Railway Recruitment Cell Central Railway (RRCCR), Mumbai invites application for the following posts:
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Age Limit: Candidates age limit should be between 18-33 years as on 01/01/2014. Qualifications: 10th class passed or ITI or equivalent.
Applications Fee: Rs.100/- payable in the form of crossed demand draft from State Bank of India or from any other Nationalised Bank or crossed Indian Postal Order drawn in favour of Assistant Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell, Central Railway, Mumbai. SC / ST / Women / Minority Communities / EBC / Persons with disabilities and Ex. servicemen are exempted from payment of application fees. How to Apply: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents and DD should reach the Assistant Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell, Central Railway, Chief Project Manager (Conv.)’s Office Building, 1st Floor, P.D Mellow Road, Wadi Bunder, Mumbai - 400010. Important Dates:
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Tuesday, August 27, 2013
RRCCR Mumbai Recruitment of Various Posts
Central Railway (Railway Recruitment Cell) Sports Quota Posts Recruitment
Central Railway (Railway Recruitment Cell) invites application for the post of Sports Quota:
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Pay Scale: Rs 5200-20200 (Grade Pay 2,000-1900):
Qualifications: (Rs 5200-20200 Grade Pay 2,000-1900/1800) minimum SSC /Matriculation or equivalent. (Rs 5200-20200 Grade Pay 2,800-2400). Minimum Graduation in any faculty.
Processing Fee: For GL/OBC candidates Crossed Indian Postal Order of Rs. 100/- drawn in favour of Asst. Personnel Officer (RT), Railway Recruitment Cell, Central Railway Mumbai. SC/ST/Women’s/Minorities & Economically Backward Classes candidates are exempted from processing Fee. How to Apply: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the Assistant Personnel Officer (RT), Chief Personnel Officers Office, General Manager's Building, 1st floor, Chhatrapati, Shivaji Terminus. Mumbai- 400010. Last date: 23/09/2013 For more details Click here |
Friday, August 23, 2013
RailTel Corporation of India Ltd Recruitment of Field Supervisors
- Field Supervisor - (Southern Region) : 20 posts
- Field Supervisor - (Western Region ) : 20 posts
Qualification & Experience:
Diploma (3 years) in Electronics/Telecom/Communication/Electrical with minimum 55% marks, with minimum 3 (three) year managerial/supervisory experience in the field of execution of Optical Fiber Cable based telecom Infrastructure Projects and/or operation and maintenance of Optical Fiber Cable/equipment/network;
ORBE/B.Tech in Electronics/Telecom/Communication/Electrical/IT/Computer Science or MCA with minimum 55% marks, with minimum 1 (one) year managerial/supervisory experience in the field of execution of Optical Fiber Cable based telecom Infrastructure Projects and/or operation and maintenance of Optical Fiber Cable/ equipment/ network
Selection procedure: The selection will be made through written test and /or interview of short-listed candidates at a place to be decided by Railtel.
How to apply:The application, complete in all respects, along with self attested photocopies of the required documents should reach Manager (Rectt), RailTel Corporation of India Limited, Corporate Office, 143, Institutional Area, Sector 44, Gurgaon-122003 by unregistered post.
Last date for receipt of applications: 13th Sep, 2013
For more details Click here
Diploma (3 years) in Electronics/Telecom/Communication/Electrical with minimum 55% marks, with minimum 3 (three) year managerial/supervisory experience in the field of execution of Optical Fiber Cable based telecom Infrastructure Projects and/or operation and maintenance of Optical Fiber Cable/equipment/network;
ORBE/B.Tech in Electronics/Telecom/Communication/Electrical/IT/Computer Science or MCA with minimum 55% marks, with minimum 1 (one) year managerial/supervisory experience in the field of execution of Optical Fiber Cable based telecom Infrastructure Projects and/or operation and maintenance of Optical Fiber Cable/ equipment/ network
Selection procedure: The selection will be made through written test and /or interview of short-listed candidates at a place to be decided by Railtel.
How to apply:The application, complete in all respects, along with self attested photocopies of the required documents should reach Manager (Rectt), RailTel Corporation of India Limited, Corporate Office, 143, Institutional Area, Sector 44, Gurgaon-122003 by unregistered post.
Last date for receipt of applications: 13th Sep, 2013
For more details Click here
Monday, August 19, 2013
Kochi Metro Rail Limited (KMRL) Recruitment
Applications are invited from eligible candidates for following posts for Kochi Metro Project :
How to Apply : Applications shall be send to Manager (HR & Training), Kochi Metro Rail Ltd., 8th Floor, Revenue Tower, Par Avenue, Kochi – 682011 so as to reach the office latest by 10/09/2013.
For further details and Application format, Please visit http://kochimetro.org/careers/
- General Manager (Rolling Stock & Electrical) : 01 post
- General Manager (Signalling & Telecommunication) : 01 post
- Dy. General Manager (Signalling & Telecommunication) : 01 post
- Dy. General Manager (Civil) : 02 posts
- Dy. General Manager (Property Development) : 01 post
- Manager (Power & Traction) : 01 post
- Manager (Signalling & Telecommunication) : 01 post
- Executive (Signalling & Telecommunication) : 01 post
How to Apply : Applications shall be send to Manager (HR & Training), Kochi Metro Rail Ltd., 8th Floor, Revenue Tower, Par Avenue, Kochi – 682011 so as to reach the office latest by 10/09/2013.
For further details and Application format, Please visit http://kochimetro.org/careers/
Monday, August 5, 2013
Central Railway Recruitment of Ex-Servicemen Quota Group D Posts
Applications are invited from eligible Ex-Servicemen for filling up 905 vacancies in Pay Band-1 of Rs. 5200-20200 with Grade Pay of Rs. 1800 (Erstwhile Group ‘D’) in Central Railway:
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Eligibility: i). Ex-Servicemen who have retired after putting in 15 years of service and have passed Army Class-I certificate or equivalent are eligible to apply, provided they have put in a minimum of 6 months attested service. ii). Ex-servicemen who have already joined the Government Service on civil side after availing of other benefits given to them as Ex-Servicemen for further employment cannot claim Ex-Servicemen status for the purpose of this recruitment. iii). Sons / Daughters / Wards of Ex-Servicemen are not eligible to apply for the post reserved for Ex-Servicemen.
Age (As On 01.01.2014): For UR candidates: 33 years + extent of military service + 3 years, For SC/ST candidates: 38 years + extent of military service + 3 years & For OBC candidates: 36 years + extent of military service + 3 year How to Apply: The Completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the Assistant Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell, Chief Project Manager (Conv)’s Office Building, Wadibunder, P.D’ Mello Road, Mumbai 400010. Last Date: 26/08/2013 For more details Click here |
Sunday, August 4, 2013
North Eastern Railway Recruitment of Ex-Servicemen quota posts
Applications in the prescribed format are invited
from eligible Indian Nationals for filling up of Group-D posts in North
Eastern Railways :
Ex-Servicemen Quota (Group - D) posts : 273 posts in
various categories in the pay scale Rs.5200-20200 Grade Pay Rs. 1800,
Age : 18-33 years as on 01/01/2014, relaxation in age as per rules.
Saturday, August 3, 2013
North Western Railway Recruitment of 54 Sports Quota Posts
Applications are invited from eligible sports persons for following sports disciplines for Group ‘C’ and erstwhile Group ‘D’ posts:
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I. Vacancies against Head Quarter Quota:
How to Apply: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the address as mention in the notification. Important Dates:
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Thursday, August 1, 2013
RRC South Eastern Railway, Kolkata erstwhile Group 'D' vacancies against Ex-servicemen quota
Railway Recruitment Cell (RRC), South Eastern Railway, Kolkata invites application for filling up the following provisional erstwhile Group 'D' vacancies against Ex-servicemen quota.
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Eligibility: Ex-Serviceman who have retired after putting in 15 years of service in the Armed force of the Union of India and have passed Army Class-I certificate or equivalent are eligible to apply.
How to Apply: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the “Assistant Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell, 11, Garden Reach Road, South Eastern Railway, Kolkata-700043. Last Date: 26/08/2013 For more details Click here |
Sunday, July 28, 2013
RPF Constables Exam Solved Paper
1. The pole star is a part of the constellation - Ursa Minor
2. What is a “Zero Base Budgeting”? - Preparation of new budget' every time
3. Indian Planning Commission was constituted in - 1950
4. The constitution of India is - Partly rigid and partly flexible
5. Hypermnesia is - An exceptional power of memory
6. Chocolates can be bad for health because of a high content of - Nickle
7. Which of the following is the particle antiparticle pair? - Electron, position
8. Light from the nearest star (other than the sun) reaches the earth in - 4.2 years
9. The boundary between India and Pakistan was demarcated by - Sir Cyril Radcliffe
10. The atoms of elements in the same group must have the same - Number of electrons in valence shell
11. Which of the following would be most suitable for making an electromagnet? - Soft iron
12. Cinnabar is an ore of - Mercury
13. The salary and allowances of the governor are charged to - The consolidated fund of the state
14. Beta rays are - High-speed electrons
15. The largest part of most diets is made up of - Carbohydrates
16. Echoes are produced due to - Refraction of sound
17. The country with the highest density is - Bangladesh
18. The most abundant source of iron is - Green vegetables
19. The power to prorogue the Lok Sabha rests with - The President
20. The tests normally descend into the scrotum about - The time of birth
21. The Directive Principles of State Policy are - Non -Justiciable
22. What is “Stagflation”? - Inflation with depression
23. The Famous Chinese pilgrim Fa-hien visited India during the reign of - Chandra Gupta II
24. The type of mirror used in the headlamps of cars is the - Parabolic concave mirror
25. Who of the bhakti saints of South India was a man but felt himself in a feminine relationship towards his God? - Nammalvar
26. A plant cell is distinguished from an animal cell by the presence of - Chloroplasts
27. The responsibility for the recruitment of All India Services rests with - The Union Public Service Commission
28. The Main objective of TRYSEM was - To train rural youth for self employment
29. Adhoc Judges can be appointed in the Supreme Court - By the Chief Justice of India with the Prior consent of the President
30. Triple vaccine is administered to a new born child to immunize it against - Whooping cough, tetanus and diphtheria
31. The council of ministers is collectively responsible to - The Parliament
32.The Prime Minister is the chairman of - The Planning Commission
33. When the velocity of a body is doubled, its - Mementum is doubled
34. Money bills can be introduced in the state legislature with the Prior consent of - The Governor
35. The element which forms the largest number of compounds with hydrogen is - Carbon
36. The heaviest among the inner planets is the - Earth
37. In which plan was the growth rate target exceeded? - First
38. A very rapid growth in prices in which money loses its value to the point where even barter may be preferable is known as - Hyper-inflation
39. Ramanuja Preached - Bhakti
40. The substance present in good amounts in the sea and administered in certain deficiency diseases is - Iodine
2. What is a “Zero Base Budgeting”? - Preparation of new budget' every time
3. Indian Planning Commission was constituted in - 1950
4. The constitution of India is - Partly rigid and partly flexible
5. Hypermnesia is - An exceptional power of memory
6. Chocolates can be bad for health because of a high content of - Nickle
7. Which of the following is the particle antiparticle pair? - Electron, position
8. Light from the nearest star (other than the sun) reaches the earth in - 4.2 years
9. The boundary between India and Pakistan was demarcated by - Sir Cyril Radcliffe
10. The atoms of elements in the same group must have the same - Number of electrons in valence shell
11. Which of the following would be most suitable for making an electromagnet? - Soft iron
12. Cinnabar is an ore of - Mercury
13. The salary and allowances of the governor are charged to - The consolidated fund of the state
14. Beta rays are - High-speed electrons
15. The largest part of most diets is made up of - Carbohydrates
16. Echoes are produced due to - Refraction of sound
17. The country with the highest density is - Bangladesh
18. The most abundant source of iron is - Green vegetables
19. The power to prorogue the Lok Sabha rests with - The President
20. The tests normally descend into the scrotum about - The time of birth
21. The Directive Principles of State Policy are - Non -Justiciable
22. What is “Stagflation”? - Inflation with depression
23. The Famous Chinese pilgrim Fa-hien visited India during the reign of - Chandra Gupta II
24. The type of mirror used in the headlamps of cars is the - Parabolic concave mirror
25. Who of the bhakti saints of South India was a man but felt himself in a feminine relationship towards his God? - Nammalvar
26. A plant cell is distinguished from an animal cell by the presence of - Chloroplasts
27. The responsibility for the recruitment of All India Services rests with - The Union Public Service Commission
28. The Main objective of TRYSEM was - To train rural youth for self employment
29. Adhoc Judges can be appointed in the Supreme Court - By the Chief Justice of India with the Prior consent of the President
30. Triple vaccine is administered to a new born child to immunize it against - Whooping cough, tetanus and diphtheria
31. The council of ministers is collectively responsible to - The Parliament
32.The Prime Minister is the chairman of - The Planning Commission
33. When the velocity of a body is doubled, its - Mementum is doubled
34. Money bills can be introduced in the state legislature with the Prior consent of - The Governor
35. The element which forms the largest number of compounds with hydrogen is - Carbon
36. The heaviest among the inner planets is the - Earth
37. In which plan was the growth rate target exceeded? - First
38. A very rapid growth in prices in which money loses its value to the point where even barter may be preferable is known as - Hyper-inflation
39. Ramanuja Preached - Bhakti
40. The substance present in good amounts in the sea and administered in certain deficiency diseases is - Iodine
RAILWAY PROTECTION FORCE (RPF) EXAM PREVIOUS SOLVED PAPER
1. Insufficient dietary iodine causes a/an - Enlarged thyroid
2. The difference in the duration of day and night increases as one moves form - Equator to poles
3. A motion of no-confidence against the council of ministers can be moved in the Lok Sabha if it is supported by at least - 50 members
4. On February 20, 1947, Prime Minister Atlee announced the British Government’s decision to withdraw from India latest by - Jun-48
5. The period of 10th Plan in India is - 2002-2007
6. The hottest part of the gas flame is known as the - Non-luminous zone
7. Petroleum is found in - Sedimentary rocks
8. An electric bulb has a filament made of - Tungsten
9. Milk tastes sour when kept in the open for some time due to the formation of - Lactic acid
10. The colour of cow’s milk is slightly yellowish due to the presence of - Riboflavin
11. The total fertility rate refers to - Total number of children a women has borne
12. A woman´s voice is shriller than a mans due to - Higher frequency
13. Excessive consumption of alcoholic drinks causes damage to the - Liver
14. What is the chief source of political power in India? - The Constitution
15. Indian Green Revolution is the most successful in - Wheat and Rice
16. Sound travels at maximum speed in - Steel
17. The gas that causes atmospheric pollution is - Sulphur dioxide
18. Value-added tax is -An ad-valorem tax on domestic final consumption collected at all stages between production and the point of final sale
19. A piedmont plateau is situated - At the foot of a mountain
20. The minimum age at which a person can be appointed Prime Minister of India is - 25 years
21. Common salt is obtained from sea water by the process of - Evaporation
22. Corporate Tax is imposed by - Central Government
23. Raindrops are spherical due to - Surface tension
24. The largest population of Scheduled Tribes is in - Madhya Pradesh
25. Aquaculture is the - Use of water for farming
26. Diamond is made of the same single element as - Graphite
27. Pencil ´lead´ is made up of - Lamp black
28. The substance that can conduct electricity in its molten state is - Common salt
29. A true fruit develops from the - Ovary
30. The village community got a lot of power during the region of the - Cholas
31. The South Pole experiences continuous light at - Winter solstice
32. A clearly separate echo of it sound is heard when the minimum distance of the reflecting surface from the source of sound is - 17m
33. Chloromycetin is an - Antibacterial
34. Taxation and the government’s expenditure policy are dealt under the - Fiscal policy
35. Radar is used for - Defecting and fixing the position of objects e.g:, aeroplanes
36. What was the aim of Antyodaya programme? - Helping the poorest among poor
37. The President can declare financial emergency - If there is a threat to the financial stability or credit of India
38. Enamel covers the - Crown of the tooth
39. The type of mirror used in the headlamps of cars is the - Parabolic concave mirror
40. Radio isotopes are - Isotopes that are radio active
2. The difference in the duration of day and night increases as one moves form - Equator to poles
3. A motion of no-confidence against the council of ministers can be moved in the Lok Sabha if it is supported by at least - 50 members
4. On February 20, 1947, Prime Minister Atlee announced the British Government’s decision to withdraw from India latest by - Jun-48
5. The period of 10th Plan in India is - 2002-2007
6. The hottest part of the gas flame is known as the - Non-luminous zone
7. Petroleum is found in - Sedimentary rocks
8. An electric bulb has a filament made of - Tungsten
9. Milk tastes sour when kept in the open for some time due to the formation of - Lactic acid
10. The colour of cow’s milk is slightly yellowish due to the presence of - Riboflavin
11. The total fertility rate refers to - Total number of children a women has borne
12. A woman´s voice is shriller than a mans due to - Higher frequency
13. Excessive consumption of alcoholic drinks causes damage to the - Liver
14. What is the chief source of political power in India? - The Constitution
15. Indian Green Revolution is the most successful in - Wheat and Rice
16. Sound travels at maximum speed in - Steel
17. The gas that causes atmospheric pollution is - Sulphur dioxide
18. Value-added tax is -An ad-valorem tax on domestic final consumption collected at all stages between production and the point of final sale
19. A piedmont plateau is situated - At the foot of a mountain
20. The minimum age at which a person can be appointed Prime Minister of India is - 25 years
21. Common salt is obtained from sea water by the process of - Evaporation
22. Corporate Tax is imposed by - Central Government
23. Raindrops are spherical due to - Surface tension
24. The largest population of Scheduled Tribes is in - Madhya Pradesh
25. Aquaculture is the - Use of water for farming
26. Diamond is made of the same single element as - Graphite
27. Pencil ´lead´ is made up of - Lamp black
28. The substance that can conduct electricity in its molten state is - Common salt
29. A true fruit develops from the - Ovary
30. The village community got a lot of power during the region of the - Cholas
31. The South Pole experiences continuous light at - Winter solstice
32. A clearly separate echo of it sound is heard when the minimum distance of the reflecting surface from the source of sound is - 17m
33. Chloromycetin is an - Antibacterial
34. Taxation and the government’s expenditure policy are dealt under the - Fiscal policy
35. Radar is used for - Defecting and fixing the position of objects e.g:, aeroplanes
36. What was the aim of Antyodaya programme? - Helping the poorest among poor
37. The President can declare financial emergency - If there is a threat to the financial stability or credit of India
38. Enamel covers the - Crown of the tooth
39. The type of mirror used in the headlamps of cars is the - Parabolic concave mirror
40. Radio isotopes are - Isotopes that are radio active
Railway RPF/RPSF Constable Exam Questions
1. Which state has the lowest per capita income in India? - Bihar
2. ´Flame of the forest´ refers to - A forest full of trees which burst with red flowers during autumn
3. Paditrupathu (Ten Tens) deals mostly with the history of - The Cheras
4. Diamond is chemically - Pure carbon
5. One of the pandemic diseases is - Influenza
6. What is the maximum age for election to the office of the President? - No limit
7. The Prime Minister is the chairman of - The Planning Commission
8. An object weighs maximum in - Vacuum
9. Content of carbon is minimum in - Wrought iron
10. The Main objective of TRYSEM was - To train rural youth for self employment
11. In India, new Ass India Service can be created - By the Parliament
12. In which part of India does Saffron grow - Jammu and Kashmir
13. The Indian Federal System is modeled on the Federal System of - Canada
14. ´Who did not participate´ in the revolt of 1857? - Bhagat Singh
15. Marsh gas, formed from decaying organic matter and in coal mines, is - Methane
16. Value-added tax is - An ad-valorem tax on domestic final consumption collected at all stages between production and the point of final sale
17. The exports of India - Are spread over several commodity groups
18. Moist tropical evergreen forests are found in - The Shillong Plateau
19. Who controls the activities of indigenous bankers? - None of these
20. Adhoc Judges can be appointed in the Supreme Court - By the Chief Justice of India with the Prior consent of the President
21. Meera Seth Committee was related to - Development of Handlooms
22. All acids contain the element - Hydrogen
23. The boundary between India and Pakistan was demarcated by - Sir Cyril Radcliffe
24. Which one of the following has since ceased to be a Fundamental Right? - Right to property
25. The heaviest among the inner planets is the - Earth
26. During the Sangam Age which of the following dynasties was not in power? - Pallavas
27. Chairman of Tax Reform committee was - Raja Chelliah
28. Finance Commission is appointed by the President under Article - 280 of. constitution
29. Heavy water - Contains deuterium in place of hydrogen
30. Foot and mouth disease occurs in - Cattle, sheep and pigs
31. Iron pipes are often coated with a layer of zinc to prevent corrosion. This process is termed - Galvanization
32. Unix, DOS, Windows are examples of - Operating systems
33. Railway Budget in India was separated from general budget in - 1924-25
34. A solar eclipse occurs when - The moon comes between the sun and the earth
35. The National Development Council is mainly concerned with - Approval of five-year plans
36. A steel ball floats on mercury because - The density of mercury is higher than that of steel
37. Which of the following would be most suitable for making an electromagnet? - Soft iron
38.Synthetic detergents are - A mixture of sodium salts of aromatic and diphatic sulphonic acids
39. The Saka era began in the year - 78 AD
40. When the East India Company was set up India’s ruler was - Akbar
2. ´Flame of the forest´ refers to - A forest full of trees which burst with red flowers during autumn
3. Paditrupathu (Ten Tens) deals mostly with the history of - The Cheras
4. Diamond is chemically - Pure carbon
5. One of the pandemic diseases is - Influenza
6. What is the maximum age for election to the office of the President? - No limit
7. The Prime Minister is the chairman of - The Planning Commission
8. An object weighs maximum in - Vacuum
9. Content of carbon is minimum in - Wrought iron
10. The Main objective of TRYSEM was - To train rural youth for self employment
11. In India, new Ass India Service can be created - By the Parliament
12. In which part of India does Saffron grow - Jammu and Kashmir
13. The Indian Federal System is modeled on the Federal System of - Canada
14. ´Who did not participate´ in the revolt of 1857? - Bhagat Singh
15. Marsh gas, formed from decaying organic matter and in coal mines, is - Methane
16. Value-added tax is - An ad-valorem tax on domestic final consumption collected at all stages between production and the point of final sale
17. The exports of India - Are spread over several commodity groups
18. Moist tropical evergreen forests are found in - The Shillong Plateau
19. Who controls the activities of indigenous bankers? - None of these
20. Adhoc Judges can be appointed in the Supreme Court - By the Chief Justice of India with the Prior consent of the President
21. Meera Seth Committee was related to - Development of Handlooms
22. All acids contain the element - Hydrogen
23. The boundary between India and Pakistan was demarcated by - Sir Cyril Radcliffe
24. Which one of the following has since ceased to be a Fundamental Right? - Right to property
25. The heaviest among the inner planets is the - Earth
26. During the Sangam Age which of the following dynasties was not in power? - Pallavas
27. Chairman of Tax Reform committee was - Raja Chelliah
28. Finance Commission is appointed by the President under Article - 280 of. constitution
29. Heavy water - Contains deuterium in place of hydrogen
30. Foot and mouth disease occurs in - Cattle, sheep and pigs
31. Iron pipes are often coated with a layer of zinc to prevent corrosion. This process is termed - Galvanization
32. Unix, DOS, Windows are examples of - Operating systems
33. Railway Budget in India was separated from general budget in - 1924-25
34. A solar eclipse occurs when - The moon comes between the sun and the earth
35. The National Development Council is mainly concerned with - Approval of five-year plans
36. A steel ball floats on mercury because - The density of mercury is higher than that of steel
37. Which of the following would be most suitable for making an electromagnet? - Soft iron
38.Synthetic detergents are - A mixture of sodium salts of aromatic and diphatic sulphonic acids
39. The Saka era began in the year - 78 AD
40. When the East India Company was set up India’s ruler was - Akbar
RRB PARAMEDICAL EXAM HEALTH INSPECTOR QUESTIONS
1. For education of measles, immunization coverage should be at least
(a) 80% (b) 85% (c) 96% (d) 100%
2. Period of maximum infectivity in mumps is during
(a) incubation period (b) onset of swelling (c) after swelling appears
(d) prodromal period
3. Major epidemics of influenza A occur at intervals of
(a) 1 year (b) 2-3 years (c) 10-15 years (d) 20-25 years
4. The most common source of infection for diphtheria is a
(a) case (b) sub clinical case (c) carrier (d) all of the above
5. Shick test is done in
(a) meningitis (b) diphtheria (c) pertussis (d) polimyelitis
6. Adjuvant present in DPT vaccine is
(a) aluminium phosphate (b) aluminium hydroxide (c) zinc phosphate (d) magnesium
phosphate
7. Recommended site of administration of DPT in infants is
(a) gluteal (b) deltoid (c) lateral aspect of thigh (d) forearm
8. The most severe complications following DPT are due to …….. component
(a) diphtheria (b) pertussis (c) tetanus (d) adjuvant
9. The vaccine usually given to pilgrims to the Middle East is
(a) DPT (b) influenza (c) yellow fever (d) meningitis
10. Best index to estimate case load of T.B. in a community is
(a) incidence of infection (b) prevalence of infection (c) incidence of disease
(d) prevalence of disease
11. Prevalence of T.B. infection in a community is estimated by
(a) tuberculin test (b) sputum microscopy (c) culture (d) chest X-ray
12. The amount of PPD used in mantoux test in India is
(a) 1 TU (b) 5 TU (c) 25 TU (d) 250 TU
13. Result of mantoux test is read after
(a) 6 hours (b) 24 hours (c) 48 hours (d) 72 hours
14. Present day BCG vaccine is supplied as
(a) liquid vaccine (b) freeze dried vaccine (c) both (d) none of the above
15. The diluent used for reconstituting BCG vaccine is
(a) normal saline (b) distilled water (c) dextrose (d) none of the above
16. Reconstituted BCG vaccine should be used with in
(a) 3 hours (b) 6 hours (c) 18 hours (d) 24 hours
17. The age for BCG vaccination is recommended at
(a) birth or at 6th week (b) only 6th week (c) 6-8 weeks (d) within 1 year
18. At the village level sputum for AFB is collected and fixed by
(a) anganwadi worker (b) village health guide (c) health worker male (d) health
worker female
19. Source of most polio infections are
(a) clinical cases (b) sub clinical cases (c) carrier (d) both (b)&(c)
20. Risk factors for development of paralytic polio include
(a) 1/M injections (b) Tonsillectomy (c) DPT (d) all of the above
21. Major route of transmission of Hepatitis A is
(a) Facco oral route (b) parentral route (c) sexual transmission (d) perinatal
transmission
22. Vaccine vial monitor is present on which of these vaccines
(a) BCG (b) DPT (c) OPV (d) Measles
23. Immunity after Hepatitis A lasts for
(a) 6 months (b) 1 year (c) 6 years (d) life long
24. Following methods destroy vibrio cholerae except
(a) boiling (b) drying (c) bleaching powder 1 mg/L (d) cresol
25. Best method of collecting choleric stools for diagnosis is by
(a) rectal catheter (b) rectal swab (c) disinfected stool (d) all of the above
26. All are vaccines included under the Universal Immunization Programme
except
(a) diphtheria (b) pertussis (c) measles (d) MMR
27. The MTP act was passed in the year
(a) 1975 (b) 1971 (c) 1986 (d) 2000
28. All are Anti Rabies vaccine currently used in Kerala except
(a) chick embryo cell vaccine (b) human diploid cell vaccine (c) vero cell
vaccine (d) neural tissue vaccine
29. Annual Parasitic incidence is used to measure the problem of
(a) Filariasis (b) Dengue fever (c) Malaria (d) Japanese encephalitis
30. The causative organism of plague is
(a) Y pestis (b) R. Prowazeki (c) Coryne bacterium (d) Arbovirus
31. Which of these is a Conventional Contraceptive
(a) Combined pill (b) IUD (c) Condom (d) Mini pill
32. Which of these insecticides is used as a space spray
(a) paris green (b) abate (c) pyrethrum (d) mineral oil
33. Chemical ideally used for disinfecting sputum is
(a) cresol (b) dettol (c) savlon (d) phenol
34. Census is carried out at regular intervals of
(a) 5 years (b) 10 years (c) 7 years (d) 15 years
35. Vaccine carrier should ideally have number of ice packs
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
36. The dose of elemental iron in Folifer tablet given to pregnant women
under the RCH programme is
(a) 60 mg (b) 80 mg (c) 50 mg (d) 100 mg
37. Sanitary latrine should be located at least …. feet from source of
contamination
(a) 15 (b) 25 (c) 50 (d) 75
38. For calculating Bacterial index in Leprosy a minimum of ….. sites
should be examined
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 9
39. Number of Tetanus toxoid doses to be given to an antenatal mother with
last child birth 2 years back is
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) none
40. As per the Birth and Deaths Registration Act all births are to be
registered with in a period of
(a) 7 days (b) 14 days (c) 21 days (d) 1 month
41. Dengue fever is transmitted by the bite of ……. mosquito
(a) anopheles (b) aedes (c) mansonia (d) culex
42. Route of administration of BCG vaccine is
(a) intramuscular (b) intradermal (c) subcutaneous (d) intrathecal
43. Pasteurisation of milk kills all organisms except
(a) Anthrax (b) M. Tuberculosis (c) Streptococcus (d) Brucella
44. Prevalence of hook worm infection in a community is assessed by
(a) pearl index (b) breteaux index (c) chandler index (d) none of the above
45. The level of iodisation of iodised salt at the consumer level as
specified under the IDD control programme is
(a) 40 ppm (b) 30 ppm (c) 15 ppm (d) 50 ppm
46. All are steps in Primary Prevention of diseases except
(a) promotion of healthy life styles (b) good nutrition (c) immunization (d)
treatment
47. Communicability of measles declines
(a) after onset of fever (b) during prodromal period (c) at the time of eruption
(d) after appearance of rash
48. After effective chlorination of water free residual chlorine should
not be less than
(a) 0.5 mg/L (b) 1 mg/L (c) 50 mg/L (d) 200 mg/L
49. All are side effects of oral contraceptives except
(a) hypertension (b) cervical cancer risk (c) gall bladder disease (d) iron
deficiency anameia
50. World AIDS day is observed on
(a) December 1st (b) January 31st (c) May 1st (d) October 1st
51. Highest source of vitamin A is seen in
(a) Cod liver oil (b) green leafy vegetables (c) papaya (d) carrot
52. Which is a live vaccine
(a) Hepatitis B vaccine (b) Hepatitis A vaccine (c) Oral polio vaccine (d) DPT
vaccine
53. Scurvy is a deficiency disease due to
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin D (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin B12
54. Number of sputum smears to be taken for confirmation of tuberculosis
under the Revised National Tuberculosis control
programme is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
55. The target population under the Universal Immunization Programme is
(a) infants and antenatal mothers (b) infants (c) under fives (d) under fives
and antenatal mothers
56. RCH programme was launched in the year
(a) 1997 (b) 1992 (c) 1990 (d) 1998
57. Additional energy requirement to be supplemented for a lactating
mother is
(a) 200 calories (b) 550 calories (c) 350 calories (d) 100 calories
58. Dental caries is caused due to deficiency of
(a) Iodine (b) Iron (c) Fluorine (d) Copper
59. Most ideal equipment for vaccine storage in a PHC is
(a) domestic refrigerator (b) ice lined refrigerator (c) cold box (d) vaccine
carrier
60. Village Health Guide is present in all these states except
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar (c) Orissa (d) Kerala
61. Route of transmission of pneumonic plague is
(a) Vector (b) Droplet (c) Formite (d) Food
62. Most simple way of data presentation to a common man is
(a) Bar chart (b) Line diagram (c) Pictogram (d) Histogram
63. The best method for operation theatre disinfection is
(a) dettol (b) phenol (c) lysol (d) fromaldehyde
64. Primary schedule of hepatitis B immunization is
(a) 0,1,6 months (b) 1,3,6 months (c) 1,2,12 months (d) 0,1,5 years
65. The control of ….. has led to the eradication of guinea worm disease
(a) mosquito (b) rat flea (c) sand fly (d) cyclops
66. The confirmatory test for paralytic poliomyelitis is a
(a) stool examination (b) CSF examination (c) blood examination (d) nerve
examination
67. The drug given to peripheral health worker under the Actute
Respiratory infection Control Programme is
(a) Tetracycline (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Doxy cycline (d) Chloroquine
68. The fitration technique in modern water treatment plant is
(a) slow sand filter (b) rapid sand filter (c) activated sludge process (d)
double pot method
69. World Health Day is observed every year on
(a) May 9th (b) July 11th (c) April 7th (d) July 1st
70. Health education technique most suited for introducing the correct use
of O.R.S. among Rural mothers is
(a) group discussion (b) flash card (c) demonstration (d) flannel graph
71. All are anti scabies preparations except
(a) BHC (b) permethrin (c) benzyl benzoate (d) malathion
72. All are tests used for bacteriological quality testing of drinking water
except
(a) multiple tube method (b) membrane filtration technique (c) colony count (d)
biological oxygen demand
73. During an epidemic of cholera, wells should be disinfected ideally
(a) Every day (b) 2 days (c) 3 days (d) 1 week
74. All are components of under five clinic except
(a) immunization (b) growth monitoring (c) oral rehydration (d) referral
treatment
75. All are true of prevention of Food Adulteration Act except
(a) prescribes minimum standards (b) is not mandatory
(c) punishment includes imprisonment (d) latest amendment was in the year 1986
76. Physical quality of life index includes all except
(a) infant mortality (b) life expectancy at age one (c) per capita GNP (d)
literacy
77. Incubation period is less than 3 days in all the following except
(a) influenza (b) cholera (c) mumps (d) staphylococcal food poisoning
78. The type of influenza virus causing epidemics every year is
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) Any one of the above
79. The incubation period of Rabies in men is determined by
(a) Site of bite (b) Severity of bite (c) Number of wounds (d) All of the above
80. Noso comial infection means
(a) infection of nose (b) hospital acquired infection (c) notifiable disease (d)
new disease
81. All of the following are mosquito borne diseases except
(a) Malaria (b) Filaria (c) Kysanur forest disease (d) Dengue fever
82. Which is not true of small pox
(a) No animal reservoir (b) No carrier stage (c) No sub-clinical infection (d)
No air borne transmission
83. ORS contains all except
(a) sodium chloride (b) potassium sulphate (c) trisodium citrate (d) glucose
84. The danger zone for bacterial growth in food is
(a) 10-49 degree C (b) 20-49 degree C (c) 10-60 degree C (d) 20-60 degree C
85. Aldehyde test is used for the diagnosis of
(a) Malaria (b) Kala Azar (c) Japanese encephalitis (d) Typhus fever
86. The period from disease initiation to disease detection in chronic
disease is called
(a) incubation period (b) serial interval (c) latent period (d) median period
87. Herd immunity does not protect an individual in
(a) Diphtheria (b) Poliomyelitis (c) Small pox (d) Tetanus
88. Vaccines which should not be frozen include
(a) Typhoid (b) DPT (c) TT (d) All of the above
89. ILR stands for
(a) Income Literacy Ratio (b) Illiteracy- Literacy Ratio
(c) Ice Lined Refrigerator (d) Infant Living Rate
90. Cold chain equipment used at out reach sites is
(a) cold box (b) vaccine carrier (c) ice pack (d) freezer
91. Most heat sensitive vaccine is
(a) BCG (b) Polio (c) Measles (d) DPT
92. Zero dose of polio vaccine means
(a) no vaccination (b) dose before first dose (c) no antibody response (d)
vaccination at mobile camps
93. Pasteurisation of milk is an example disinfection
(a) Pre current (b) Con current (c) Terminal (d) Absolute
94. Boiling for 5-10 minutes kills
(a) bacteria (b) spores (c) virus (d) none of the above
95. All of the following can be sterilized by Auto claving except
(a) gloves (b) culture media (c) plastics (d) linen
96. All are suitable for disinfection of faces and urine except
(a) 8% bleaching powder (b) 1% crude phenol (c) 5% cresol (d) 1-2% formalin
97. Ideally bed pans and urinals are sterilized using
(a) 1% cresol (b) bleaching powder (c) steam (d) all of the above
98. Sputum is best disposed by
(a) burning (b) boiling (c) 5% cresol (d) any of the above
99. Immunity conferred by an attack of small pox is for
(a) 10 years (b) 15 years (c) 20 years (d) life long
100. Which is not true regarding measles
(a) source of infection is a case (b) secondary attack rate is 80%
(c) carries do not occur (d) sub clinical measles not known
Answers:
1 B 11 A 21 A 31 C 41 B 51 A 61 B 71 D 81 C 91 B
2 A 12 A 22 B 32 C 42 A 52 C 62 C 72 D 82 C 92 B
3 D 13 C 23 A 33 A 43 B 53 C 63 D 73 A 83 B 93 A
4 B 14 B 24 D 34 B 44 C 54 C 64 A 74 D 84 C 94 D
5 A 15 A 25 A 35 D 45 C 55 C 65 D 75 B 85 B 95 C
6 C 16 B 26 C 36 C 46 D 56 B 66 A 76 D 86 A 96 D
7 C 17 A 27 B 37 D 47 D 57 B 67 B 77 C 87 B 97 B
8 D 18 A 28 C 38 C 48 A 58 C 68 A 78 B 88 D 98 C
9 C 19 C 29 A 39 C 49 A 59 B 69 C 79 D 89 C 99 D
10C 20 D 30 A 40 C 50 A 60 C 70 C 80 D 90 B 100B
(a) 80% (b) 85% (c) 96% (d) 100%
2. Period of maximum infectivity in mumps is during
(a) incubation period (b) onset of swelling (c) after swelling appears
(d) prodromal period
3. Major epidemics of influenza A occur at intervals of
(a) 1 year (b) 2-3 years (c) 10-15 years (d) 20-25 years
4. The most common source of infection for diphtheria is a
(a) case (b) sub clinical case (c) carrier (d) all of the above
5. Shick test is done in
(a) meningitis (b) diphtheria (c) pertussis (d) polimyelitis
6. Adjuvant present in DPT vaccine is
(a) aluminium phosphate (b) aluminium hydroxide (c) zinc phosphate (d) magnesium
phosphate
7. Recommended site of administration of DPT in infants is
(a) gluteal (b) deltoid (c) lateral aspect of thigh (d) forearm
8. The most severe complications following DPT are due to …….. component
(a) diphtheria (b) pertussis (c) tetanus (d) adjuvant
9. The vaccine usually given to pilgrims to the Middle East is
(a) DPT (b) influenza (c) yellow fever (d) meningitis
10. Best index to estimate case load of T.B. in a community is
(a) incidence of infection (b) prevalence of infection (c) incidence of disease
(d) prevalence of disease
11. Prevalence of T.B. infection in a community is estimated by
(a) tuberculin test (b) sputum microscopy (c) culture (d) chest X-ray
12. The amount of PPD used in mantoux test in India is
(a) 1 TU (b) 5 TU (c) 25 TU (d) 250 TU
13. Result of mantoux test is read after
(a) 6 hours (b) 24 hours (c) 48 hours (d) 72 hours
14. Present day BCG vaccine is supplied as
(a) liquid vaccine (b) freeze dried vaccine (c) both (d) none of the above
15. The diluent used for reconstituting BCG vaccine is
(a) normal saline (b) distilled water (c) dextrose (d) none of the above
16. Reconstituted BCG vaccine should be used with in
(a) 3 hours (b) 6 hours (c) 18 hours (d) 24 hours
17. The age for BCG vaccination is recommended at
(a) birth or at 6th week (b) only 6th week (c) 6-8 weeks (d) within 1 year
18. At the village level sputum for AFB is collected and fixed by
(a) anganwadi worker (b) village health guide (c) health worker male (d) health
worker female
19. Source of most polio infections are
(a) clinical cases (b) sub clinical cases (c) carrier (d) both (b)&(c)
20. Risk factors for development of paralytic polio include
(a) 1/M injections (b) Tonsillectomy (c) DPT (d) all of the above
21. Major route of transmission of Hepatitis A is
(a) Facco oral route (b) parentral route (c) sexual transmission (d) perinatal
transmission
22. Vaccine vial monitor is present on which of these vaccines
(a) BCG (b) DPT (c) OPV (d) Measles
23. Immunity after Hepatitis A lasts for
(a) 6 months (b) 1 year (c) 6 years (d) life long
24. Following methods destroy vibrio cholerae except
(a) boiling (b) drying (c) bleaching powder 1 mg/L (d) cresol
25. Best method of collecting choleric stools for diagnosis is by
(a) rectal catheter (b) rectal swab (c) disinfected stool (d) all of the above
26. All are vaccines included under the Universal Immunization Programme
except
(a) diphtheria (b) pertussis (c) measles (d) MMR
27. The MTP act was passed in the year
(a) 1975 (b) 1971 (c) 1986 (d) 2000
28. All are Anti Rabies vaccine currently used in Kerala except
(a) chick embryo cell vaccine (b) human diploid cell vaccine (c) vero cell
vaccine (d) neural tissue vaccine
29. Annual Parasitic incidence is used to measure the problem of
(a) Filariasis (b) Dengue fever (c) Malaria (d) Japanese encephalitis
30. The causative organism of plague is
(a) Y pestis (b) R. Prowazeki (c) Coryne bacterium (d) Arbovirus
31. Which of these is a Conventional Contraceptive
(a) Combined pill (b) IUD (c) Condom (d) Mini pill
32. Which of these insecticides is used as a space spray
(a) paris green (b) abate (c) pyrethrum (d) mineral oil
33. Chemical ideally used for disinfecting sputum is
(a) cresol (b) dettol (c) savlon (d) phenol
34. Census is carried out at regular intervals of
(a) 5 years (b) 10 years (c) 7 years (d) 15 years
35. Vaccine carrier should ideally have number of ice packs
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
36. The dose of elemental iron in Folifer tablet given to pregnant women
under the RCH programme is
(a) 60 mg (b) 80 mg (c) 50 mg (d) 100 mg
37. Sanitary latrine should be located at least …. feet from source of
contamination
(a) 15 (b) 25 (c) 50 (d) 75
38. For calculating Bacterial index in Leprosy a minimum of ….. sites
should be examined
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 9
39. Number of Tetanus toxoid doses to be given to an antenatal mother with
last child birth 2 years back is
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) none
40. As per the Birth and Deaths Registration Act all births are to be
registered with in a period of
(a) 7 days (b) 14 days (c) 21 days (d) 1 month
41. Dengue fever is transmitted by the bite of ……. mosquito
(a) anopheles (b) aedes (c) mansonia (d) culex
42. Route of administration of BCG vaccine is
(a) intramuscular (b) intradermal (c) subcutaneous (d) intrathecal
43. Pasteurisation of milk kills all organisms except
(a) Anthrax (b) M. Tuberculosis (c) Streptococcus (d) Brucella
44. Prevalence of hook worm infection in a community is assessed by
(a) pearl index (b) breteaux index (c) chandler index (d) none of the above
45. The level of iodisation of iodised salt at the consumer level as
specified under the IDD control programme is
(a) 40 ppm (b) 30 ppm (c) 15 ppm (d) 50 ppm
46. All are steps in Primary Prevention of diseases except
(a) promotion of healthy life styles (b) good nutrition (c) immunization (d)
treatment
47. Communicability of measles declines
(a) after onset of fever (b) during prodromal period (c) at the time of eruption
(d) after appearance of rash
48. After effective chlorination of water free residual chlorine should
not be less than
(a) 0.5 mg/L (b) 1 mg/L (c) 50 mg/L (d) 200 mg/L
49. All are side effects of oral contraceptives except
(a) hypertension (b) cervical cancer risk (c) gall bladder disease (d) iron
deficiency anameia
50. World AIDS day is observed on
(a) December 1st (b) January 31st (c) May 1st (d) October 1st
51. Highest source of vitamin A is seen in
(a) Cod liver oil (b) green leafy vegetables (c) papaya (d) carrot
52. Which is a live vaccine
(a) Hepatitis B vaccine (b) Hepatitis A vaccine (c) Oral polio vaccine (d) DPT
vaccine
53. Scurvy is a deficiency disease due to
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin D (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin B12
54. Number of sputum smears to be taken for confirmation of tuberculosis
under the Revised National Tuberculosis control
programme is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
55. The target population under the Universal Immunization Programme is
(a) infants and antenatal mothers (b) infants (c) under fives (d) under fives
and antenatal mothers
56. RCH programme was launched in the year
(a) 1997 (b) 1992 (c) 1990 (d) 1998
57. Additional energy requirement to be supplemented for a lactating
mother is
(a) 200 calories (b) 550 calories (c) 350 calories (d) 100 calories
58. Dental caries is caused due to deficiency of
(a) Iodine (b) Iron (c) Fluorine (d) Copper
59. Most ideal equipment for vaccine storage in a PHC is
(a) domestic refrigerator (b) ice lined refrigerator (c) cold box (d) vaccine
carrier
60. Village Health Guide is present in all these states except
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar (c) Orissa (d) Kerala
61. Route of transmission of pneumonic plague is
(a) Vector (b) Droplet (c) Formite (d) Food
62. Most simple way of data presentation to a common man is
(a) Bar chart (b) Line diagram (c) Pictogram (d) Histogram
63. The best method for operation theatre disinfection is
(a) dettol (b) phenol (c) lysol (d) fromaldehyde
64. Primary schedule of hepatitis B immunization is
(a) 0,1,6 months (b) 1,3,6 months (c) 1,2,12 months (d) 0,1,5 years
65. The control of ….. has led to the eradication of guinea worm disease
(a) mosquito (b) rat flea (c) sand fly (d) cyclops
66. The confirmatory test for paralytic poliomyelitis is a
(a) stool examination (b) CSF examination (c) blood examination (d) nerve
examination
67. The drug given to peripheral health worker under the Actute
Respiratory infection Control Programme is
(a) Tetracycline (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Doxy cycline (d) Chloroquine
68. The fitration technique in modern water treatment plant is
(a) slow sand filter (b) rapid sand filter (c) activated sludge process (d)
double pot method
69. World Health Day is observed every year on
(a) May 9th (b) July 11th (c) April 7th (d) July 1st
70. Health education technique most suited for introducing the correct use
of O.R.S. among Rural mothers is
(a) group discussion (b) flash card (c) demonstration (d) flannel graph
71. All are anti scabies preparations except
(a) BHC (b) permethrin (c) benzyl benzoate (d) malathion
72. All are tests used for bacteriological quality testing of drinking water
except
(a) multiple tube method (b) membrane filtration technique (c) colony count (d)
biological oxygen demand
73. During an epidemic of cholera, wells should be disinfected ideally
(a) Every day (b) 2 days (c) 3 days (d) 1 week
74. All are components of under five clinic except
(a) immunization (b) growth monitoring (c) oral rehydration (d) referral
treatment
75. All are true of prevention of Food Adulteration Act except
(a) prescribes minimum standards (b) is not mandatory
(c) punishment includes imprisonment (d) latest amendment was in the year 1986
76. Physical quality of life index includes all except
(a) infant mortality (b) life expectancy at age one (c) per capita GNP (d)
literacy
77. Incubation period is less than 3 days in all the following except
(a) influenza (b) cholera (c) mumps (d) staphylococcal food poisoning
78. The type of influenza virus causing epidemics every year is
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) Any one of the above
79. The incubation period of Rabies in men is determined by
(a) Site of bite (b) Severity of bite (c) Number of wounds (d) All of the above
80. Noso comial infection means
(a) infection of nose (b) hospital acquired infection (c) notifiable disease (d)
new disease
81. All of the following are mosquito borne diseases except
(a) Malaria (b) Filaria (c) Kysanur forest disease (d) Dengue fever
82. Which is not true of small pox
(a) No animal reservoir (b) No carrier stage (c) No sub-clinical infection (d)
No air borne transmission
83. ORS contains all except
(a) sodium chloride (b) potassium sulphate (c) trisodium citrate (d) glucose
84. The danger zone for bacterial growth in food is
(a) 10-49 degree C (b) 20-49 degree C (c) 10-60 degree C (d) 20-60 degree C
85. Aldehyde test is used for the diagnosis of
(a) Malaria (b) Kala Azar (c) Japanese encephalitis (d) Typhus fever
86. The period from disease initiation to disease detection in chronic
disease is called
(a) incubation period (b) serial interval (c) latent period (d) median period
87. Herd immunity does not protect an individual in
(a) Diphtheria (b) Poliomyelitis (c) Small pox (d) Tetanus
88. Vaccines which should not be frozen include
(a) Typhoid (b) DPT (c) TT (d) All of the above
89. ILR stands for
(a) Income Literacy Ratio (b) Illiteracy- Literacy Ratio
(c) Ice Lined Refrigerator (d) Infant Living Rate
90. Cold chain equipment used at out reach sites is
(a) cold box (b) vaccine carrier (c) ice pack (d) freezer
91. Most heat sensitive vaccine is
(a) BCG (b) Polio (c) Measles (d) DPT
92. Zero dose of polio vaccine means
(a) no vaccination (b) dose before first dose (c) no antibody response (d)
vaccination at mobile camps
93. Pasteurisation of milk is an example disinfection
(a) Pre current (b) Con current (c) Terminal (d) Absolute
94. Boiling for 5-10 minutes kills
(a) bacteria (b) spores (c) virus (d) none of the above
95. All of the following can be sterilized by Auto claving except
(a) gloves (b) culture media (c) plastics (d) linen
96. All are suitable for disinfection of faces and urine except
(a) 8% bleaching powder (b) 1% crude phenol (c) 5% cresol (d) 1-2% formalin
97. Ideally bed pans and urinals are sterilized using
(a) 1% cresol (b) bleaching powder (c) steam (d) all of the above
98. Sputum is best disposed by
(a) burning (b) boiling (c) 5% cresol (d) any of the above
99. Immunity conferred by an attack of small pox is for
(a) 10 years (b) 15 years (c) 20 years (d) life long
100. Which is not true regarding measles
(a) source of infection is a case (b) secondary attack rate is 80%
(c) carries do not occur (d) sub clinical measles not known
Answers:
1 B 11 A 21 A 31 C 41 B 51 A 61 B 71 D 81 C 91 B
2 A 12 A 22 B 32 C 42 A 52 C 62 C 72 D 82 C 92 B
3 D 13 C 23 A 33 A 43 B 53 C 63 D 73 A 83 B 93 A
4 B 14 B 24 D 34 B 44 C 54 C 64 A 74 D 84 C 94 D
5 A 15 A 25 A 35 D 45 C 55 C 65 D 75 B 85 B 95 C
6 C 16 B 26 C 36 C 46 D 56 B 66 A 76 D 86 A 96 D
7 C 17 A 27 B 37 D 47 D 57 B 67 B 77 C 87 B 97 B
8 D 18 A 28 C 38 C 48 A 58 C 68 A 78 B 88 D 98 C
9 C 19 C 29 A 39 C 49 A 59 B 69 C 79 D 89 C 99 D
10C 20 D 30 A 40 C 50 A 60 C 70 C 80 D 90 B 100B
RRC GROUP-D EXAM (NOTIFICATION NO. E.NO.1/2008) SOLVED PAPER (SET E1)
1. Which of the following is a major tea producing state ?
(A) Assam (B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Punjab
2. Which of the following states is a major producer of wheat ?
(A) Nagaland (B) Mizoram
(C) Arunachal Pradesh (D) Punjab
3. Which of the following states is an important producer of sugarcane ?
(A) Maharashtra (B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Tripura (D) Sikkim
4. The Earth rotates 360 degree in about
(A) 12 hours (B) 24 hours
(C) 36 hours (D) 48 hours
5. A leap year has
(A) 365 days (B) 366 days
(C) 367 days (D) 368 days
6. The occurrence of days and nights is the result of
(A) revolution of the earth around the sun (B) rotation of the earth about its axis
(C) movement of the moon around the earth (D) Newton’s laws of motion
7. The duration of day and night becomes equal at all place on
(A) 21st March and 23rd September (B) 21st March and 21st June
(C) 21st June and 22nd December (D) does not happen
8. Solar eclipse occurs when
(A) the moon comes in between the sun and the earth
(B) the earth comes in between the sun and the moon
(C) the sun comes in between the moon and the earth
(D) None of the above
9. The crust of the earth is divided into two parts – the hydrosphere and the land mass. The land
mass occupies
(A) 50 % of the earth’s surface area
(B) about 29.2 % of the earth’s surface area
(C) 80 % of the earth’s surface area
(D) it keeps on varying
10. The Manas National Park is situated in the state of
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Assam
(C) Himachal Pradesh (D) Jammu and Kahsmir
11. Mausynram receives the highest rainfall in the world. It is located in the state of
(A) Tripura (B) Nagaland
(C) Arunachal Pradesh (D) Meghalaya
12. Green Revolution in India led to a substantial increase in the production of
(A) food grains (B) milk
(C) steel (D) automobiles
13. ‘White Revolution’ in India is related to the development of
(A) dairy industry (B) paper industry
(C) silk industry (D) sugar industry
14. What is a tsunami ?
(A) Name of a flower
(B) Name of a mountain
(C) a series of water waves caused by the displacement of a large volume of a body of
water
(D) Name of a virus
15. Which country was hit by an earthquake and tsunami in March 2011 resulting in loss of lives
and property ?
(A) Argentina (B) Mexico
(C) Japan (D) Egypt
16. The zonal head quarter of Northeast Frontier Railway is at
(A) New Jalpaiguri (B) Shillong
(C) Guwahati (D) Katihar
17. The railway track in the Darjeeling Himalayan Railway (DHR) is
(A) Narrow gauge (B) Metre gauge
(C) Broad gauge (D) None of these
18. The Palk Strait lies between the countries
(A) Sri Lanka and Maldives (B) India and Sri Lanka
(C) India and Maldives (D) Bangladesh and Myanmar
19. Richter scale measures the magnitude of
(A) volcanoes (B) earthquakes
(C) floods (D) rainfall
20 ‘Jhum’ practiced in the northeastern states of India is a method of
(A) learning (B) agriculture
(C) dancing (D) cooking
21. The Kaziranga National Park is famous for its
(A) Asiatic lion (B) Bengal Tiger
(C) One horned rhinoceros (D) Eagle
22. Which is the largest continent ?
(A) Africa (B) Asia
(C) Australia (D) North America
23. ‘One light year’ is a unit of
(A) time (B) speed
(C) distance (D) sound
24. Which of the following is not a renewable resource ?
(A) forest (B) bio-energy
(C) solar energy (D) petroleum
25. Which is the third nearest planet to the sun ?
(A) Venus (B) Earth
(C) Mercury (D) Mars
RRC GROUP-D EXAM (NOTIFICATION NO. E.NO.1/2008) SOLVED PAPER (SET E2)
1. Balloons are filled with
(A) oxygen (B) nitrogen
(C) helium (D) argon
2. What is the scientific name for common salt ?
(A) sodium carbonate (B) sodium chloride
(C) sodium bicarbonate (D) calcium chloride
3. Ecology deals with
(A) Birds
(B) Cell formation
(C) Tissues
(D) Relation between organisms and their environment
4. Houseflies, dragonflies, beetles and ants are all insects. An insect has
(A) six legs (B) eight legs
(C) four legs (D) five legs
5. Which of the following is an important source of Vitamin C ?
(A) Potato (B) Butter
(C) Orange (D) Fish
6. Which of the following is necessary for burning ?
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Hydrogen
(C) Oxygen (D) Neon
7. AIDS (Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome) is caused by one type of
(A) Virus (B) Bacteria
(C) Protozoa (D) Fungus
8. Which of the following is a reptile ?
(A) Elephant (B) Bats
(C) Snake (D) Ostrich
9. Plants make their own food by a process called
(A) Breathing (B) Transpiration
(C) Photosynthesis (D) Pollination
10. Electricity is supplied to consumers at
(A) 420 kilovolts (B) 33 kilovolts
(C) 220 volts (D) 132 kilovolts
11. The number of chambers in the human heart is
(A) six (B) four
(C) two (D) eight
12. Acids contain at least one atom of
(A) Hydrogen (B) Oxygen
(C) Nitrogen (D) Carbon
13. India’s first mission to moon is called
(A) Prithvi (B) Aryabhatta
(C) Ashoka (D) Chandrayaan-1
14. If a piece of stone weighs 6 kilogram on earth’s surface, what will be the weight of the same
piece of stone on the surface of the moon ?
(A) 6 kilogram (B) 3 kilogram
(C) 1 kilogram (D) 12 kilogram
15. The purity of gold ornaments is measured in ‘carats’. Pure gold is
(A) 20 carats (B) 22 carats
(C) 23 carats (D) 24 carats
16. Diamond is a form of
(A) gold (B) silver
(C) carbon (D) iron
17. Which of the following was first learnt by primitive man ?
(A) agriculture (B) manufacture of wheel
(C) making fire (D) taming animals
18. Who started the Saka era ?
(A) Alexander (B) Kanishka
(C) Ashoka (D) Samudragupta
19. The word India is derived from the river
(A) Indus (B) Ganga
(C) Yamuna (D) Mahanadi
20. The ‘Anga’ is the main scripture of the Jains. It is written in
(A) Pali (B) Prakrit
(C) Sanskrit (D) Hindi
21. Who established the Maurya dynasty ?
(A) Ashoka (B) Chandragupta Maurya
(C) Bindusara (D) Kanishka
22. Buddhism was founded by
(A) Siddhartha (also known as Gautama) (B) Mahavira
(C) Fa-Hien (D) Alexander
23. Gautama Buddha attained enlightenment at Bodh Gaya. It is situated in the present day
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) West Bengal
(C) Bihar (D) Madhya Pradesh
24. The first railway line was opened to traffic in 1853. It ran from Bombay to
(A) Delhi (B) Madras
(C) Calcutta (D) Thane
25. The partition of Bengal took place in the year
(A) 1902 (B) 1903
(C) 1904 (D) 1905
(A) oxygen (B) nitrogen
(C) helium (D) argon
2. What is the scientific name for common salt ?
(A) sodium carbonate (B) sodium chloride
(C) sodium bicarbonate (D) calcium chloride
3. Ecology deals with
(A) Birds
(B) Cell formation
(C) Tissues
(D) Relation between organisms and their environment
4. Houseflies, dragonflies, beetles and ants are all insects. An insect has
(A) six legs (B) eight legs
(C) four legs (D) five legs
5. Which of the following is an important source of Vitamin C ?
(A) Potato (B) Butter
(C) Orange (D) Fish
6. Which of the following is necessary for burning ?
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Hydrogen
(C) Oxygen (D) Neon
7. AIDS (Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome) is caused by one type of
(A) Virus (B) Bacteria
(C) Protozoa (D) Fungus
8. Which of the following is a reptile ?
(A) Elephant (B) Bats
(C) Snake (D) Ostrich
9. Plants make their own food by a process called
(A) Breathing (B) Transpiration
(C) Photosynthesis (D) Pollination
10. Electricity is supplied to consumers at
(A) 420 kilovolts (B) 33 kilovolts
(C) 220 volts (D) 132 kilovolts
11. The number of chambers in the human heart is
(A) six (B) four
(C) two (D) eight
12. Acids contain at least one atom of
(A) Hydrogen (B) Oxygen
(C) Nitrogen (D) Carbon
13. India’s first mission to moon is called
(A) Prithvi (B) Aryabhatta
(C) Ashoka (D) Chandrayaan-1
14. If a piece of stone weighs 6 kilogram on earth’s surface, what will be the weight of the same
piece of stone on the surface of the moon ?
(A) 6 kilogram (B) 3 kilogram
(C) 1 kilogram (D) 12 kilogram
15. The purity of gold ornaments is measured in ‘carats’. Pure gold is
(A) 20 carats (B) 22 carats
(C) 23 carats (D) 24 carats
16. Diamond is a form of
(A) gold (B) silver
(C) carbon (D) iron
17. Which of the following was first learnt by primitive man ?
(A) agriculture (B) manufacture of wheel
(C) making fire (D) taming animals
18. Who started the Saka era ?
(A) Alexander (B) Kanishka
(C) Ashoka (D) Samudragupta
19. The word India is derived from the river
(A) Indus (B) Ganga
(C) Yamuna (D) Mahanadi
20. The ‘Anga’ is the main scripture of the Jains. It is written in
(A) Pali (B) Prakrit
(C) Sanskrit (D) Hindi
21. Who established the Maurya dynasty ?
(A) Ashoka (B) Chandragupta Maurya
(C) Bindusara (D) Kanishka
22. Buddhism was founded by
(A) Siddhartha (also known as Gautama) (B) Mahavira
(C) Fa-Hien (D) Alexander
23. Gautama Buddha attained enlightenment at Bodh Gaya. It is situated in the present day
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) West Bengal
(C) Bihar (D) Madhya Pradesh
24. The first railway line was opened to traffic in 1853. It ran from Bombay to
(A) Delhi (B) Madras
(C) Calcutta (D) Thane
25. The partition of Bengal took place in the year
(A) 1902 (B) 1903
(C) 1904 (D) 1905
RRC GROUP-D EXAM (NOTIFICATION NO. E.NO.1/2008) SOLVED PAPER (SET E3)
1. The highest civilian award in the country which is given by the President of India on January
26 is
(A) Padma Vibhushan (B) Ashok Chakra
(C) Bharat Ratna (D) Padma Shri
2. Loktak lake is situated in the state of
(A) Assam (B) Nagaland
(C) Manipur (D) Tripura
3. India became an independent country on
(A) 15th August, 1947 (B) 15th August, 1948
(C) 15th August, 1949 (D) 15th August, 1950
4. Pandit Bhimsen Joshi was a renowned
(A) classical dancer (B) classical vocalist
(C) poet (D) novelist
5. Dada Saheb Phalke Award is given for outstanding contribution to the cause of Indian
(A) sports (B) literature
(C) cinema (D) handicraft
6. Arjuna Award is given to outstanding
(A) sports person (B) musician
(C) film director (D) sports coach
7. Our national animal is the
(A) Lion (B) Elephant
(C) Tiger (D) Bear
8. Name the capital of Arunachal Pradesh
(A) Itanagar (B) Agartala
(C) Aizawl (D) Imphal
9. The Supreme Court of India is located in
(A) Kolkata (B) New Delhi
(C) Chandigarh (D) Mumbai
10. In India, the first commercially viable oil well was drilled at
(A) Digboi (B) Numaligarh
(C) Barauni (D) Namdapha
11. The Ashoka Chakra depicted centrally on the white stripe of the National Flag has
(A) 12 spokes (B) 22 spokes
(C) 24 spokes (D) 20 spokes
12. Which state is associated with the development of dance form ‘Kuchipudi’ ?
(A) Kerala (B) Maharashtra
(C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu
13. When a bar magnet is freely suspended, it points roughly in a
(A) east – west direction (B) east – north direction
(C) north – south direction (D) north – west direction
14. An electric motor converts
(A) mechanical energy into electrical energy
(B) electrical energy into mechanical energy
(C) mechanical energy into sound energy
(D) electrical energy into sound energy
15. Electrical fuses installed in the house are connected in the
(A) live wire (B) neutral wire
(C) earth connection (D) none of these
16. Dry ice is basically
(A) frozen water (B) solidified carbon dioxide
(C) solidified nitrogen (D) solidified hydrogen
17. A person climbing a hill bends forward in order to
(A) avoid slipping (B) increase speed
(C) reduce fatigue (D) increase stability
18. We get energy directly from
(A) the sun (B) ocean
(C) space (D) mountains
19. Sound travels at maximum speed in
(A) vacuum (B) air
(C) water (D) steel
20. Echoes are produced when the sound is
(A) reflected (B) diffracted
(C) polarized (D) refracted
21. Air is a mixture of gases. About 78 % of this gaseous mixture is
(A) Nitrogen (B) Oxygen
(C) Carbon-dioxide (D) Hydrogen
22. The universal law of gravitation was propounded by
(A) Kepler (B) Galileo
(C) Newton (D) Copernicus
23. The hardest substance available on earth is
(A) Platinum (B) Coal
(C) Gold (D) Diamond
24. Galvanised iron sheets have a coating of
(A) zinc (B) lead
(C) chromium (D) tin
25. What is laughing gas ?
(A) Sulphur dioxide (B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Nitrous oxide (D) Hydrogen peroxide
26 is
(A) Padma Vibhushan (B) Ashok Chakra
(C) Bharat Ratna (D) Padma Shri
2. Loktak lake is situated in the state of
(A) Assam (B) Nagaland
(C) Manipur (D) Tripura
3. India became an independent country on
(A) 15th August, 1947 (B) 15th August, 1948
(C) 15th August, 1949 (D) 15th August, 1950
4. Pandit Bhimsen Joshi was a renowned
(A) classical dancer (B) classical vocalist
(C) poet (D) novelist
5. Dada Saheb Phalke Award is given for outstanding contribution to the cause of Indian
(A) sports (B) literature
(C) cinema (D) handicraft
6. Arjuna Award is given to outstanding
(A) sports person (B) musician
(C) film director (D) sports coach
7. Our national animal is the
(A) Lion (B) Elephant
(C) Tiger (D) Bear
8. Name the capital of Arunachal Pradesh
(A) Itanagar (B) Agartala
(C) Aizawl (D) Imphal
9. The Supreme Court of India is located in
(A) Kolkata (B) New Delhi
(C) Chandigarh (D) Mumbai
10. In India, the first commercially viable oil well was drilled at
(A) Digboi (B) Numaligarh
(C) Barauni (D) Namdapha
11. The Ashoka Chakra depicted centrally on the white stripe of the National Flag has
(A) 12 spokes (B) 22 spokes
(C) 24 spokes (D) 20 spokes
12. Which state is associated with the development of dance form ‘Kuchipudi’ ?
(A) Kerala (B) Maharashtra
(C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu
13. When a bar magnet is freely suspended, it points roughly in a
(A) east – west direction (B) east – north direction
(C) north – south direction (D) north – west direction
14. An electric motor converts
(A) mechanical energy into electrical energy
(B) electrical energy into mechanical energy
(C) mechanical energy into sound energy
(D) electrical energy into sound energy
15. Electrical fuses installed in the house are connected in the
(A) live wire (B) neutral wire
(C) earth connection (D) none of these
16. Dry ice is basically
(A) frozen water (B) solidified carbon dioxide
(C) solidified nitrogen (D) solidified hydrogen
17. A person climbing a hill bends forward in order to
(A) avoid slipping (B) increase speed
(C) reduce fatigue (D) increase stability
18. We get energy directly from
(A) the sun (B) ocean
(C) space (D) mountains
19. Sound travels at maximum speed in
(A) vacuum (B) air
(C) water (D) steel
20. Echoes are produced when the sound is
(A) reflected (B) diffracted
(C) polarized (D) refracted
21. Air is a mixture of gases. About 78 % of this gaseous mixture is
(A) Nitrogen (B) Oxygen
(C) Carbon-dioxide (D) Hydrogen
22. The universal law of gravitation was propounded by
(A) Kepler (B) Galileo
(C) Newton (D) Copernicus
23. The hardest substance available on earth is
(A) Platinum (B) Coal
(C) Gold (D) Diamond
24. Galvanised iron sheets have a coating of
(A) zinc (B) lead
(C) chromium (D) tin
25. What is laughing gas ?
(A) Sulphur dioxide (B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Nitrous oxide (D) Hydrogen peroxide
RRC GROUP-D EXAM (NOTIFICATION NO. E.NO.1/2008) SOLVED PAPER (SET E4)
1. The term ‘Satyagraha’ is associated with
(A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Lala Lajpat Rai (D) G.K.Gokhale
2. The first popular revolt against the British (also called the Sepoy Mutiny) happened in the
year
(A) 1857 (B) 1867
(C) 1877 (D) 1897
3. “Do or Die” was one of the most powerful slogans of India’s freedom struggle. Who gave it ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) B. G. Tilak (D) Subhash Chandra Bose
4. ‘Thanas’ was established during the British period by
(A) Cornwallis (B) Warren Hastings
(C) William Bentinck (D) Wellesley
5. Which of the British rulers was associated with the ‘abolition of sati’ ?
(A) William Bentinck (B) Warren Hastings
(C) Robert Clive (D) Dalhousie
6. Whose reign is considered as the golden age of Mughal architecture ?
(A) Shah Jahan (B) Jahangir
(C) Aurangzeb (D) Akbar
7. Fort William in Bengal was constructed by the
(A) British (B) Portuguese
(C) Dutch (D) French
8. Who founded the Ahom kingdom of Assam ?
(A) Sukapha (B) Bamunikonwar
(C) Dihingia Raja (D) Khora Raja
9. Who established the ‘satras’ in Assam ?
(A) Nathmuni (B) Srimanta Sankaradeva
(C) Ramananda (D) Kabir
10. To promote trade and commerce, Sher Shah constructed many roads. The most famous of
them was the Grand Trunk Road. It ran from
(A) Gujarat to Delhi (B) Bengal to Punjab
(C) Delhi to Lahore (D) Delhi to Kashmir
11. In the battle of Saraighat in 1671 A.D.
(A) Mir Jumla defeated the Ahom king Jayadhwaj Singha
(B) The Ahom king Jayadhwaj Singha defeated Mir Jumla
(C) The Ahom general Bir Lachit defeated the Mughal general Ram Singh
(D) The Mughal general Ram Singh defeated the Ahom general Bir Lachit
12. A very special tank, which archaeologists call the Great Bath was found in the ancient city of
(A) Mohenjodaro (B) Lothal
(C) Harappa (D) Kalibangan
13. Ashoka the Great belonged to the
(A) Mughal dynasty (B) Maurya dynasty
(C) Slave dynasty (D) British Empire
14. ‘Abhijnanam Sakuntalam’ was written by
(A) Kalidas (B) Kautilya
(C) Harshavardhana (D) Banabhatta
15. First Indo – Pak war was started in the year
(A) 1945 (B) 1947
(C) 1949 (D) 1950
16. What is 20% of 200 ?
(A) 20 (B) 40
(C) 60 (D) 80
17. Choose the greatest from the following ?
(A) 9.90 (B) 9.99
(C) 9.09 (D) 0.99
18. How many months have 30 days ?
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 7
19. Fill in the blank in the series with an appropriate letter.
A C E G I K __ O
(A) M (B) N
(C) L (D) P
20. Choose the odd one out.
(A) Rose (B) Lotus
(C) Jasmine (D) Cauliflower
21. Find one angle of an equilateral triangle.
(A) 60 degree (B) 90 degree
(C) 45 degree (D) 30 degree
22. If the mean (average) of 5 numbers is 5.4 what is the total sum of these numbers ?
(A) 20 (B) 24
(C) 26 (D) 27
23. If x = 5, y = 3, z = 9 find the value of 4x – 3y + 7z.
(A) 64 (B) 74
(C) 84 (D) 94
24. At what rate of simple interest will Rs. 525/- amount to Rs. 588/- at the end of 3 years.
(A) 4% (B) 6%
(C) 8% (D) 10%
25. Find the square root of 15876
(A) 156 (B) 146
(C) 126 (D) 116
(A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Lala Lajpat Rai (D) G.K.Gokhale
2. The first popular revolt against the British (also called the Sepoy Mutiny) happened in the
year
(A) 1857 (B) 1867
(C) 1877 (D) 1897
3. “Do or Die” was one of the most powerful slogans of India’s freedom struggle. Who gave it ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) B. G. Tilak (D) Subhash Chandra Bose
4. ‘Thanas’ was established during the British period by
(A) Cornwallis (B) Warren Hastings
(C) William Bentinck (D) Wellesley
5. Which of the British rulers was associated with the ‘abolition of sati’ ?
(A) William Bentinck (B) Warren Hastings
(C) Robert Clive (D) Dalhousie
6. Whose reign is considered as the golden age of Mughal architecture ?
(A) Shah Jahan (B) Jahangir
(C) Aurangzeb (D) Akbar
7. Fort William in Bengal was constructed by the
(A) British (B) Portuguese
(C) Dutch (D) French
8. Who founded the Ahom kingdom of Assam ?
(A) Sukapha (B) Bamunikonwar
(C) Dihingia Raja (D) Khora Raja
9. Who established the ‘satras’ in Assam ?
(A) Nathmuni (B) Srimanta Sankaradeva
(C) Ramananda (D) Kabir
10. To promote trade and commerce, Sher Shah constructed many roads. The most famous of
them was the Grand Trunk Road. It ran from
(A) Gujarat to Delhi (B) Bengal to Punjab
(C) Delhi to Lahore (D) Delhi to Kashmir
11. In the battle of Saraighat in 1671 A.D.
(A) Mir Jumla defeated the Ahom king Jayadhwaj Singha
(B) The Ahom king Jayadhwaj Singha defeated Mir Jumla
(C) The Ahom general Bir Lachit defeated the Mughal general Ram Singh
(D) The Mughal general Ram Singh defeated the Ahom general Bir Lachit
12. A very special tank, which archaeologists call the Great Bath was found in the ancient city of
(A) Mohenjodaro (B) Lothal
(C) Harappa (D) Kalibangan
13. Ashoka the Great belonged to the
(A) Mughal dynasty (B) Maurya dynasty
(C) Slave dynasty (D) British Empire
14. ‘Abhijnanam Sakuntalam’ was written by
(A) Kalidas (B) Kautilya
(C) Harshavardhana (D) Banabhatta
15. First Indo – Pak war was started in the year
(A) 1945 (B) 1947
(C) 1949 (D) 1950
16. What is 20% of 200 ?
(A) 20 (B) 40
(C) 60 (D) 80
17. Choose the greatest from the following ?
(A) 9.90 (B) 9.99
(C) 9.09 (D) 0.99
18. How many months have 30 days ?
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 7
19. Fill in the blank in the series with an appropriate letter.
A C E G I K __ O
(A) M (B) N
(C) L (D) P
20. Choose the odd one out.
(A) Rose (B) Lotus
(C) Jasmine (D) Cauliflower
21. Find one angle of an equilateral triangle.
(A) 60 degree (B) 90 degree
(C) 45 degree (D) 30 degree
22. If the mean (average) of 5 numbers is 5.4 what is the total sum of these numbers ?
(A) 20 (B) 24
(C) 26 (D) 27
23. If x = 5, y = 3, z = 9 find the value of 4x – 3y + 7z.
(A) 64 (B) 74
(C) 84 (D) 94
24. At what rate of simple interest will Rs. 525/- amount to Rs. 588/- at the end of 3 years.
(A) 4% (B) 6%
(C) 8% (D) 10%
25. Find the square root of 15876
(A) 156 (B) 146
(C) 126 (D) 116
SCHEDULE OF MAIN(2ND STAGE) WRITTEN EXAMINATION FOR VARIOUS POSTS OF NTPC GRADUATE CATEGORIES
SCHEDULE OF MAIN(2ND STAGE) WRITTEN EXAMINATION FOR VARIOUS POSTS OF NTPC GRADUATE CATEGORIES
- Date of Written exam - 18.08.2013
- Reporting time of candidate - 10.30 Hrs.
- Exam. Duration and venue - 90 minutes (11.00 to 12.30)
- The call-letters indicating date, time and venue of examination centre for Main Written Examination to above mentioned candidates against above mentioned Notifications have been sent at the corresponding address given in Application form. Railway Recruitment Board will not be responsible for any postal delay or wrong delivery of call-letter. Those candidates who do not get call-letters or who have been issued call-letters with wrong name, date of birth, community, category number, photograph may come personally with proof to Railway Recruitment Board as per schedule given above from 09.30 hours to 17.00 hours for getting corrected/duplicate call letters
| Name of the Post | Employment Notification No. | Date of issue of Duplicate Call Letters | |
| From | To | ||
| Commercial Apprentice | 03/2012 | 16/08/2013 | 17/08/2013 |
| Traffic Apprentice | 03/2012 | 16/08/2013 | 17/08/2013 |
| ECRC | 03/2012 | 16/08/2013 | 17/08/2013 |
| Goods Guard | 03/2012 | 16/08/2013 | 17/08/2013 |
| Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist | 03/2012 | 16/08/2013 | 17/08/2013 |
| Assistant Station Master | 03/2012 | 16/08/2013 | 17/08/2013 |
| Assistant Station Master | 03/2012 | 16/08/2013 | 17/08/2013 |
Eastern Railway 1608 Ex-Servicemen Quota Posts Recruitment
Recruitment 2013 in Eastern Railway for 1608 Ex-Servicemen Quota Posts
|
Applications are invited from eligible Ex-Servicemen who fulfill the eligibility criteria mentioned below for filling up the following posts:
For Eastern Railway:
How to Apply: The completed applications in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents Senior Personnel Officer (Recruitments), Eastern Railway, Railway Recruitment Cell, 56, C.R. Avenu, Kolkata- 700012. Last Date: 16/08/2013 For more details Click here |
Western Railway Sports Quota Recruitment
Applications in the prescribed format are invited
from eligible Indian Nationals Sports persons in various grades and in
various sports disciplines in Western Railway :
Age : 18-25 years as on 0/01/2014. - 05 posts in the pay scale : Rs. 5200-20200 grade pay Rs. 2800/ 2400
- 16 posts in the pay scale : Rs. 5200-20200 grade pay Rs. 2000/ 1900
- 38 posts in the pay scale : Rs. 5200-20200 grade pay Rs. 1800
How to Apply : Application as per prescribed format with two passport size photographs
should be addressed to Sr. Sports Officer, Western Railway Sports Association, Headquarter Office, Churchgate, Mumbai - 400020 on or before is 26/08/013.
Saturday, July 27, 2013
RRC Allahabad 2715 Erstwhile Group D Posts
Railway Recruitment Cell (RRC), Allahabad invites applications for the Erstwhile Group D Posts in North Central Railway.
Erstwhile Group D: 2715 Posts
Erstwhile Group D: 2715 Posts
- APM / Gateman: 173 Posts
- Box Boy / Peon: 03 Posts
- Trackman: 1703 Posts
- Helper (Engineering): 127 Posts
- Helper (S&T): 117 Posts
- Safaiwala / AMK: 42 Posts
- Parcel Porter: 24 Posts
- Helper (Mech.) C&W/DSL: 158 Posts
- Helper (Elect.) Genl: 38 Posts
- Helper (Elect) TRD / TRS / RSO: 115 Posts
- Safaiwala: 03 Posts
- Helper / Office Khalasi / Multi skilled workers: 50 Posts
- Helper Workshop (Mech. / Elect.): 97 Posts
- Khalasi: 50 Posts
- Helper: 15 Posts
Qualifications: 10th Class or ITI or equivalent. Those candidates who are appearing in and/or awaiting results final examination of class 10th are not eligible. Candidates having higher educational qualifications may also apply.
Age Limit: 18 to 33 years and will be reckoned as on 01.01.2014.
Examination Fee: The examination fee for unreserved and OBC candidate is Rs. 100/-. All women candidates, SC/ST/Muslims/Christians/Sikhs Buddhists/Zorastrians (Parsis) candidates are exempted from payment of examination fees. Economically backward class candidates whose family income is less than Rs. 50,000 per annum are exempted from examinations fees (They have to produce income certificate on letter head in prescribed format as shown in Annexure VI & VII).
Selection Process: Candidates will be selected on the base of Written Examination and Physical Efficiency Test.
How to Apply: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the Assistant Personnel Officer, Railway Recruitment Cell, North Central Railway, Balmiki Chauraha, Nawab Yusuf Road, Allahabad by ordinary post only or may also be dropped in the Box kept in the Railway Recruitment Cell Office.
Important Dates:- Last Date for Submission of Application: 02/09/2013
- Last Date for Submission of Application for Remote Areas:16/09/2013
Thursday, July 25, 2013
Railway Recruitment Cell, Allahabad Recruitment of Group C (Scouts and Guides Quota)
Applications are invited from Scouts & Guides Persons of all categories in Group ‘C’ grade:
Group C (Scouts and Guides Quota):
How to Apply: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the address as mention in the notification.
Last Date: 19/08/2013
More details click here
Group C (Scouts and Guides Quota):
- NCR Hqsr: 02 Posts
- ALD Divn.: 02 Posts
- JHS Divn.: 02 Posts
- AGC Divn.: 02 Posts
Qualification: Matriculation or equivalent with 50% marks.
How to Apply: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the address as mention in the notification.
Last Date: 19/08/2013
More details click here
Saturday, July 20, 2013
North Western Railway, Jaipur Recruitment of Various Posts
Applications are invited for the following posts:
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Important Dates:
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Rail Coach Factory, Kapurthala Recruitment of Sports Quota Posts
Applications are invited for the following posts:
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Qualifications: High School or equivalent examination passed. Or 10th pass Or ITI Or equivalent and minimum Sports norms as mention in the notification.
For more details Click hereAge limit as on 01.07.2013: 18-25 years. Fee: Crossed Indian Postal Order / Demand Draft of Rs. 60/- for grade pay Rs. 2000/- and Rs.40/- for grade pay Rs. 1900/-&1800/- to be prepared after the date of publication of this notice payable in favour of FA&CAO/Rail Coach Factory, Kapurthala. SC/ST, Women, Minorities (Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Zoroastrians (Parsis) and economically backward classes candidates are exempted from examination fee. How to Apply: The completed application in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents and DD/ I.P.O should reach the office of the General Manager (Personnel), Recruitment Section, Rail Coach Factory, Kapurthala-144 602. Last Date: 12/08/2013 |
Saturday, July 6, 2013
Railway Recruitment Cell (RRC), Bilaspur Recruitment of Ex-Serviceman Quota
Railway Recruitment Cell (RRC), Bilaspur has released an employment notification regarding recruitment of 968 Ex-Serviceman Quota Posts in South East Central Railway.
Ex-Serviceman Quota Posts: 968 Posts
Qualifications:
Candidates must have retired after putting in 15 years of service and have passed Army Class-I certificate or equivalent.
Address: Deputy Chief Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell, South East Central Railway, R.T.S. Colony, Near Kendriya Vidyalaya, Bilaspur-495004 (Chhattisgarh).
Last Date for submission of application: 31 July 2013
Last Date for Submission of Application for Remote Areas: 14 August 2013
Ex-Serviceman Quota Posts: 968 Posts
Qualifications:
Candidates must have retired after putting in 15 years of service and have passed Army Class-I certificate or equivalent.
Address: Deputy Chief Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell, South East Central Railway, R.T.S. Colony, Near Kendriya Vidyalaya, Bilaspur-495004 (Chhattisgarh).
Last Date for submission of application: 31 July 2013
Last Date for Submission of Application for Remote Areas: 14 August 2013
Friday, July 5, 2013
South Western Railway, Hubli Recruitment of Ex-Serviceman Quota
Applications in the prescribed format are invited from Ex-Servicemen to fill up 1014 vacancies (erstwhile Group 'D' Posts) on South Western Railway, Hubli.
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Eligibility: Ex-Servicemen who have retired after putting in 15 years of service and has passed Army Class-I certificate or equivalent will be considered eligible.
For more details Click hereHow to Apply: The completed applications in the prescribed format along with all relevant documents should reach the Assistant Personnel Officer/ Recruitment, Railway Recruitment Cell, DRM’s Office Compound, South Western Railway, Hubli-580020. Last Date: 29/07/2013 |
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