of
(A) Hydrogen (B) Oxygen
(C) Nitrogen (D) Carbon
13. India’s first mission to moon is called
(A) Prithvi (B) Aryabhatta
(C) Ashoka (D) Chandrayaan-1
14. If a piece of stone weighs 6 kilogram on earth’s surface, what will be the weight of the same
piece of stone on the surface of the moon ?
(A) 6 kilogram (B) 3 kilogram
(C) 1 kilogram (D) 12 kilogram
15. The purity of gold ornaments is measured in ‘carats’. Pure gold is
(A) 20 carats (B) 22 carats
(C) 23 carats (D) 24 carats
16. Diamond is a form of
(A) gold (B) silver
(C) carbon (D) iron
17. Which of the following was first learnt by primitive man ?
(A) agriculture (B) manufacture of wheel
(C) making fire (D) taming animals
18. Who started the Saka era ?
(A) Alexander (B) Kanishka
(C) Ashoka (D) Samudragupta
19. The word India is derived from the river
(A) Indus (B) Ganga
(C) Yamuna (D) Mahanadi
20. The ‘Anga’ is the main scripture of the Jains. It is written in
(A) Pali (B) Prakrit
(C) Sanskrit (D) Hindi
21. Who established the Maurya dynasty ?
(A) Ashoka (B) Chandragupta Maurya
(C) Bindusara (D) Kanishka
22. Buddhism was founded by
(A) Siddhartha (also known as Gautama) (B) Mahavira
(C) Fa-Hien (D) Alexander
23. Gautama Buddha attained enlightenment at Bodh Gaya. It is situated in the present day
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) West Bengal
(C) Bihar (D) Madhya Pradesh
24. The first railway line was opened to traffic in 1853. It ran from Bombay to
(A) Delhi (B) Madras
(C) Calcutta (D) Thane
25. The partition of Bengal took place in the year
(A) 1902 (B) 1903
(C) 1904 (D) 1905
RRC GROUP-D EXAM (NOTIFICATION NO. E.NO.1/2008) SOLVED PAPER (SET E3)
1. The highest civilian award in the country which is given by the President of India on January
26 is
(A) Padma Vibhushan (B) Ashok Chakra
(C) Bharat Ratna (D) Padma Shri
2. Loktak lake is situated in the state of
(A) Assam (B) Nagaland
(C) Manipur (D) Tripura
3. India became an independent country on
(A) 15th August, 1947 (B) 15th August, 1948
(C) 15th August, 1949 (D) 15th August, 1950
4. Pandit Bhimsen Joshi was a renowned
(A) classical dancer (B) classical vocalist
(C) poet (D) novelist
5. Dada Saheb Phalke Award is given for outstanding contribution to the cause of Indian
(A) sports (B) literature
(C) cinema (D) handicraft
6. Arjuna Award is given to outstanding
(A) sports person (B) musician
(C) film director (D) sports coach
7. Our national animal is the
(A) Lion (B) Elephant
(C) Tiger (D) Bear
8. Name the capital of Arunachal Pradesh
(A) Itanagar (B) Agartala
(C) Aizawl (D) Imphal
9. The Supreme Court of India is located in
(A) Kolkata (B) New Delhi
(C) Chandigarh (D) Mumbai
10. In India, the first commercially viable oil well was drilled at
(A) Digboi (B) Numaligarh
(C) Barauni (D) Namdapha
11. The Ashoka Chakra depicted centrally on the white stripe of the National Flag has
(A) 12 spokes (B) 22 spokes
(C) 24 spokes (D) 20 spokes
12. Which state is associated with the development of dance form ‘Kuchipudi’ ?
(A) Kerala (B) Maharashtra
(C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu
13. When a bar magnet is freely suspended, it points roughly in a
(A) east – west direction (B) east – north direction
(C) north – south direction (D) north – west direction
14. An electric motor converts
(A) mechanical energy into electrical energy
(B) electrical energy into mechanical energy
(C) mechanical energy into sound energy
(D) electrical energy into sound energy
15. Electrical fuses installed in the house are connected in the
(A) live wire (B) neutral wire
(C) earth connection (D) none of these
16. Dry ice is basically
(A) frozen water (B) solidified carbon dioxide
(C) solidified nitrogen (D) solidified hydrogen
17. A person climbing a hill bends forward in order to
(A) avoid slipping (B) increase speed
(C) reduce fatigue (D) increase stability
18. We get energy directly from
(A) the sun (B) ocean
(C) space (D) mountains
19. Sound travels at maximum speed in
(A) vacuum (B) air
(C) water (D) steel
20. Echoes are produced when the sound is
(A) reflected (B) diffracted
(C) polarized (D) refracted
21. Air is a mixture of gases. About 78 % of this gaseous mixture is
(A) Nitrogen (B) Oxygen
(C) Carbon-dioxide (D) Hydrogen
22. The universal law of gravitation was propounded by
(A) Kepler (B) Galileo
(C) Newton (D) Copernicus
23. The hardest substance available on earth is
(A) Platinum (B) Coal
(C) Gold (D) Diamond
24. Galvanised iron sheets have a coating of
(A) zinc (B) lead
(C) chromium (D) tin
25. What is laughing gas ?
(A) Sulphur dioxide (B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Nitrous oxide (D) Hydrogen peroxide
26 is
(A) Padma Vibhushan (B) Ashok Chakra
(C) Bharat Ratna (D) Padma Shri
2. Loktak lake is situated in the state of
(A) Assam (B) Nagaland
(C) Manipur (D) Tripura
3. India became an independent country on
(A) 15th August, 1947 (B) 15th August, 1948
(C) 15th August, 1949 (D) 15th August, 1950
4. Pandit Bhimsen Joshi was a renowned
(A) classical dancer (B) classical vocalist
(C) poet (D) novelist
5. Dada Saheb Phalke Award is given for outstanding contribution to the cause of Indian
(A) sports (B) literature
(C) cinema (D) handicraft
6. Arjuna Award is given to outstanding
(A) sports person (B) musician
(C) film director (D) sports coach
7. Our national animal is the
(A) Lion (B) Elephant
(C) Tiger (D) Bear
8. Name the capital of Arunachal Pradesh
(A) Itanagar (B) Agartala
(C) Aizawl (D) Imphal
9. The Supreme Court of India is located in
(A) Kolkata (B) New Delhi
(C) Chandigarh (D) Mumbai
10. In India, the first commercially viable oil well was drilled at
(A) Digboi (B) Numaligarh
(C) Barauni (D) Namdapha
11. The Ashoka Chakra depicted centrally on the white stripe of the National Flag has
(A) 12 spokes (B) 22 spokes
(C) 24 spokes (D) 20 spokes
12. Which state is associated with the development of dance form ‘Kuchipudi’ ?
(A) Kerala (B) Maharashtra
(C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu
13. When a bar magnet is freely suspended, it points roughly in a
(A) east – west direction (B) east – north direction
(C) north – south direction (D) north – west direction
14. An electric motor converts
(A) mechanical energy into electrical energy
(B) electrical energy into mechanical energy
(C) mechanical energy into sound energy
(D) electrical energy into sound energy
15. Electrical fuses installed in the house are connected in the
(A) live wire (B) neutral wire
(C) earth connection (D) none of these
16. Dry ice is basically
(A) frozen water (B) solidified carbon dioxide
(C) solidified nitrogen (D) solidified hydrogen
17. A person climbing a hill bends forward in order to
(A) avoid slipping (B) increase speed
(C) reduce fatigue (D) increase stability
18. We get energy directly from
(A) the sun (B) ocean
(C) space (D) mountains
19. Sound travels at maximum speed in
(A) vacuum (B) air
(C) water (D) steel
20. Echoes are produced when the sound is
(A) reflected (B) diffracted
(C) polarized (D) refracted
21. Air is a mixture of gases. About 78 % of this gaseous mixture is
(A) Nitrogen (B) Oxygen
(C) Carbon-dioxide (D) Hydrogen
22. The universal law of gravitation was propounded by
(A) Kepler (B) Galileo
(C) Newton (D) Copernicus
23. The hardest substance available on earth is
(A) Platinum (B) Coal
(C) Gold (D) Diamond
24. Galvanised iron sheets have a coating of
(A) zinc (B) lead
(C) chromium (D) tin
25. What is laughing gas ?
(A) Sulphur dioxide (B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Nitrous oxide (D) Hydrogen peroxide
RRC GROUP-D EXAM (NOTIFICATION NO. E.NO.1/2008) SOLVED PAPER (SET E4)
1. The term ‘Satyagraha’ is associated with
(A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Lala Lajpat Rai (D) G.K.Gokhale
2. The first popular revolt against the British (also called the Sepoy Mutiny) happened in the
year
(A) 1857 (B) 1867
(C) 1877 (D) 1897
3. “Do or Die” was one of the most powerful slogans of India’s freedom struggle. Who gave it ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) B. G. Tilak (D) Subhash Chandra Bose
4. ‘Thanas’ was established during the British period by
(A) Cornwallis (B) Warren Hastings
(C) William Bentinck (D) Wellesley
5. Which of the British rulers was associated with the ‘abolition of sati’ ?
(A) William Bentinck (B) Warren Hastings
(C) Robert Clive (D) Dalhousie
6. Whose reign is considered as the golden age of Mughal architecture ?
(A) Shah Jahan (B) Jahangir
(C) Aurangzeb (D) Akbar
7. Fort William in Bengal was constructed by the
(A) British (B) Portuguese
(C) Dutch (D) French
8. Who founded the Ahom kingdom of Assam ?
(A) Sukapha (B) Bamunikonwar
(C) Dihingia Raja (D) Khora Raja
9. Who established the ‘satras’ in Assam ?
(A) Nathmuni (B) Srimanta Sankaradeva
(C) Ramananda (D) Kabir
10. To promote trade and commerce, Sher Shah constructed many roads. The most famous of
them was the Grand Trunk Road. It ran from
(A) Gujarat to Delhi (B) Bengal to Punjab
(C) Delhi to Lahore (D) Delhi to Kashmir
11. In the battle of Saraighat in 1671 A.D.
(A) Mir Jumla defeated the Ahom king Jayadhwaj Singha
(B) The Ahom king Jayadhwaj Singha defeated Mir Jumla
(C) The Ahom general Bir Lachit defeated the Mughal general Ram Singh
(D) The Mughal general Ram Singh defeated the Ahom general Bir Lachit
12. A very special tank, which archaeologists call the Great Bath was found in the ancient city of
(A) Mohenjodaro (B) Lothal
(C) Harappa (D) Kalibangan
13. Ashoka the Great belonged to the
(A) Mughal dynasty (B) Maurya dynasty
(C) Slave dynasty (D) British Empire
14. ‘Abhijnanam Sakuntalam’ was written by
(A) Kalidas (B) Kautilya
(C) Harshavardhana (D) Banabhatta
15. First Indo – Pak war was started in the year
(A) 1945 (B) 1947
(C) 1949 (D) 1950
16. What is 20% of 200 ?
(A) 20 (B) 40
(C) 60 (D) 80
17. Choose the greatest from the following ?
(A) 9.90 (B) 9.99
(C) 9.09 (D) 0.99
18. How many months have 30 days ?
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 7
19. Fill in the blank in the series with an appropriate letter.
A C E G I K __ O
(A) M (B) N
(C) L (D) P
20. Choose the odd one out.
(A) Rose (B) Lotus
(C) Jasmine (D) Cauliflower
21. Find one angle of an equilateral triangle.
(A) 60 degree (B) 90 degree
(C) 45 degree (D) 30 degree
22. If the mean (average) of 5 numbers is 5.4 what is the total sum of these numbers ?
(A) 20 (B) 24
(C) 26 (D) 27
23. If x = 5, y = 3, z = 9 find the value of 4x – 3y + 7z.
(A) 64 (B) 74
(C) 84 (D) 94
24. At what rate of simple interest will Rs. 525/- amount to Rs. 588/- at the end of 3 years.
(A) 4% (B) 6%
(C) 8% (D) 10%
25. Find the square root of 15876
(A) 156 (B) 146
(C) 126 (D) 116
(A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Lala Lajpat Rai (D) G.K.Gokhale
2. The first popular revolt against the British (also called the Sepoy Mutiny) happened in the
year
(A) 1857 (B) 1867
(C) 1877 (D) 1897
3. “Do or Die” was one of the most powerful slogans of India’s freedom struggle. Who gave it ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) B. G. Tilak (D) Subhash Chandra Bose
4. ‘Thanas’ was established during the British period by
(A) Cornwallis (B) Warren Hastings
(C) William Bentinck (D) Wellesley
5. Which of the British rulers was associated with the ‘abolition of sati’ ?
(A) William Bentinck (B) Warren Hastings
(C) Robert Clive (D) Dalhousie
6. Whose reign is considered as the golden age of Mughal architecture ?
(A) Shah Jahan (B) Jahangir
(C) Aurangzeb (D) Akbar
7. Fort William in Bengal was constructed by the
(A) British (B) Portuguese
(C) Dutch (D) French
8. Who founded the Ahom kingdom of Assam ?
(A) Sukapha (B) Bamunikonwar
(C) Dihingia Raja (D) Khora Raja
9. Who established the ‘satras’ in Assam ?
(A) Nathmuni (B) Srimanta Sankaradeva
(C) Ramananda (D) Kabir
10. To promote trade and commerce, Sher Shah constructed many roads. The most famous of
them was the Grand Trunk Road. It ran from
(A) Gujarat to Delhi (B) Bengal to Punjab
(C) Delhi to Lahore (D) Delhi to Kashmir
11. In the battle of Saraighat in 1671 A.D.
(A) Mir Jumla defeated the Ahom king Jayadhwaj Singha
(B) The Ahom king Jayadhwaj Singha defeated Mir Jumla
(C) The Ahom general Bir Lachit defeated the Mughal general Ram Singh
(D) The Mughal general Ram Singh defeated the Ahom general Bir Lachit
12. A very special tank, which archaeologists call the Great Bath was found in the ancient city of
(A) Mohenjodaro (B) Lothal
(C) Harappa (D) Kalibangan
13. Ashoka the Great belonged to the
(A) Mughal dynasty (B) Maurya dynasty
(C) Slave dynasty (D) British Empire
14. ‘Abhijnanam Sakuntalam’ was written by
(A) Kalidas (B) Kautilya
(C) Harshavardhana (D) Banabhatta
15. First Indo – Pak war was started in the year
(A) 1945 (B) 1947
(C) 1949 (D) 1950
16. What is 20% of 200 ?
(A) 20 (B) 40
(C) 60 (D) 80
17. Choose the greatest from the following ?
(A) 9.90 (B) 9.99
(C) 9.09 (D) 0.99
18. How many months have 30 days ?
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 7
19. Fill in the blank in the series with an appropriate letter.
A C E G I K __ O
(A) M (B) N
(C) L (D) P
20. Choose the odd one out.
(A) Rose (B) Lotus
(C) Jasmine (D) Cauliflower
21. Find one angle of an equilateral triangle.
(A) 60 degree (B) 90 degree
(C) 45 degree (D) 30 degree
22. If the mean (average) of 5 numbers is 5.4 what is the total sum of these numbers ?
(A) 20 (B) 24
(C) 26 (D) 27
23. If x = 5, y = 3, z = 9 find the value of 4x – 3y + 7z.
(A) 64 (B) 74
(C) 84 (D) 94
24. At what rate of simple interest will Rs. 525/- amount to Rs. 588/- at the end of 3 years.
(A) 4% (B) 6%
(C) 8% (D) 10%
25. Find the square root of 15876
(A) 156 (B) 146
(C) 126 (D) 116
SCHEDULE OF MAIN(2ND STAGE) WRITTEN EXAMINATION FOR VARIOUS POSTS OF NTPC GRADUATE CATEGORIES
SCHEDULE OF MAIN(2ND STAGE) WRITTEN EXAMINATION FOR VARIOUS POSTS OF NTPC GRADUATE CATEGORIES
- Date of Written exam - 18.08.2013
- Reporting time of candidate - 10.30 Hrs.
- Exam. Duration and venue - 90 minutes (11.00 to 12.30)
- The call-letters indicating date, time and venue of examination centre for Main Written Examination to above mentioned candidates against above mentioned Notifications have been sent at the corresponding address given in Application form. Railway Recruitment Board will not be responsible for any postal delay or wrong delivery of call-letter. Those candidates who do not get call-letters or who have been issued call-letters with wrong name, date of birth, community, category number, photograph may come personally with proof to Railway Recruitment Board as per schedule given above from 09.30 hours to 17.00 hours for getting corrected/duplicate call letters
| Name of the Post | Employment Notification No. | Date of issue of Duplicate Call Letters | |
| From | To | ||
| Commercial Apprentice | 03/2012 | 16/08/2013 | 17/08/2013 |
| Traffic Apprentice | 03/2012 | 16/08/2013 | 17/08/2013 |
| ECRC | 03/2012 | 16/08/2013 | 17/08/2013 |
| Goods Guard | 03/2012 | 16/08/2013 | 17/08/2013 |
| Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist | 03/2012 | 16/08/2013 | 17/08/2013 |
| Assistant Station Master | 03/2012 | 16/08/2013 | 17/08/2013 |
| Assistant Station Master | 03/2012 | 16/08/2013 | 17/08/2013 |
Eastern Railway 1608 Ex-Servicemen Quota Posts Recruitment
Recruitment 2013 in Eastern Railway for 1608 Ex-Servicemen Quota Posts
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Applications are invited from eligible Ex-Servicemen who fulfill the eligibility criteria mentioned below for filling up the following posts:
For Eastern Railway:
How to Apply: The completed applications in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents Senior Personnel Officer (Recruitments), Eastern Railway, Railway Recruitment Cell, 56, C.R. Avenu, Kolkata- 700012. Last Date: 16/08/2013 For more details Click here |
Western Railway Sports Quota Recruitment
Applications in the prescribed format are invited
from eligible Indian Nationals Sports persons in various grades and in
various sports disciplines in Western Railway :
Age : 18-25 years as on 0/01/2014. - 05 posts in the pay scale : Rs. 5200-20200 grade pay Rs. 2800/ 2400
- 16 posts in the pay scale : Rs. 5200-20200 grade pay Rs. 2000/ 1900
- 38 posts in the pay scale : Rs. 5200-20200 grade pay Rs. 1800
How to Apply : Application as per prescribed format with two passport size photographs
should be addressed to Sr. Sports Officer, Western Railway Sports Association, Headquarter Office, Churchgate, Mumbai - 400020 on or before is 26/08/013.
Saturday, July 27, 2013
RRC Allahabad 2715 Erstwhile Group D Posts
Railway Recruitment Cell (RRC), Allahabad invites applications for the Erstwhile Group D Posts in North Central Railway.
Erstwhile Group D: 2715 Posts
Erstwhile Group D: 2715 Posts
- APM / Gateman: 173 Posts
- Box Boy / Peon: 03 Posts
- Trackman: 1703 Posts
- Helper (Engineering): 127 Posts
- Helper (S&T): 117 Posts
- Safaiwala / AMK: 42 Posts
- Parcel Porter: 24 Posts
- Helper (Mech.) C&W/DSL: 158 Posts
- Helper (Elect.) Genl: 38 Posts
- Helper (Elect) TRD / TRS / RSO: 115 Posts
- Safaiwala: 03 Posts
- Helper / Office Khalasi / Multi skilled workers: 50 Posts
- Helper Workshop (Mech. / Elect.): 97 Posts
- Khalasi: 50 Posts
- Helper: 15 Posts
Qualifications: 10th Class or ITI or equivalent. Those candidates who are appearing in and/or awaiting results final examination of class 10th are not eligible. Candidates having higher educational qualifications may also apply.
Age Limit: 18 to 33 years and will be reckoned as on 01.01.2014.
Examination Fee: The examination fee for unreserved and OBC candidate is Rs. 100/-. All women candidates, SC/ST/Muslims/Christians/Sikhs Buddhists/Zorastrians (Parsis) candidates are exempted from payment of examination fees. Economically backward class candidates whose family income is less than Rs. 50,000 per annum are exempted from examinations fees (They have to produce income certificate on letter head in prescribed format as shown in Annexure VI & VII).
Selection Process: Candidates will be selected on the base of Written Examination and Physical Efficiency Test.
How to Apply: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the Assistant Personnel Officer, Railway Recruitment Cell, North Central Railway, Balmiki Chauraha, Nawab Yusuf Road, Allahabad by ordinary post only or may also be dropped in the Box kept in the Railway Recruitment Cell Office.
Important Dates:- Last Date for Submission of Application: 02/09/2013
- Last Date for Submission of Application for Remote Areas:16/09/2013
Thursday, July 25, 2013
Railway Recruitment Cell, Allahabad Recruitment of Group C (Scouts and Guides Quota)
Applications are invited from Scouts & Guides Persons of all categories in Group ‘C’ grade:
Group C (Scouts and Guides Quota):
How to Apply: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the address as mention in the notification.
Last Date: 19/08/2013
More details click here
Group C (Scouts and Guides Quota):
- NCR Hqsr: 02 Posts
- ALD Divn.: 02 Posts
- JHS Divn.: 02 Posts
- AGC Divn.: 02 Posts
Qualification: Matriculation or equivalent with 50% marks.
How to Apply: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the address as mention in the notification.
Last Date: 19/08/2013
More details click here
Saturday, July 20, 2013
North Western Railway, Jaipur Recruitment of Various Posts
Applications are invited for the following posts:
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Important Dates:
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Rail Coach Factory, Kapurthala Recruitment of Sports Quota Posts
Applications are invited for the following posts:
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Qualifications: High School or equivalent examination passed. Or 10th pass Or ITI Or equivalent and minimum Sports norms as mention in the notification.
For more details Click hereAge limit as on 01.07.2013: 18-25 years. Fee: Crossed Indian Postal Order / Demand Draft of Rs. 60/- for grade pay Rs. 2000/- and Rs.40/- for grade pay Rs. 1900/-&1800/- to be prepared after the date of publication of this notice payable in favour of FA&CAO/Rail Coach Factory, Kapurthala. SC/ST, Women, Minorities (Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Zoroastrians (Parsis) and economically backward classes candidates are exempted from examination fee. How to Apply: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents and DD/ I.P.O should reach the office of the General Manager (Personnel), Recruitment Section, Rail Coach Factory, Kapurthala-144 602. Last Date: 12/08/2013 |
Saturday, July 6, 2013
Railway Recruitment Cell (RRC), Bilaspur Recruitment of Ex-Serviceman Quota
Railway Recruitment Cell (RRC), Bilaspur has released an employment notification regarding recruitment of 968 Ex-Serviceman Quota Posts in South East Central Railway.
Ex-Serviceman Quota Posts: 968 Posts
Qualifications:
Candidates must have retired after putting in 15 years of service and have passed Army Class-I certificate or equivalent.
Address: Deputy Chief Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell, South East Central Railway, R.T.S. Colony, Near Kendriya Vidyalaya, Bilaspur-495004 (Chhattisgarh).
Last Date for submission of application: 31 July 2013
Last Date for Submission of Application for Remote Areas: 14 August 2013
Ex-Serviceman Quota Posts: 968 Posts
Qualifications:
Candidates must have retired after putting in 15 years of service and have passed Army Class-I certificate or equivalent.
Address: Deputy Chief Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell, South East Central Railway, R.T.S. Colony, Near Kendriya Vidyalaya, Bilaspur-495004 (Chhattisgarh).
Last Date for submission of application: 31 July 2013
Last Date for Submission of Application for Remote Areas: 14 August 2013
Friday, July 5, 2013
South Western Railway, Hubli Recruitment of Ex-Serviceman Quota
Applications in the prescribed format are invited from Ex-Servicemen to fill up 1014 vacancies (erstwhile Group 'D' Posts) on South Western Railway, Hubli.
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Eligibility: Ex-Servicemen who have retired after putting in 15 years of service and has passed Army Class-I certificate or equivalent will be considered eligible.
For more details Click hereHow to Apply: The completed applications in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the Assistant Personnel Officer/ Recruitment, Railway Recruitment Cell, DRM’s Office Compound, South Western Railway, Hubli-580020. Last Date: 29/07/2013 |
Wednesday, July 3, 2013
East Coast Railway Recruitment of Ex-Servicemen Quota
Applications are invited from eligible Ex-servicemen who fulfill the eligibility criteria mentioned below for filling up the following posts in Pay Band-1 of Rs. 5200- 20200 with Grade Pay of Rs. 1800/-.
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Eligibility: Ex-Servicemen who have retired after putting in 15 years of service and have passed Army Class- I certificate or equivalent are eligible to apply.
For more details Click hereHow to Apply: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the “Assistant Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell, 2nd Floor, South Block, Rail Sadan, PO-Mancheswar, Bhubaneswar, Odisha - 751017. Last Date: 29/07/2013 |
Saturday, June 29, 2013
Northern Railway Recruitment of Various Posts
Applications are invited for the following posts:
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Qualification: 10th Pass. Age Limit: The sports person should be minimum of 18 years of age and maximum of 25 years of age as on 01/07/2013.
For more details Click hereHow to Apply: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the Sports Cell, Welfare Branch Divisional Railway Managers Office Northern Railway State Entry Road New Delhi- 110055. Last Date: 02/08/2013 |
Friday, June 21, 2013
Container Corporation of India Ltd. (CONCOR) Recruitment
A Blue-Chip Mini-Ratna Company, Container Corporation Of India popularly
known as 'CONCOR' is looking for talented professionals for following
posts :
How to Apply: Apply Online at CONCOR website on or before 08/07/2013 only.
Please visit http://careers.concorindia.co.in for details and online submission of application.
- Senior Assistant (Finance & Accounts) : 18 posts, Age : 28 years, Pay Scale : Rs. 9120 - 3% - 20500
- Assistant Supervisor (Finance & Accounts) : 01 post, Age : 32 years, Pay Scale : Rs. 11800- 28600
How to Apply: Apply Online at CONCOR website on or before 08/07/2013 only.
Please visit http://careers.concorindia.co.in for details and online submission of application.
Rail Coach Factory Recruitment of Various Posts
Applications are invited in the prescribed format for engagement of 202 Act-Apprentices for imparting training in Technical Training Centre, Rail Coach Factory (Kapurthala) under the Apprenticeship Act.1961, for the following trades:
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Thursday, June 20, 2013
Kochi Metro Rail Limited Recruitment of Various Posts
Applications are invited for the following posts:
Last Date: 10/07/2013
For more details Click here
- General Manager (Finance & Accounts): 01 Post
Qualification: CA/ICWA. - Sr. Mgr. (Accounts & Audit): 01 Post
Qualification: CA/ICWA. - Dy. General Manager (Property Development): 01 Post
Qualifications: Degree in Town / Urban Planning from a reputed institute or B.Tech. or equivalent in civil engineering. Preference will be given for those having postgraduate degree / MBA from a reputed institute. - Company Secretary: 01 Post
Qualifications: ACS / FCS. - Dy. General Manager (HR, Administration & Training): 01 Post
Qualifications: Graduate with postgraduate degree / Diploma in HR from a reputed Institute. Preference will be given to candidates having additional qualification of bachelors degree.
Last Date: 10/07/2013
Wednesday, June 19, 2013
South Central Railway Recruitment of Erstwhile Group D Posts
Applications are invited from Ex-Servicemen for filling up the erstwhile Group D vacancies in Pay Band 5200 - 20200/- plus G.P. of Z18001- in South Central Railway.
For more details Click here
- Trackman (Gatemen): 61 Posts
- Helper-II: 180 Posts
- Assistant Points men: 70 Posts
Eligibility: Ex-Servicemen who have retired after putting in 15 years of service and possess Army Class-I certificate or equivalents are eligible to apply.
How to Apply: The duly fill in application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the Assistant Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Railway Recruitment cell, First Floor, C- Block, Rail Nilayam, South central Railway, Secunderabad, Andhra Pradesh-500071.
Last Date: 15/07/2013
How to Apply: The duly fill in application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the Assistant Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Railway Recruitment cell, First Floor, C- Block, Rail Nilayam, South central Railway, Secunderabad, Andhra Pradesh-500071.
Last Date: 15/07/2013
For more details Click here
Monday, June 17, 2013
Bangalore Metro Rail Corporation Limited Recruitment of Various Posts
Applications are invited from eligible EX-military personnel for the following posts (Total 237 Posts) in the Operation & Maintenance Wing of BMRCL.
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1. Section Engineer (Signalling/Telecommunication/Automatic Fare Collection): 09 PostsQualifications: Four years engineering degree in Electrical / Electronics / Telecommunication / Computer Science Engineering or equivalent qualification declared by Armed Forces.
2. Section Engineer (Electric Traction / Electrical Maintenance / Lift & Escalator) / Section Engineer (Rolling Stock Maintenance): 04 PostsQualifications: Four years engineering degree in Electrical / Electronics / Telecommunication / Computer Science Engineering or equivalent qualification declared by Armed Forces. 3. Section Engineer (Civil Structure Works): 06 PostsQualifications: Four years engineering degree in Civil Engineering or equivalent qualification declared by Armed Forces. 4. Junior Engineer (Signalling/Telecommunication/Automatic Fare Collection): 08 PostsQualifications: Matriculation plus three years Engineering Diploma in Electrical / Electronics / Telecommunication Engineering or equivalent qualification declared by Armed Forces in any one of the "Trades viz. i). Engine Fitter. ii). Air Frame Fitter. iii). Workshop Fitter. iv). Plant Maintenance Fitter. v). Instrument Fitter. vi). Electrical Fitter. vii). ADSO. viii). AFSO. 5. Junior Engineer (ET / EM / L & E/ Rolling Stock Maintenance): 26 PostsQualifications: Matriculation plus three years Engineering Diploma in Electrical / Electronics / Telecommunication engineering or equivalent qualification declared by Armed Forces in any one of the "Trades viz. i). Engine Fitter. ii). Air Frame Fitter. iii). Workshop Fitter. iv). Plant Maintenance Fitter. v). Instrument Fitter. vi). Electrical Fitter. vii). Active Duty Service Obligation (ADSO). viii). AFSO. 6. Maintainers (Signalling & Telecommunication/Automatic Fare Collection): 30 PostsQualifications: Matriculation plus two years ITI in Electrician or equivalent trade issued by Armed Forces in any one of the following: Electrician Operator Radio Engine Artificer Fitter Radio Technician. 7. Maintainers (ET / EM/ L & E /Rolling Stock): 97 PostsQualifications: Matriculation plus two years ITI in Electrician or equivalent trade issued by Armed Forces in any one of the following : Electrician, Machinist, Engine Artificer, Engine Fitter, Airframe Fitter, Instrument Fitter & Plant Maintenance Fitter. 8. Maintainers (Civil Structure Works): 06 PostsQualifications: Matriculation plus two years ITI in Masonary, Carpentry, Building or equivalent trade issued by Armed Forces in any one of the following: Artisan (construction), Artisan (Wood Work), Welder Artisan (Metallurgy), Painter Decorator and Fitter. 9. Customer Relation Manager (Operations): 26 PostsQualifications: Matriculation, plus 2 and 3 years graduate degree in BA / B.Sc. / B.Com. / BBM / BBA. or equivalent qualification declared as such by the Armed Forces. Instructional ability in any Defence institute for minimum two years is preferred. 10. Station Controller (Operations)/Train Operator (Operations): 19 PostsQualifications: Matriculation plus three years diploma in electrical engineering / Bachelor of Science with Physics, Chemistry & Mathematics or equivalent qualification in trade issued by Armed Forces in any one of the following trades: i). Machinist, ii). Engine Artificer. iii). Driver Special Vehicle. iv). AFV Drivers. v). Engine Fitter. vi). Mechanical Transport Fitter. vii). Special Vehicle Operator. 11. Assistant (HR): 04 PostsQualifications: Matriculation, plus 2 and 3 years Bachelor degree in Commerce or equivalent declared as such by Armed Forces. 12. Assistant (Finance/Stores): 02 PostsQualifications: Matriculation, plus 2 & 3 years Bachelor degree in Arts / Science / Commerce or equivalent declared as such by Armed Forces. How to Apply: Candidates should apply online only. Last Date: 17/07/2013 For more details Click here |
Friday, June 14, 2013
RRC Mumbai recruitment against Ex-Servicemen Quota
Railway Recruitment Cell (RRC), Mumbai has released notification regarding recruitment against Ex-Servicemen Quota.
Total No. of Vacancies: 560
Post Details:
1. Trackman: 147 Posts
2. Helper Khalasi (Engg/ Mech/ Elect/ S&T): 241 Posts
3. Helper/ Stores: 07 Posts
4. Platform Porter: 60 Posts
5. Safaiwala/ Comml, Mech, Medical: 83 Posts
6. Safaiwala/ General Adminstration, Accounts: 08 Posts
7. Waiter and Cleaner, Commercial Catering: 14 Posts
Qualification:
Ex-Servicemen who have retired after putting in 15 years of service and have passed Army Class-I certificate or equivalent or Matric will be considered eligible.
Address:
The Assistant Personnel Officer/ Recruitment, Railway Recruitment Cell, Western Railway, Parcel Depot, Alibhai Premji Road, Grant Road (E), Mumbai-400007.
Last Date for Submission of Application: 10 July 2013
Last Date for Submission of Application for Remote Areas: 24 July 2013
Website: www.rrc-wr.com
Total No. of Vacancies: 560
Post Details:
1. Trackman: 147 Posts
2. Helper Khalasi (Engg/ Mech/ Elect/ S&T): 241 Posts
3. Helper/ Stores: 07 Posts
4. Platform Porter: 60 Posts
5. Safaiwala/ Comml, Mech, Medical: 83 Posts
6. Safaiwala/ General Adminstration, Accounts: 08 Posts
7. Waiter and Cleaner, Commercial Catering: 14 Posts
Qualification:
Ex-Servicemen who have retired after putting in 15 years of service and have passed Army Class-I certificate or equivalent or Matric will be considered eligible.
Address:
The Assistant Personnel Officer/ Recruitment, Railway Recruitment Cell, Western Railway, Parcel Depot, Alibhai Premji Road, Grant Road (E), Mumbai-400007.
Last Date for Submission of Application: 10 July 2013
Last Date for Submission of Application for Remote Areas: 24 July 2013
Website: www.rrc-wr.com
RRC Allahabad recruitment against Ex-Servicemen Quota
Railway Recruitment Cell (RRC), Allahabad has released notification regarding recruitment against Ex-Servicemen Quota.
Total No. of Vacancies: 483
Post Details:
1. Porter/ APM/ Box Porter/ Peon cum Porter: 65 Posts
2. Safaiwala: 04 Posts
3. Trackman: 238 Posts
4. Parcel Porter: 06 Posts
5. Helper (Signal): 12 Posts
6. Helper (Tele): 10 Posts
7. Helper/ T. Man: 10 Posts
8. Helper/ G/ TRS/ TRD: 50 Posts
9. Helper (C&W): 32 Posts
10. Helper/ DSL: 12 Posts
11.HospitalAttendant/ AMK/ Safaiwala: 05 Posts
12. Office Khalasi/ Personnel/ General Admn: 07 Posts
13. Helper/ WS: 13 Posts
14. Khalasi: 14 Posts
15. Catering Khalasi: 01 Post
16. Helper/ (works): 04 Posts
Qualification:
Matric or equivalent or higher qualification or Ex-Servicemen who have retired after putting in 15 years of service and have passed Army Class-I certificate or equivalent will be considered eligible.
The Assistant Personnel Officer, Railway Recruitment Cell, Balmiki Chauraha Nawab Yusuf Road, Allahabad-211001.
Last Date for Submission of Application: 08 July 2013
Total No. of Vacancies: 483
Post Details:
1. Porter/ APM/ Box Porter/ Peon cum Porter: 65 Posts
2. Safaiwala: 04 Posts
3. Trackman: 238 Posts
4. Parcel Porter: 06 Posts
5. Helper (Signal): 12 Posts
6. Helper (Tele): 10 Posts
7. Helper/ T. Man: 10 Posts
8. Helper/ G/ TRS/ TRD: 50 Posts
9. Helper (C&W): 32 Posts
10. Helper/ DSL: 12 Posts
11.HospitalAttendant/ AMK/ Safaiwala: 05 Posts
12. Office Khalasi/ Personnel/ General Admn: 07 Posts
13. Helper/ WS: 13 Posts
14. Khalasi: 14 Posts
15. Catering Khalasi: 01 Post
16. Helper/ (works): 04 Posts
Qualification:
Matric or equivalent or higher qualification or Ex-Servicemen who have retired after putting in 15 years of service and have passed Army Class-I certificate or equivalent will be considered eligible.
The Assistant Personnel Officer, Railway Recruitment Cell, Balmiki Chauraha Nawab Yusuf Road, Allahabad-211001.
Last Date for Submission of Application: 08 July 2013
Tuesday, June 11, 2013
DMRC Assistant Manager (Safety) Recruitment
Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd. (DMRC) Requirement of Assistant Manager (Safety) in Metro Rail projects at Delhi/ NCR/ Kochi/ Jaipur
DMRC invites applications from Civil/ Mechanical Engineers for following posts in DMRC :
Assistant Manager (Safety) : 06 posts (UR-05, SC-01), Age : 28 years, Pay Scale : Rs. 20600-46500
How to Apply : Application in the prescribed format should be send to Executive Director (HR), Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd, Metro Bhavan, Fire Brigade Lane, Barakhamba Road, New Delhi - 110001 by 26/06/2013.
Please view http://delhimetrorail.com/CareerDocuments/2013/6/236safety.pdf for details and application format.
DMRC invites applications from Civil/ Mechanical Engineers for following posts in DMRC :
Assistant Manager (Safety) : 06 posts (UR-05, SC-01), Age : 28 years, Pay Scale : Rs. 20600-46500
How to Apply : Application in the prescribed format should be send to Executive Director (HR), Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd, Metro Bhavan, Fire Brigade Lane, Barakhamba Road, New Delhi - 110001 by 26/06/2013.
Please view http://delhimetrorail.com/CareerDocuments/2013/6/236safety.pdf for details and application format.
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