SPECIAL INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES APPEARING IN STENOGRAPHY SKILL TEST

1.The candidate should reach the centre of the skill test well in time. Candidates reporting after the commencement of the dictation shall
not be admitted to the test hall.
2.The candidate will not be allowed to enter the test hall without producing the call letter in original. Preserve the call letter carefully as no photocopy or F.I.R. for loss of the same will be allowed as substitute. The call letter is not transferable.
3.  The skill test shall commence after formalities  like checking of attendance, collection of call letters etc.  are completed. Candidates willnot be permitted to leave the test hall until 15 minutes have elapsed after the commencement of transcription time or before the test is over and the Centre Supervisor/Invigilator has given direction to leave. This may take some time after the test is over.
4.  Use of books, papers etc. are not permitted. Use of mobile phones inside the test hall is strictly prohibited.
5.  Indulging  in any malpractice/unfair means in the test hall will disqualify the candidate and he/she will be debarred from all further RRB
examinations and appointment in Railways.
6. The RRB reserves the right to order re‐tests in the case of any candidate or all candidates.
7.Furnishing of any false information to the RRB or deliberate suppression of any material information will, at any stage of its detection will
render  the  candidate  liable  for  being  disqualified  and  debarred  from  appearing  at  any  selection  or examination  for  appointment  to Railways.
8.Before leaving the test hall, candidates must submit the transcription sheet (both the original and the duplicate) and the shorthand note
sheets to the Invigilator.
9. Change of date/reporting time/centre of the test will not be permitted under any circumstances.
10. SC/ST  candidates  are  entitled  to  free  rail  travel  and  should  produce  the  call  letter with  scanned  photograph  at  the  Railway  booking counter for issue of tickets. However, Railway passes will not be issued for collection of duplicate call letters.
11. Candidates must  sign on  the call  letter  (at  the appropriate  space)  in  the  test hall  in presence of  the  Invigilator only. His/her signature should be in same language and same style as in application form.
12. Candidates arranging  impersonation shall be disqualified and debarred  for  life  from all  future RRB examinations. Candidates arranging impersonator and/or  impersonators are  liable for prosecution under  law. Candidates causing disturbances  in the test premises shall be dealt with similarly.
13. Candidate has to affix his/her  left thumb  impression carefully  in  the space provided  in the attendance sheet without smudging on the provided space of the attendance sheet. Candidature of candidates with unclear/smudged left thumb impression will be rejected.
14.  Special instructions, if any, given by Invigilator(s) should be followed rigidly.
15.Name, community, roll numbers etc. are required to be filled up by the candidates compulsorily in foil attached to the Answer Sheets.
16.  Candidates  should bring good quality  typewriter machines with  them. RRB/Guwahati will not provide any  typewriter machine and will not be able to supply any machine if the machine brought by the candidate becomes defective. Electronic typewriter machines will not
be allowed.
17.The test passage will contain 800 words which will need to be typed at 80 w.p.m. Before dictation of test passage, the Dictator shall give
two trial dictations as a “warming up practice” to the candidates.
18. After dictation, candidates are required to do the transcription when signaled.
19.The time allowed for transcription passage would be 65 minutes for English passage and 75 minutes for Hindi passage.
20.The candidates should write their roll number, name and sign at the end of each sheet of transcript and shorthand note sheets.
21. The following will be considered as full mistakes:
  Every omission of a word or figure including omission of a definite or indefinite article
  Every substitution of a wrong word or figure
  Every  addition  of  a word  or  figure  or  a  group  of words/figures  including  addition  of  a  definite  article  not  occurring  in  the passage
  Handwritten additions/corrections/insertions
22. The following will be considered as half mistakes:
  Mis‐spelling, including transposition of letters in a word and also omission of a letter or letters from a word
  Using singular for plural noun and vice versa
  Transposition of words/group of words in a sentence
  Repeating a word/figure or a group of words or group of figures in the transcript
  Wrong use of capital letters at the beginning of the sentence
  Omission or placement of the apostrophe in a word in the possessive case, or in contracted words
  Insertion of a space in the middle of a word
  Lack of space between words
  Wrong syllabification of a word at the end of line
  Ambiguous overtyping
  Complete and ambiguous overlapping
  Omission or wrong placement of the caret sign
  Arbitrary and unfamiliar abbreviations
  More than one error in a single word
23.  Stenography skill test is of qualifying nature and candidates failing in the skill test will not be considered.
24.Please note that in other matters, the terms & conditions etc. laid down in the Employment Notice shall apply mutatis mutandis.

NOTE:  The call  letter for Stenography skill test is provisional and does not give any guarantee for employment.  If  it  is  found  later at any stage
that you do not fulfill any of the conditions of eligibility, your candidature will be cancelled and no appeal against such cancellation will
be entertained. You are therefore advised to check carefully and satisfy yourself that you fulfill all the conditions of eligibility.

NORTH CENTRAL RAILWAY ALLAHABAD GROUP-D WRITTEN EXAM

                                           NORTH CENTRAL RAILWAY
                                               Railway Recruitment Cell
                  Balmiki Chauraha, Nawab Yusuf Road, Civil Lines, Allahabad

                       DATE FOR WRITTEN EXAMINATION – GROUP ‘D’
                       REF: Employment Notice No. 01/2007 dated 22.12.2007

1. Railway Recruitment Cell, North Central Railway will conduct written examination on 16.10.2011 (Sunday) for recruitment of Group ‘D’ posts notified through Employment Notice No. 01/2007dt. 22.12.2007.

2. List of eligible candidates for Written Exam as well as for further updates logon to www.ncr.indianrailways.gov.in.

3. Written Exam:
a) Question Paper shall be based on 8th standard consisting of 150 multiple choice objective questions to assess the General Knowledge/awareness/ mathematics/reasoning etc.

b) Duration of Written Exam shall be 2 hours.

c) 1/3rd of the allotted marks will be deducted for every wrong answer/multiple answer i.e. one mark shall be deducted for three wrong answers.

d) Question Paper shall be printed in Hindi, English and Urdu.

4. CALL LETTERS indicating venue and timing etc. will be sent to the eligible candidates well in advance.

5. DUPLICATE/CORRECTED Call letters would be issued in the following circumstances.
a) If a candidate finds his application status as eligible after checking on the website, but does not receive Call letter by 11.10.2011
OR
b) If a candidate notices any discrepancy in Call Letter regarding Name, Father’s name, Caste, Photogarph or signature etc.

RRB GENERAL KNOWLEDGE PRACTICE MCQs

1. An emulsion is a colloid of a—
(A) Gas in a liquid
(B) Liquid in a liquid
(C) Liquid in a gas
(D) Gas in a solid
2. Percentage of carbon in steel ranges from—
(A) 0.1 to 1.5
(B) 1.5 to 3.0
(C) 3.0 to 4.0
(D) 4.0 to 6.0
3. Which of the following is not present in German-silver ?
(A) Copper
(B) Nickel
(C) Silver
(D) Zinc
4. According to the latest estimates, the literacy rate (% of population) in India is—
(A) 63%
(B) 65%
(C) 67%
(D) 68%
5. Who won the U.S. Open (Lawn Tennis) in September 2007 ?
(A) Novak Djokovic
(B) Roger Federer
(C) Rafael Nadal
(D) None of the above
6. Who propounded the theory of 'Economic Drain of India' during British imperialism ?
(A) W. C. Bannerji
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Gopalkrishna Gokhale
(D) Gandhiji
7. First Indian Commander-in-Chief was—
(A) Gen. K.S. Thimayya
(B) Gen. K. M. Kariappa
(C) S. H. F. J. Manekshaw
(D) None of the above
8. A computer virus is—
(A) A chemical that attacks silicon.
(B) A micro-organism that destroys integrated circuits
(C) Data that the computer fails to handle
(D) A special kind of computer programme
9. India has a coastline of—
(A) 5500 km
(B) 6500 km
(C) 7500 km
(D) 8400 km
10. Jawahar Tunnel, the largest in India is located in the State of—
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Karnataka
(D) Himachal Pradesh
11. The most literate union territory in India is—
(A) Delhi
(B) Lakshadweep
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Puducherry
12. Which of the following is the smallest Parliamentary Constituency in terms of area ?
(A) Chandni Chowk (Delhi)
(B) Sadar (Delhi)
(C) Kolkata North West
(D) Mumbai South
13. Who is the author of the book 'Two Lives' ?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) James Patterson
(C) Ved Mehta
(D) Khushwant Singh
14. Which of the following sets of countries are referred to as 'The Golden Crescent' the largest opium industry in the world ?
(A) Myanmar, Laos and Thailand
(B) Afghanistan, Iran and Iraq
(C) Afghanistan, Pakistan and Iran
(D) Myanmar, Malaysia and Thailand
15. Which is the anti-coagulant substance in blood ?
(A) Fibrinogen
(B) Heparin
(C) Thrombin
(D) Globin
16. Which group of the following countries participated in the 'Malabar 07,' a six days joint naval exercise (September 4-9) involving 25 warships, in the Bay of Bengal ?
(A) India, U. S., Japan, Australia and South Korea
(B) India, U.S., Australia, Singapore and South Korea
(C) India, U.S., Japan, Singapore and Australia
(D) India, U.S., Japan, Singapore and South Korea
17. Who coined the term 'Hindu rate of growth' for Indian economy ?
(A) A. K. Sen
(B) Kirit S. Parikh
(C) Raj Krishna
(D) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
18. Sri ARVIND KEJRIWAL has been selected for the RAMON MAGSAYSAY AWARD for 2006 for his important contribution in the field—
(A) Formation of Pani (water) Panchayats in Rajasthan helping rural people in facing their acute water problem
(B) Effective implementation of the 'National Minimum Employment Guarantee Scheme' in rural areas
(C) 'Right to Information' movement and empowering citizens to fight corruption
(D) Extending education to children of slum dwellers in Delhi
19. The three day VIII World Hindi Conference was held in July, 2007 at—
(A) New Delhi
(B) London
(C) Now York
(D) Kathmandu
20. In which country is the volcano Mount Gamkonora, the highest peak of Halmahera island, which erupted in July, 2007 located ?
(A) Japan
(B) Indonesia
(C) Russia
(D) France
21. Name the Vice-captain of the Indian Cricket Team which toured South Africa in T-20 tournament recently—
(A) Virender Sehwag
(B) Anil Kumble
(C) Irfan Pathan
(D) Yuvraj Singh
22. The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) consists of—
(A) China, Russia, Kazhakistan, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan
(B) China, Russia, Mongolia, Kazhakistan, Uzbekistan and Tajikistan
(C) China, Russia, Mongolia, Iran, Kazhakistan and Uzbekistan
(D) China, Russia, Iran, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan
23. Which one of the following companies announced sometime back the launch of India's first personal computer with one terabyte hard drive capacity ?
(A) Infosys Technologies
(B) Wipro
(C) HCL Infosystems
(D) IBM
24. Which of the following companies has become the highest ranked Indian company in the Fortune Global 500 list (at 135th position) in terms of sales ?
(A) Wipro
(B) Reliance
(C) Indian Oil Corporation
(D) ONGC
25. Which one of the following has not been included in the list of new seven wonders ?
(A) Roman Colosseum (Italy)
(B) Machu Picchu (Peru)
(C) Eiffel Tower in Paris (France)
(D) Christ the Redeemer (Brazil)
26. The Chairman of the Indian Censor Board of Film is—
(A) Shri Anupam Kher
(B) Shri Gulzar
(C) Smt. Sharmila Tagore
(D) Shri Sanjeev Kumar
27. The major harmful gas emitted by automobile vehicles which causes air pollution is—
(A) Carbon Monoxide
(B) Methane
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Ozone gas
28. Who among the following is not a classical economist ?
(A) David Ricardo
(B) John Stuart Mill
(C) Thomas Malthus
(D) John Maynard Keynes
29. According to the Employment Outlook 2007 reports of the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), the number of new jobs created in India every year from 2000 to 2005 is—
(A) 5 million
(B) 8 million
(C) 11 million
(D) 13 million
30. 'World Bank' is also known as—
(A) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(B) International Bank for Rehabilitation and Development
(C) International Bank for Refinance and Development
(D) International Bank for Research and Development
31. By which Bill does the Government propose collection of revenues for a year ?
(A) Economic Bill
(B) Finance Bill
(C) Supplementary Bill
(D) None of the above
32. Which is the oldest trade union organization in India ?
(A) Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC)
(B) Centre of Indian Trade Unions (CITU)
(C) All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC)
(D) Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh (BMS)
33. Prof. Amartya Sen was awarded Nobel Prize for his contribution to the field of—
(A) Food and Famines
(B) Welfare economics
(C) Indian economy
(D) Poverty
34. Which of the following items is a major item of Indian export ?
(A) Computer chips
(B) Potato chips
(C) Textile garments
(D) Car engines
35. Indian agriculture is typically characterised as—
(A) Land surplus, labour scarce economy
(B) Land surplus, labour surplus economy
(C) Land scarce, labour surplus economy
(D) Land scarce, labour scarce economy
36. The process of curing inflation by reducing money supply is called—
(A) Cost-push inflation
(B) Demand-pull inflation
(C) Disinflation
(D) Reflation
37. Which of the following pair of goods are close substitutes ?
(A) Milk and Sugar
(B) Sugar and Tea
(C) Tea and Coffee
(D) Coffee and Biscuits
38. Long-term funds in the capital market can be raised either by borrowing from certain institutions or through—
(A) Issue of note
(B) Taking loan from Government
(C) Issue of securities
(D) Taking loan from foreign institutions
39. As required by the WTO agreement, the Indian Patent Act was amended in 1999. The Act first came into force in the year—
(A) 1965
(B) 1970
(C) 1975
(D) 1980
40. The Indian Parliament is competent to enact law on a State subject if—
(A) Emergency under Article 352 is in operation
(B) All the State Assemblies of the country make such a request
(C) The President sends such a message to Parliament
(D) None of the above
41. The President of India enjoys emergency powers of—
(A) Four types
(B) Two types
(C) Five types
(D) Three types
42. Sarvodaya stands for—
(A) Total revolution
(B) Non-cooperation
(C) Upliftment of all
(D) Non-violence
43. Right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights during the rule of—
(A) Indira Gandhi Government
(B) Morarji Desai Government
(C) Narasimha Rao Government
(D) Vajpayee Government
44. The chapter or Fundamental Duties includes—
(A) Duty to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our freedom movement
(B) Duty to vote in General Election
(C) Duty to promote the sense of fraternity among the people
(D) Duty to stick to the political party on whose ticket one contested election
45. In which city of South Africa was Gandhi beaten up and thrown off the pavement by the white people ?
(A) Cape Town
(B) Durban
(C) Johannesburg
(D) Pretoria
46. A national political party is one which receives 4% of the total votes polled in—
(A) Two or more States
(B) The capital city
(C) Four or more States
(D) In all the States
47. The basic features of the Indian Constitution which are not amendable under Article 368 are—
(A) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system and judicial review
(B) Sovereignty, territorial integrity and parliamentary system of government
(C) Judicial review and the federal system
(D) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system, judicial review and parliamentary system of government
48. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy ?
(A) Part I
(B) Part III
(C) Part IV
(D) Part V
49. How many types of writs can be issued by the Supreme Court ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 6
50. Which of the following countries is not a member of the SAARC ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Bhutan
(C) Maldives
(D) Myanmar
51. The Supreme Court of India enjoys—
(A) Original jurisdictions
(B) Advisory jurisdictions
(C) Appellate and advisory jurisdictions
(D) Original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions
52. Who attended the Congress of Oppressed Nationalists at Brussels in 1927, on behalf of the National Congress ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Dr. Ansari
(D) Motilal Nehru
53. Who amongst the following made it possible for the Indians to enter the Indian Civil Service through an open competitive examination ?
(A) William Bentinck
(B) Dalhousie
(C) Mayo
(D) Ripon
54. In which year Lala Lajpat Rai was deported to Mandalay for organising the agrarian movement in Punjab ?
(A) 1905
(B) 1907
(C) 1909
(D) 1911
55. Which Governor General had entertained Ranjit Singh with great honour at Ropar ?
(A) Minto I
(B) William Bentinck
(C) Hastings
(D) Auckland
56. The Khajli Sultans of Delhi were—
(A) Mongols
(B) Afghans
(C) Turks
(D) A Jat tribe
57. The 'Arya Samaj' was founded by—
(A) Swami Dayananda Saraswati
(B) Swami Vivekananda
(C) Keshav Chandra Sen
(D) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
58. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad started an Urdu Weekly, The Al-Hilal in 1912, but, on its being banned by the Government, he founded the Al-Balagh in—
(A) 1913
(B) 1914
(C) 1915
(D) 1916
59. High Courts were established in Calcutta, Bombay and Madras in—
(A) 1935
(B) 1919
(C) 1892
(D) 1862
60. Who was the first Woman President of Indian National Congress ?
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Sucheta Kripalani
(C) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
(D) Annie Besant
61. Arabs were defeated in 738 A. D. by—
(A) Pratiharas
(B) Rashtrakutas
(C) Palas
(D) Chalukyas
62. Which of the following reform movements was the first to be started in the 19th century ?
(A) Prarthana Samaj
(B) Brahmo Samaj
(C) Arya Samaj
(D) Rama Krishna Mission
63. The rulers of Vijayanagar promoted—
(A) Hindi, Marathi and Sanskrit
(B) Malayalam, Tamil and Sanskrit
(C) Tamil, Telugu and Sanskrit
(D) Telugu, Urdu and Sanskrit
64. In India, the irrigation of agricultural land is carried out maximum by—
(A) Canals
(B) Wells
(C) Tubewells
(D) Tanks
65. The four largest planets of the Solar System in decreasing sizes are—
(A) Jupiter, Mercury, Saturn and Uranus
(B) Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn and Neptune
(C) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune
(D) Jupiter, Mercury, Saturn and Neptune
66. Which of the following produces maximum crude petroleum in India at present ?
(A) Assam
(B) Gujarat
(C) Off-shore Bombay High
(D) Coastal Tamil Nadu
67. India is one of the largest producers of manganese are in the world along with—
(A) China and Russia
(B) Brazil and Russia
(C) Australia and U.S.A.
(D) South Africa and U.S.A.
68. The 'Chipko Movement' is related to—
(A) Wildlife preservation
(B) Forest conservation
(C) Scientific agriculture
(D) Deforestation
69. Which of the following rivers makes an estuary ?
(A) Cauvery
(B) Krishna
(C) Narmada
(D) Ganga
70. Baltora glacier is located in—
(A) Karakoram ranges
(B) Pamir plateau
(C) Shivalik
(D) Alps
71. The largest producer of world's mica is—
(A) U.S.A.
(B) U.K.
(C) Canada
(D) India
72. The International Date Line is the—
(A) 180° Longitude
(B) 88½° East Longitude
(C) Equator
(D) 0° Longitude
73. Which of the following countries has highest percentage of land under cultivation ?
(A) China
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Canada
(D) India
74. Aryabhata was launched from—
(A) Sriharikota
(B) Mahe
(C) Chandipur
(D) Daman
75. How for does the Exclusive Economic Zone of a country extend from her coast ?
(A) 120 km
(B) 220 km
(C) 320 km
(D) 420 km
76. In which of the following groups, animals bear no teeth ?
(A) Peacock, Ostrich, Tortoise
(B) Owl, Loris, Crow
(C) Alligator, Turtle, Tortoise
(D) Turtle, Kiwi, Cow
77. Jaundice is a symptom of disease of—
(A) Kidney
(B) Liver
(C) Pancreas
(D) Thyroid
78. The vaccination against small pox involves the introduction of—
(A) Killed germs
(B) Weakened germs
(C) Live antibodies
(D) Activated germs
79. Deficiency of Vitamin B6 in man causes—
(A) Rickets
(B) Scurvy
(C) Beri-beri
(D) Anaemia
80. Which is the national flower of India ?
(A) Rose
(B) Lotus
(C) Lily
(D) Sunflower
81. First successful heart transplantation was done by—
(A) D. S. Paintal
(B) C. N. Barnard
(C) D. Shetty
(D) P. K. Sen
82. Yellow Fever is transmitted by—
(A) Aedes
(B) Anopheles
(C) House-fly
(D) Culex
83. Which one of the following is a major green house gas ?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Chloro fluorocarbon
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Freon
84. In atmosphere the lowermost layer is—
(A) Troposphere
(B) Exosphere
(C) Ionosphere
(D) Strato sphere
85. Washing of peeled vegetables removes the vitamin—
(A) A
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E
86. Pasteurisation is the process in which milk is heated to—
(A) 60° C for 10 minutes
(B) 63° C for 20 minutes
(C) 63° C for 30 minutes
(D) 72° C for 10 minutes
87. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer from the code given below :
List-I (Discoverer)
(a) Jenner
(b) Watson
(c) Landsteiner
(d) Flemming
List-II (Discoveries)
1. Blood grouping
2. Penicillin
3. Vaccination
4. Double helix
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 2 4 1
88. Which of the following is most elastic ?
(A) Rubber
(B) Wet clay
(C) Steel
(D) Plastic
89. The first ever robot spacecraft to probe planet Venus was named—
(A) Galileo
(B) Magellan
(C) Newton
(D) Challenger
90. A man with colour blindness will see red as—
(A) Yellow
(B) Blue
(C) Green
(D) Violet
91. Comets revolve around the—
(A) Earth
(B) Venus
(C) Sun
(D) Jupiter
92. When a person walking in bright Sunlight enters a dark room, he is not able to see clearly for a little while because—
(A) The eye muscles cannot immediately adjust the focal length of the eye lens
(B) The retina retains the bright images for sometime and becomes momentarily insensitive
(C) The iris is, unable to contract the pupil immediately
(D) The iris is unable to dilate the pupil immediately
93. The swing of a spinning cricket ball in air can be explained on the basis of—
(A) Sudden change in wind direction
(B) Buoyancy of air
(C) Turbulance caused by wind
(D) Bernoulli's theorem
94. The freezer in a refrigerator is fitted near the top—
(A) To keep it away from hot compressor which is nearer to the bottom
(B) Because of convenience
(C) It facilitates convection currents
(D) To minimise power consumption
95. The chemical name of 'Common salt' is—
(A) Sodium chloride
(B) Sodium nitrate
(C) Ammonium chloride
(D) Calcium chloride
96. Denatured spirit is ethanol mixed with—
(A) Petrol
(B) Kerosene
(C) Water
(D) Pyridine
97. The metal, which is a constituent of vitamin B12 is—
(A) Iron
(B) Magnesium
(C) Zinc
(D) Cobalt
98. The most abundant inert gas in the atmosphere is—
(A) Helium
(B) Neon
(C) Argon
(D) Krypton
99. Which metal is extracted from sea water ?
(A) Potassium
(B) Magnesium
(C) Aluminium
(D) Beryllium
100. Precentage of lead in lead pencils is—
(A) 0
(B) 31 – 66
(C) 40
(D) 80
Answers :
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (C)
4. (B) As per population census 2001 the literacy rate in India is 64•8%.
5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (C)
10. (A) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (C)
15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (C)
20. (B) 21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (C)
25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (C)
30. (A) 31. (B)
32. (C) AITUC was established is 1920, which was the first national level trade union organisation in India to organise workers in the country.
33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (C) 36. (C) 37. (C)
38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (A) 41. (D) 42. (C)
43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (B) 46. (C) 47. (D)
48. (C) 49. (C) 50. (D) 51. (D) 52. (A)
53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (B) 56. (C) 57. (A)
58. (C) 59. (D) 60. (D) 61. (A) 62. (B)
63. (C) 64. (A) 65. (C) 66. (A) 67. (A)
68. (B) 69. (D) 70. (A) 71. (D) 72. (A)
73. (D) In India cultivated land is nearly 55% while in USA it is only 44%.
74. First Indian satellite Aryabhata was launched on April 19, 1975 by the Soviet rocket, Cosmodrome (Soviet Union).
75. (C) 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (D)
80. (B) 81. (B) 82. (A) 83. (A) 84. (A)
85. (B) 86. (C) 87. (C) 88. (C) 89. (B)
90. (C) 91. (C) 92. (B) 93. (D) 94. (C)
95. (A) 96. (C) 97. (D) 98. (C) 99. (B)
100. (A)

RRC Chennai: Recruitment against quota

Applications are invited for recruitment in southern railway against sports quota Games & No of Posts: 1. Athletics – Men: 05 posts 2. Athletics – Women: 03 posts 3. Ball Badminton – Men: 01 post 4. Basket Ball – Women: 02 posts 5. Billiards & Snooker – Men: 02 posts 6. Body Building – Men: 02 posts 7. Cycling – Men: 01 post 8. Football – Men: 03 posts 9. Hockey – Men: 02 posts 10. Shuttle Badminton – Men: 02 posts 11. Shuttle Badminton – Women: 01 post 12. Swimming – Men: 03 posts 13. Table Tennis – Men: 01 post 14. Volley Ball – Men: 01 post 15. Volley Ball – Women: 01 post 16. Weightlifting – Men: 02 posts Age limit: The age limit is 18 to 25 years as on 01/01/2012, i.e., Sports person should have been born between 02/01/1987 and 01/01/1994. Educational qualification: Sportspersons must possess the minimum educational qualification is 10th pass or ITI or equivalent and Graduate passed. Application fee: Demand draft/Indian Postal Order (IPO) of Rs 40/- (No fee for SC/ST/ESXM/PWD and other category aspirants) drawn in favour of FA & CAO, Southern Railway, payable at Chennai. Last date for receipt of application: 13/09/2011 For more details Click here

RRB's LOCO PILOT RECRUITMENT

Railway Recruitment Boards

Indian Railways

Railway Recruitment Boards invites applications from eligible candidates for Assistant Loco-Pilot Vacancies as follows:

• Assistant Loco-Pilot, 16,595 posts(Gen-8170, SC-2695,ST-1589) , Pay Band:Rs.5,200 - 20,200.

Last date: September 12th 2011

Eligibility: ITI Diploma in Fitter,Electrician,Instrument Mechanics, Radio Mechanic and TV, Electronics Mechanic, Mechanic Motor Vehicle, Wireman, Tractor Mechanic, Diesel Mechanic, Heat Engine, Refridgeration and AC Mechanic 

or

Diploma in Electrical,Mechanical,Electronics or Automobile Engineering

Age: 18-30 Years before January 1st 2011 (5 years exemption for SC/ST, 3 Years for OBC)

Selection Process: Written Test

Application Fee: Rs.40 DD/IPO to be taken in favor of " The Assistant Secretary".

How to Apply: Completed Application in prescribed format should be sent to the below address before last date September 12th, 2011.

  Centralised Employment Notice No. 01/2011 English / Hindi and Annexure English / Hindi.

Recognised political parties in India

National

S.N.	Name
1.	Bahujan Samaj Party
2.	Bharatiya Janata Party
3.	Communist Party of India
4.	Communist Party of India (Marxist)
5.	Indian National Congress
6.	Nationalist Congress Party
7.	Rashtriya Janata Dal

State

Name	Short Form	States
Praja Rajyam Party	PRP	Andhra Pradesh
Telangana Rashtra Samithi	TRS	Andhra Pradesh
Telugu Desam Party	TDP	Andhra Pradesh
Arunachal Congress	AC	Arunachal Pradesh
All India United Democratic Front	AUDF	Assam
Asom Gana Parishad	AGP	Assam
Bodoland People's Front	BPF	Assam
Lok Jan Shakti Party	LJSP	Bihar
Janata Dal (United)	JD (U)	Bihar, Jharkhand
Maharashtrawadi Gomantak Party	MAG	Goa
Save Goa Front	SGF	Goa
Haryana Janhit Congress (BL)	HJC(BL)	Haryana
Indian National Lok Dal	INLD	Haryana
Jammu & Kashmir National Conference	JKNC	Jammu and Kashmir
Jammu & Kashmir National Panthers Party	JKNPP	Jammu and Kashmir
Jammu and Kashmir People's Democratic Party	PDP	Jammu and Kashmir
Jharkhand Vikas Morcha (Prajatantrik)	JVM(P)	Jharkhand
Jharkhand Mukti Morcha	JMM	Jharkhand, Orissa
Janata Dal (Secular)	JD (S)	Karnataka, Kerala
Kerala Congress	KEC	Kerala
Kerala Congress (Mani)	KEC (M)	Kerala
Muslim League Kerala State Committee	MUL	Kerala
Samajwadi Party	SP	Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand
Shiv Sena	SHS	Maharashtra
Manipur People's Party	MPP	Manipur
National People's Party	NPP	Manipur
United Democratic Party	UDP	Meghalaya
All India Trinamool Congress	AITC	Meghalaya, West Bengal
Mizo National Front	MDF	Mizoram
Mizoram People's Conference	MPC	Mizoram
Zoram Nationalist Party	ZNP	Mizoram
Nagaland People's Front	NPF	Nagaland
Biju Janata Dal	BJD	Orissa
Pudhucherry Munnetra Congress	PMC	Puducherry
Shiromani Akali Dal	SAD	Punjab
Sikkim Democratic Front	SDF	Sikkim
Marumalarchi Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam	MDMK	Tamil Nadu
All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam	AIADMK	Tamil Nadu, Puducherry
Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam	DMK	Tamil Nadu, Puducherry
Pattali Makkal Katchi	PMK	Tamil Nadu, Puducherry
Rashtriya Lok Dal	RLD	Uttar Pradesh
Uttarakhand Kranti Dal	UKKD	Uttarakhand
All India Forward Bloc	AIFB	West Bengal
Revolutionary Socialist Party	RSP	West Bengal

Important Days of the Year

January
1 January	New Year Day
	Road Safety Week
	Army Medical Corps Establishment Day
8 January	African National Congress Foundation Day
9 January	NRI Day
11 January	APSRTC Establishment Day
	Death anniversary of Lai Bahadur Shastri
12 January	National Youth Day (Birth day of Swami Vivekanand)
15 January	Army Day
21 January	Manipur Day
	Meghalaya Day
	Tripura Day
23 January	Desh Prem Divas
	Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose's birth anniversary
25 January	Himachal Pradesh Day
	National Tourism Day
26 January	Indian Republic Day
	Jammu & Kashmir Day
	International Customs Day
28 January	Birth anniversary of Lala Lajpat Rai
30 January	Martyr's Day, Mahatma Gandhi's Martyrdom Day
	World Leprosy Eradication Day
	Sarvodaya Day
February
2 February	National day of Srilanka
	World Wetlands Day
5 February	Kashmir Day (Organized by Pakistan)
13 February	Sarojini Naidu's Birth Anniversary
14 February	St. Valentine's Day
24 February	Central Excise Day
28 February	National Science Day
March
3 March	National Defence Day
4 March	National Security Day
8 March	International Women's Day
	Mothers Day
9 March	CISF Raising Day
12 March	Mauritius Day; Central Industrial Security Force Day
13 March	No Smoking Day
15 March	World Consumer Rights Day, World Disabled Day
16 March	National Vaccination Day
17 March	St. Patricks Day
18 March	Ordnance Factories Day (India)
19 March	World Disabled Day
21 March	World Forestry Day
	International Day for th eElimination of Racial Discrimination
22 March	World Water Day
23 March	World Meteorological Day
24 March	World TB Day
26 March	Bangladesh Liberation Day
27 March	World Stage Artists Day
31 March	Financial Year Ending
April
1 April	Orissa Day
	Fools Day
3 April	World Austism Day
5 April	National Maritime Day, International Day for Mine Awareness
7 April	World Health Day , WHO started in this day in 1948
8 April	World Tradition Day
13 April	Jallianwallah Bagh Massacre Day (1919)
14 April	B.R. Ambedkar Remembrance Day; Fire Extinguishing Day
17 April	World Haemophilia Day
18 April	World Heritage Day
21 April	Secretaries' Day, National Civil Services Day
22 April	World Earth Day
23 April	World Books and Copyright Day
	Easter Day
24 April	World Lab Animals Day
25 April	National Administrative Professionals Day
29 April	World Intellectual Property Day
May
1 May	Gujarat Statehood Day
	Workers' Day (International Labour Day) (May Day)
	Maharastra Statehood Day
3 May	International Energy Day
	International Sun Day
	World Press Freedom Day
4 May	Coal Miner's Day
5 May	World Athletics Day
7 May	National Institute of Sports Founder's Day
8 May	World Red Cross Day
9 May	World Thalassaemia Day
11 May	National Resurgence Day
	National Technology Day
12 May	International Nurses Day, World Hypertension Day
13 May	International Criminal Court Day
	National Solidarity Day
15 May	International Family Day
16 May	Sikkim Day
17 May	World Telecommunications Day
20 May	World Metrology Day
21 May	Anti Terrorism Day
22 May	International Day for Biological Diversity
24 May	Commonwealth Day
25 May	World Thyroid Day
28 May	Official Language Day
	Telugu People's Self-respect Day
29 May	International Mount Everest Day (Designated by Nepal)
30 May	Goa Statehood Day
31 May	World No Tobacco Day
June
1 June	International Children's Day, World Milk Day
3 June	World Naturist Day
4 June	International Day for Innocent Children, Victims of Aggression
5 June	World Environment Day
14 June	World Blood Donere Day
21 June	Hugging Day
	World Music Day
23 June	International Olympic Day
26 June	International Anti - Drugs Day
	International Day against Drug Abuse and illicit Trafficking
27 June	World Diabetes Day
July
1 July	Architecture Day
	Doctor's Day
	International Jokes Day
	Vana Mahotsav Week 1-7
2 July	World Sports Journalists Day
4 July	American Independence Day
6 July	World Zonnosis Day
7 July	International day of Co-Operatives
11 July	World Population Day
20 July	Man Walks on the Moon
26 July	Kargil Victory Day
August
1 August	World Breast-feeding Week
3 August	Hiroshima Day
	Liberation Day
6 August	Hiroshima Day
8 August	World Senior Citizen's Day
9 August	August Kranti Divas
	International day of Solidarity with the strugleof Women in South Africa
	International day of the world'sIndigenous People
	Nagasaki Day
	Quit India Movement Day
10 August	Dengue Prevention Day
12 August	International Youth Day
	Librarians Day
13 August	Left Hander's Day
14 August	Pakistan's Independence Day
15 August	India's Independence Day
	West Bengal Day
18 August	Day of the World's Indigenous People
19 August	World Photography Day
20 August	Sadbhavna Divas
	World Mosquito Day
24 August	Kolkata's Birth Day
	Sanskrit Day
26 August	Women's Equality Day
29 August	National Sports Day
	Sports Day (Dhyanchand's birthday)
	Telugu Language Day
30 August	Small Industry Day
September
1 September	Nutrition Week 1-7
2 September	Coconut Day
4 September	Minority Welfare Day
5 September	Teacher's Day
7 September	Forgiveness Day
8 September	International Literacy Day (UNESCO)
	World Literacy Day
10 September	Haryana Statehood Day
	Punjab Statehood Day
13 September	World Flowers Day
14 September	Hindi Day, World First Aid Day
15 September	Engineers Day
	International Day of Democracy
16 September	World Ozone Day
18 September	International Day of Peace
21 September	Biosphere Day
	World Alzheimer's Day
22 September	Girl Child Week 22-26, Rose Day (Welfare of cancer patients)
24 September	Girl Child Day
	World Heart Day
25 September	Social Justice Day
26 September	CSIR Foundation Day, Day of the Deaf
27 September	World Tourism Day
28 September	Gunners Day
October
1 October	International Day for the Elderly (UN)
	International Music Day
	National Voluntary Blood Donation Day
2 October	Gandhi Jayanti, International Non-violence Day
	Human Rights Protection Day
	Prisoner's Day
	World Ostony Day
	World Wide Life Week (2-8)
3 October	World Nature Day, World Habitat Day
4 October	International Mental Health Health Week (4-10)
	World Animal Welfare Day
	World Space Week(4-10)
5 October	World Habitat Day; World Teacher's Day
6 October	World Wildlife Day
8 October	Indian Air force Day
	Rapid Action Force Raising Day
9 October	National Postal Week(9-14)
	World Postal Day
10 October	World Disaster Reduction Day (2nd Wednes Day)
	World Mental Health Day; National Post Day
12 October	World Sight Day
13 October	World Arthritis Day
	World Calamity Control Day (UN)
14 October	World Standards Day
15 October	World White Cane Day
	World White cane day (guiding the blind)
16 October	World Anaesthesiologists Day
	World Food Day
17 October	International Poverty Eradication Day
20 October	National Solidarity Day (China attacked India on that day)
21 October	Global Iodine Deficiency Disorders Day
	Police Commemoration Day
24 October	Disarmament Week(24-30)
	United Nations Day
27 October	Infantry Day
30 October	World Thrift day
31 October	Halloween Day
	National Integration Day
November
1 November	Andhra Pradesh Formation Day
	Haryana, Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Punjab States Formation Day
5 November	International Week of Science and Peace (5-11)
7 November	Infant Protection Day; World Cancer Awareness Day
9 November	Legal Services Day
	Pravasiya Bharatiya Divas/Legal Services Day
	Uttaranchal State Formation Day
10 November	Forest Martyrs Day
	Transport Day
11 November	Armistice Day
	Education Day
12 November	National Broadcasting Day
14 November	Children's Day, World Diabetics day
	Cooperative Week
	National Book Week
	National Land Resources Conservation Week (14-20)
	National Library Week
	Universal Children's Day
	World Diabetes Day
15 November	Jharkhand State Formation Day
	New Born Week (15-21)
	Thanks Giving Day
16 November	International Day for Tolerance
	National Press Day
	Pharmacy Week (16-22)
17 November	Guru Nanak Dev's Birth Anniversary
	National Epilepsy Day
18 November	Territorial Army Day
19 November	National Integration Day, Citizen's Day
	World Heritage Week (19-25)
20 November	Universal Children's dAy (UN), Africa Industrilisation Day
21 November	World Fisheries Day
	World Hello Day
	World Television Day
25 November	International Day against Violence against Women
26 November	Law Day, National Law Day
29 November	international Day of Solidarity with Palestinian People
December
1 December	Border Security Force (BSF) Raising Day
	Nagaland Day
	World AIDS Day
2 December	International Day for Abolition of Slavery (UNO)
3 December	International Day of Disabled Persons
	World Conservation Day
4 December	Chemical Disaster Prevention Day
	Navy Day
5 December	International Volunteers Day
6 December	Armed Forces Day, Civil Defence Day
7 December	Armed Forces Flag Day
	International Civil Aviation Day
8 December	Home Guards Raising Day
	Submarine Day
9 December	National Immunization Day
10 December	Human Rights Day
	International Childrens Day of Broadcasting
11 December	UNICEF Day
12 December	Assam Rifles Raising Day
14 December	National Energy Conservation Day
16 December	Vijay Divas
17 December	Pensioner's Day
18 December	International Migrants Day
	Minorities Rights Day (India)
19 December	Goa's Liberation Day
22 December	Mathematics Day
23 December	Kisan Divas (Farmer's day)
24 December	National Consumer Day
25 December	X-Mas Day
26 December	Boxing Day
28 December	Central Reserve Police Force Anniversary
29 December	International Day for Biological Diversity
World Marriage Day: February 2nd Sunday World Kidney Day: March 2nd Thursday Commonwealth Day: March 2nd Monday World Asthma Day: May 1st Tuesday World Laughter Day: It takes place on the first Sunday in May. World Laughter Day was created in 1998 by Dr. Madan Kataria, founder of the worldwide Laughter Yoga movement. Mother's Day: May 2nd Sunday Father's Day: June 3rd Sunday International Friendship Day: August 1st Sunday World Sight Day: October 2nd Thursday

RRB GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1.	Consider the following statements : 1. Between Census 1951 and Census 2001, the density of the population of India has increased more than three times. 2. Between Census 1951 and Census 2001, the annual growth rate (exponential) of the population of India has doubled. Which of the statements given abova is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans: (d)
2.	Consider the following statements :  1. Infant mortality rate takes into account the death of infants within a month after birth.  2. Infant mortality rate is the number of infant deaths in a particular year per 100 live births during that year.  Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans: (d)
3.	Consider the following statements :  1. The National' School of Drama was set up by Sangeet Natak Akademi in 1959.  2. The highest honour conferred by the Sahitya Akademi on a writer is by electing him its Fellow.  Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans: (c)
4.	Consider the following statements :  1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up during the Prime Ministership of Lai Bahadur Shastri.  2. The Members for CAT are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams.  Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans: (b)
5.	Consider the following statements : 1. The Baglihar. Power Project had been constructed within the parameters of the Indus Water Treaty. 2. The project was completely built by the Union Government with loans from Japan and the World Bank. Which of the statements given above is/arc; correct,? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans: (a)
6.	Consider the following statements :  1. The Governor of Punjab is concurrently the Administrator of Chandigarh.  2. The Governor of Kerala is concurrently the Administrator of Lakshadweep.  Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans: (a)
7.	Consider the following statements regarding Indian Planning :  1. The Second Five-Year Plan emphasised on the establishment of heavy industries.  2. The Third Five-Year Plan introduced the concept of import substitution as a strategy for industrialisation.  Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans: (c)
8.	Consider the following statements:  1. The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices recommends the Minimum Support Prices for 32 crops.  2. The Union Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution has launched the National Food Security Mission.  Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans: (d)
9.	Which of the following countries has not made any significant investment in India? (a) Japan (b) USA (c) Nepal (d) Britain	Ans: (c)
10.	Which of the following deals between India and one major country was put on a hold for some time as India is finding difficult to implement it? (a) 123 Pact with USA (b) Fifth generation fighter plane deal with Russia (c) Heavy Water deal with Iran (d) Border talks with China	Ans: (a)
11.	Which of the following indexes is developed to measure life expectancy, level of literacy, education and standard of living of people in a country? (a) Inflation (b) Sensex (c) Human Development Index (d) SLR	Ans: (c)
12.	Which of the following is not a Public Sector Unit/Undertaking/Agency? (a) ECGC (b) SEBI (c) SIDBI (d) Axis Bank	Ans: (b)
13.	Which of the following political theories advocates the withering in a new society in which there will be no state and no classes? (a) Liberalism (b) Democratic Socialism (c) Marxism (d) Fabian Socialisn	Ans:(c)
14.	Which of the following writs is issued to a lower court or tribunal to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it does not possess? (a) Prohibition (b) Mandamus (c) Habeas Corpus (d) Certiorari	Ans: (a)
15.	Which one of the following Articles Provide "Right to Equality"? (a) Article-14 (b) Article-19 (c) Article-20 (d) Article-18	Ans:(a)
16.	Which one of the following brings out the publication called "Energy Statistics" from time to time? (a) Central Power Research Institute (b) Planning Commission (c) Power Finance Corporation Ltd. (d) Central Statistical Organization	Ans: (d)
17.	Which one of the following Constitutes limitation upon the concept of 'judicial Review' in India? (a) Rule of Law (b) Due Process (c) Procedure established by law (d) Equal Protection of law	Ans:(c)
18.	Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments states that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of (a) 90th (b) 91st (c) 92nd (d) 93rd	Ans: (b)
19.	Which one of the following is correct about the expenses of a State Public Service Commission? (a) Budget of the state (b) Public Account of the state (c) Consolidated Fund of India (d) Consolidated Fund of State	Ans:(d)
20.	Which one of the following is the proper authority to effect deprivation of some of the fundamental rights of the armed forces? (a) The Parliament of India (b) The President of India (c) The Defence Ministe (d) The Council of Ministers	Ans:(a)
21.	Which one of the following Union Ministries implements the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety? (a) Ministry of Science and Technology (b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (c) Ministry of Environment and Forests (d) Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers	Ans: (c)
22.	Which sector contributes the maximum share in National income of India? (a) Primary (b) Secondary (c) Tertiary (d) All the above have equal share	Ans:(c)
23.	Who among the following is known as the guardian of the Public Purse in India? (a) The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (b) The President (c) The Minister of Finance (d) The Parliament	Ans: (a)
24.	Who among the following is the chairman of National Commission on Farmers? (a) Sharad Pawar (b) M S Swaminathan (c) Man Mohan Singh (d) P G Bhatol	Ans:(b)
25.	Who among the following is the Chairman of the Steering Committee to oversee the functions of the National Authority, Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC)? (a) The President (b) The Prime Minister (c) The National Security Adviser (d) The Cabinet Secretary	Ans:(d)
26.	Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India? (a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) Parliament (d) Chief Justice of India	Ans: (a)
27.	Who headed the committee appointed on Kargil War? (a) Gen. V. P. Malik (b) Gen. S. K. Sinha (c) K. Subramanyam (d) K. C. Panth	Ans:(c)
28.	Who is tha following participate in the election of the president of india but not in his impeachment? (a) The nominated members of the Parliament and State Legislatures (b) The members of Rajya Sabha (c) The elected members members of the State Legislative Assemblies (d) The members of the State Legislative Councils	Ans:(c)
29.	Who is the signatory on the Indian currency notes in denomination of two rupees and above? (a) Secretary, Reserve Bank of India (b) Finance Secretary, Minister of Finance (c) Governor, Reserve Bank of India (d) Finance Minister, Ministry of Finance	Ans: (c)
30	Who presides over the joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha? (a) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha (b) The Vice-President (c) The President (d) The Union Minister of Parliamentary Affairs	Ans:(a)
31.	Who restored the Judicial Review power of Judiciary under Indian Constitution (a) High Court (b) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate (c) District Court (d) Supreme Court of India	Ans:(d)
32.	Who summons the joint sitting of the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha? (a) President (b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (c) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (d) Prime Minister	Ans: (a)
33.	With reference to I ho United Nations, consider the following statements : 1. The Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) of UN consists of 24 member States. 2. It is elected by a 2/3 majority of The General Assembly for a 3-year term. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans: (b)
34.	With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the following statements: 1. An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a degree of a civil court and no appeal lies against thereto before any court. 2. Matrimonial/Family disputes are not covered under Lok Adalat. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans: (a)
35.	With reference to the scheme launched by the Union Government, consider the following statements: 1. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched the Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana 2. Ministry of Textiles launched the Rajiv Gandhi Shilpi Swasthya Bima Yojana Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans:(b)
36.	With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India provides that all Cabinet Ministers shall be compulsorily the sitting members of Lok Sabha only. 2. The Union Cabinet Secretariat operates under the direction of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans: (d)
37.	With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements : 1. The Ministries/Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime Minister on the advice of the Cabinet Secretary. 2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans: (b)
38.	With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements : 1. The number of Ministries at the Centre on 15th August 1947 was 18. 2. The number of Ministries at the Centre at present is 36. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans: (a)
39.	With which one of the following has the B.K. Chaturvedi Committee dealt? (a) Review of Centres-States relations (b)  Review of Delimitation Act (c)  Tax reforms and measures to increase revenues (d)  Price-reforms in the oil sector	Ans: (d)
40.	India enacted an important event of Indian National Movement celebrating the seventy- fifth anniversary. Which was it? (a) Quit India Movement (b) Delhi Chalo Movement (c) Civil Disobedience Movement (d) Non – Cooperation Movement	Ans: (c)
41.	Which of the following is the economic growth percentage projected in the 11th Five Year Plan draft that was approved by the Planning Commission in November 2007? (a) 8% (b) 9% (c) 9.5% (d) 10%	Ans: (b)
42.	Liberhan Commission has been appointed to deal with which one of the following? (a) Anti-Sikh Riots, 1984 (b)Demolition of Babri Masjid (c)Godhra Incident (d) Mumbai Communal Riots	Ans: (b)
43.	Which of the following has been selected for best parliamentarian of the year award 2007? (a) Priya Ranjan Das Munshi (b) Mani Shankar Aiyyar (c) P.Chidambaram (d) Sushama Swaraj	Ans: (a)
44.	What does the 93rd Constitutional Amendment bill deal with? (a) Inclusion of Bodo, Dogri,Maithili and Santhali , languages in the Eighth  Schedule (b) Inclusion of service tax levied  by Union and collected and appropriated by the Union and the States in the Seventh Schedule (c)Free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years (d) No reservation in Panchayats need to be made in favour of Scheduled Castes in Arunachal Pradesh	Ans: (d)
46.	Consider the following statements: 1. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs constitutes Consultative Committees of Members of both the house of Parliament. 2.The main purpose of these committees is to provide a forum for formal discussions between the Government and Members of Parliament on policies and programmes of the Government. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? (a) 1 only (b)2 only (c) Both 1and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2	Ans: (c)
47.	Which of the following is the correct definition of the term commercial paper ? (1) It is nothing but the popular name of the judicial stamp papers used to register financial transactions. (2) It is one of the instrument through which corporate raise debt from the market. (3) It is the name of the “Certificate of Deposits” provided by the banks to its retail customers. (a) Only (1) (b) Only (2) (c) Only (3) (d) Both (1) & (2)	Ans: (b)
48.	Consider the following statements: 1.Union Executive consists of the President and the Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as the head. 2.The President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office. 3.Executive power of the Union is vested in the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c)2 and 3 only (d) 2 only	Ans: (c)
49.	The Govt. of India has taken a decision to open more IITs during the year 2008-09. These IITs will be in which of the following groups of States? (a) Bihar,Rajasthan,Andhra Pradesh (b) Andhra Pradesh,Orissa,Karnataka (c) Karnataka,Tamilnadu,Kerala (d) Uttar Pradesh,Madhya Pradesh,Bihar	Ans: (a)
50.	Which one of the following industries is not recommended by Investment commission as national thrust Area? (a)Tourism (b) Information Technology (c) Agro-processing (d) Textiles	Ans: (b)