RRB PARAMEDICAL EXAM Health Inspector QUESTIONS

1. For education of measles, immunization coverage should be at least
(a) 80% (b) 85% (c) 96% (d) 100%

2. Period of maximum infectivity in mumps is during
(a) incubation period (b) onset of swelling (c) after swelling appears (d)
prodromal period

3. Major epidemics of influenza A occur at intervals of
(a) 1 year (b) 2-3 years (c) 10-15 years (d) 20-25 years

4. The most common source of infection for diphtheria is a
(a) case (b) sub clinical case (c) carrier (d) all of the above

5. Shick test is done in
(a) meningitis (b) diphtheria (c) pertussis (d) polimyelitis
6. Adjuvant present in DPT vaccine is

(a) aluminium phosphate (b) aluminium hydroxide (c) zinc phosphate (d) magnesium
phosphate
7. Recommended site of administration of DPT in infants is

(a) gluteal (b) deltoid (c) lateral aspect of thigh (d) forearm
8. The most severe complications following DPT are due to …….. component

(a) diphtheria (b) pertussis (c) tetanus (d) adjuvant
9. The vaccine usually given to pilgrims to the Middle East is

(a) DPT (b) influenza (c) yellow fever (d) meningitis
10. Best index to estimate case load of T.B. in a community is

(a) incidence of infection (b) prevalence of infection (c) incidence of disease
(d) prevalence of disease
11. Prevalence of T.B. infection in a community is estimated by

(a) tuberculin test (b) sputum microscopy (c) culture (d) chest X-ray
12. The amount of PPD used in mantoux test in India is

(a) 1 TU (b) 5 TU (c) 25 TU (d) 250 TU
13. Result of mantoux test is read after

(a) 6 hours (b) 24 hours (c) 48 hours (d) 72 hours
14. Present day BCG vaccine is supplied as

(a) liquid vaccine (b) freeze dried vaccine (c) both (d) none of the above
15. The diluent used for reconstituting BCG vaccine is

(a) normal saline (b) distilled water (c) dextrose (d) none of the above
16. Reconstituted BCG vaccine should be used with in

(a) 3 hours (b) 6 hours (c) 18 hours (d) 24 hours
17. The age for BCG vaccination is recommended at

(a) birth or at 6th week (b) only 6th week (c) 6-8 weeks (d) within 1 year
18. At the village level sputum for AFB is collected and fixed by

(a) anganwadi worker (b) village health guide (c) health worker male (d) health
worker female
19. Source of most polio infections are

(a) clinical cases (b) sub clinical cases (c) carrier (d) both (b)&(c)
20. Risk factors for development of paralytic polio include

(a) 1/M injections (b) Tonsillectomy (c) DPT (d) all of the above
21. Major route of transmission of Hepatitis A is

(a) Facco oral route (b) parentral route (c) sexual transmission (d) perinatal
transmission
22. Vaccine vial monitor is present on which of these vaccines

(a) BCG (b) DPT (c) OPV (d) Measles
23. Immunity after Hepatitis A lasts for

(a) 6 months (b) 1 year (c) 6 years (d) life long
24. Following methods destroy vibrio cholerae except

(a) boiling (b) drying (c) bleaching powder 1 mg/L (d) cresol
25. Best method of collecting choleric stools for diagnosis is by

(a) rectal catheter (b) rectal swab (c) disinfected stool (d) all of the above
26. All are vaccines included under the Universal Immunization Programme
except

(a) diphtheria (b) pertussis (c) measles (d) MMR
27. The MTP act was passed in the year

(a) 1975 (b) 1971 (c) 1986 (d) 2000
28. All are Anti Rabies vaccine currently used in Kerala except

(a) chick embryo cell vaccine (b) human diploid cell vaccine (c) vero cell
vaccine (d) neural tissue vaccine
29. Annual Parasitic incidence is used to measure the problem of

(a) Filariasis (b) Dengue fever (c) Malaria (d) Japanese encephalitis
30. The causative organism of plague is

(a) Y pestis (b) R. Prowazeki (c) Coryne bacterium (d) Arbovirus
31. Which of these is a Conventional Contraceptive

(a) Combined pill (b) IUD (c) Condom (d) Mini pill
32. Which of these insecticides is used as a space spray

(a) paris green (b) abate (c) pyrethrum (d) mineral oil
33. Chemical ideally used for disinfecting sputum is

(a) cresol (b) dettol (c) savlon (d) phenol
34. Census is carried out at regular intervals of

(a) 5 years (b) 10 years (c) 7 years (d) 15 years
35. Vaccine carrier should ideally have number of ice packs

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
36. The dose of elemental iron in Folifer tablet given to pregnant women
under the RCH programme is

(a) 60 mg (b) 80 mg (c) 50 mg (d) 100 mg
37. Sanitary latrine should be located at least …. feet from source of
contamination

(a) 15 (b) 25 (c) 50 (d) 75
38. For calculating Bacterial index in Leprosy a minimum of ….. sites
should be examined

(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 9
39. Number of Tetanus toxoid doses to be given to an antenatal mother with
last child birth 2 years back is

(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) none
40. As per the Birth and Deaths Registration Act all births are to be
registered with in a period of

(a) 7 days (b) 14 days (c) 21 days (d) 1 month
41. Dengue fever is transmitted by the bite of ……. mosquito

(a) anopheles (b) aedes (c) mansonia (d) culex
42. Route of administration of BCG vaccine is

(a) intramuscular (b) intradermal (c) subcutaneous (d) intrathecal
43. Pasteurisation of milk kills all organisms except

(a) Anthrax (b) M. Tuberculosis (c) Streptococcus (d) Brucella
44. Prevalence of hook worm infection in a community is assessed by

(a) pearl index (b) breteaux index (c) chandler index (d) none of the above
45. The level of iodisation of iodised salt at the consumer level as
specified under the IDD control programme is

(a) 40 ppm (b) 30 ppm (c) 15 ppm (d) 50 ppm
46. All are steps in Primary Prevention of diseases except

(a) promotion of healthy life styles (b) good nutrition (c) immunization (d)
treatment
47. Communicability of measles declines

(a) after onset of fever (b) during prodromal period (c) at the time of eruption
(d) after appearance of rash
48. After effective chlorination of water free residual chlorine should
not be less than

(a) 0.5 mg/L (b) 1 mg/L (c) 50 mg/L (d) 200 mg/L
49. All are side effects of oral contraceptives except

(a) hypertension (b) cervical cancer risk (c) gall bladder disease (d) iron
deficiency anameia
50. World AIDS day is observed on

(a) December 1st (b) January 31st (c) May 1st (d) October 1st
51. Highest source of vitamin A is seen in

(a) Cod liver oil (b) green leafy vegetables (c) papaya (d) carrot
52. Which is a live vaccine

(a) Hepatitis B vaccine (b) Hepatitis A vaccine (c) Oral polio vaccine (d) DPT
vaccine
53. Scurvy is a deficiency disease due to

(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin D (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin B12
54. Number of sputum smears to be taken for confirmation of tuberculosis
under the Revised National Tuberculosis control

programme is

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
55. The target population under the Universal Immunization Programme is

(a) infants and antenatal mothers (b) infants (c) under fives (d) under fives
and antenatal mothers
56. RCH programme was launched in the year

(a) 1997 (b) 1992 (c) 1990 (d) 1998
57. Additional energy requirement to be supplemented for a lactating
mother is

(a) 200 calories (b) 550 calories (c) 350 calories (d) 100 calories
58. Dental caries is caused due to deficiency of

(a) Iodine (b) Iron (c) Fluorine (d) Copper
59. Most ideal equipment for vaccine storage in a PHC is

(a) domestic refrigerator (b) ice lined refrigerator (c) cold box (d) vaccine
carrier
60. Village Health Guide is present in all these states except

(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar (c) Orissa (d) Kerala
61. Route of transmission of pneumonic plague is

(a) Vector (b) Droplet (c) Formite (d) Food
62. Most simple way of data presentation to a common man is

(a) Bar chart (b) Line diagram (c) Pictogram (d) Histogram
63. The best method for operation theatre disinfection is

(a) dettol (b) phenol (c) lysol (d) fromaldehyde
64. Primary schedule of hepatitis B immunization is

(a) 0,1,6 months (b) 1,3,6 months (c) 1,2,12 months (d) 0,1,5 years
65. The control of ….. has led to the eradication of guinea worm disease

(a) mosquito (b) rat flea (c) sand fly (d) cyclops
66. The confirmatory test for paralytic poliomyelitis is a

(a) stool examination (b) CSF examination (c) blood examination (d) nerve
examination
67. The drug given to peripheral health worker under the Actute
Respiratory infection Control Programme is

(a) Tetracycline (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Doxy cycline (d) Chloroquine
68. The fitration technique in modern water treatment plant is

(a) slow sand filter (b) rapid sand filter (c) activated sludge process (d)
double pot method
69. World Health Day is observed every year on

(a) May 9th (b) July 11th (c) April 7th (d) July 1st
70. Health education technique most suited for introducing the correct use
of O.R.S. among Rural mothers is

(a) group discussion (b) flash card (c) demonstration (d) flannel graph
71. All are anti scabies preparations except

(a) BHC (b) permethrin (c) benzyl benzoate (d) malathion
72. All are tests used for bacteriological quality testing of drinking water
except

(a) multiple tube method (b) membrane filtration technique (c) colony count (d)
biological oxygen demand
73. During an epidemic of cholera, wells should be disinfected ideally

(a) Every day (b) 2 days (c) 3 days (d) 1 week
74. All are components of under five clinic except

(a) immunization (b) growth monitoring (c) oral rehydration (d) referral
treatment
75. All are true of prevention of Food Adulteration Act except

(a) prescribes minimum standards (b) is not mandatory

(c) punishment includes imprisonment (d) latest amendment was in the year 1986
76. Physical quality of life index includes all except

(a) infant mortality (b) life expectancy at age one (c) per capita GNP (d)
literacy
77. Incubation period is less than 3 days in all the following except

(a) influenza (b) cholera (c) mumps (d) staphylococcal food poisoning
78. The type of influenza virus causing epidemics every year is

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) Any one of the above
79. The incubation period of Rabies in men is determined by

(a) Site of bite (b) Severity of bite (c) Number of wounds (d) All of the above
80. Noso comial infection means

(a) infection of nose (b) hospital acquired infection (c) notifiable disease (d)
new disease
81. All of the following are mosquito borne diseases except

(a) Malaria (b) Filaria (c) Kysanur forest disease (d) Dengue fever
82. Which is not true of small pox

(a) No animal reservoir (b) No carrier stage (c) No sub-clinical infection (d)
No air borne transmission
83. ORS contains all except

(a) sodium chloride (b) potassium sulphate (c) trisodium citrate (d) glucose
84. The danger zone for bacterial growth in food is

(a) 10-49 degree C (b) 20-49 degree C (c) 10-60 degree C (d) 20-60 degree C
85. Aldehyde test is used for the diagnosis of

(a) Malaria (b) Kala Azar (c) Japanese encephalitis (d) Typhus fever
86. The period from disease initiation to disease detection in chronic
disease is called

(a) incubation period (b) serial interval (c) latent period (d) median period
87. Herd immunity does not protect an individual in

(a) Diphtheria (b) Poliomyelitis (c) Small pox (d) Tetanus
88. Vaccines which should not be frozen include

(a) Typhoid (b) DPT (c) TT (d) All of the above
89. ILR stands for

(a) Income Literacy Ratio (b) Illiteracy- Literacy Ratio

(c) Ice Lined Refrigerator (d) Infant Living Rate
90. Cold chain equipment used at out reach sites is

(a) cold box (b) vaccine carrier (c) ice pack (d) freezer
91. Most heat sensitive vaccine is

(a) BCG (b) Polio (c) Measles (d) DPT
92. Zero dose of polio vaccine means

(a) no vaccination (b) dose before first dose (c) no antibody response (d)
vaccination at mobile camps
93. Pasteurisation of milk is an example disinfection

(a) Pre current (b) Con current (c) Terminal (d) Absolute
94. Boiling for 5-10 minutes kills

(a) bacteria (b) spores (c) virus (d) none of the above
95. All of the following can be sterilized by Auto claving except

(a) gloves (b) culture media (c) plastics (d) linen
96. All are suitable for disinfection of faces and urine except

(a) 8% bleaching powder (b) 1% crude phenol (c) 5% cresol (d) 1-2% formalin
97. Ideally bed pans and urinals are sterilized using

(a) 1% cresol (b) bleaching powder (c) steam (d) all of the above
98. Sputum is best disposed by

(a) burning (b) boiling (c) 5% cresol (d) any of the above
99. Immunity conferred by an attack of small pox is for

(a) 10 years (b) 15 years (c) 20 years (d) life long
100. Which is not true regarding measles

(a) source of infection is a case (b) secondary attack rate is 80%

(c) carries do not occur (d) sub clinical measles not known
Answers:

1 B 11 A 21 A 31 C 41 B 51 A 61 B 71 D 81 C 91 B
2 A 12 A 22 B 32 C 42 A 52 C 62 C 72 D 82 C 92 B
3 D 13 C 23 A 33 A 43 B 53 C 63 D 73 A 83 B 93 A
4 B 14 B 24 D 34 B 44 C 54 C 64 A 74 D 84 C 94 D
5 A 15 A 25 A 35 D 45 C 55 C 65 D 75 B 85 B 95 C
6 C 16 B 26 C 36 C 46 D 56 B 66 A 76 D 86 A 96 D
7 C 17 A 27 B 37 D 47 D 57 B 67 B 77 C 87 B 97 B
8 D 18 A 28 C 38 C 48 A 58 C 68 A 78 B 88 D 98 C
9 C 19 C 29 A 39 C 49 A 59 B 69 C 79 D 89 C 99 D
10C 20 D 30 A 40 C 50 A 60 C 70 C 80 D 90 B 100B

R.R.B. Bangalore ASM Exam-2009

   R.R.B. Bangalore Exam-2009
Solved Paper (Based on Memory)

Correct Spelling
1.     (A) Comitment    (B) Comittment    (D)
    (C) Committment    (D) Commitment
2.     (A) Fullfil    (B) Fulfil    (B)
    (C) Fulfill    (D) Fullfill
3.     (A) Defendant    (B) Defendent    (A)
    (C) Defandent    (D) Defandant
4.     (A) Varstile    (B) Verstile    (C)
    (C) Versatile    (D) Vorstyle
5.     (A) Recomand    (B) Recommend    (B)
    (C) Reconand    (D) Recomend
6.     I always fall ……… old Friends in times of need.        (C)
    (A) over    (B) through
    (C) back on    (D) off
7.     The party decided to take the shortest…… to its destination.        (B)
    (A) root    (B) route
    (C) distance    (D) direction
8.     The girl was very pleased……… herself.    (D)
    (A) in    (B) on
    (C) over    (D) with
9.     Because of deforestation birds are……… their nerting places.        (C)
    (A) cooking    (B) conserving
    (C) searching    (D) demanding
10. The thieves broke…… the museum to steal the painting.        (D)
    (A) up    (B) side
    (C) off    (D) into
11.     Where was the battle of Plassey fought ?    (D)
    (A) Karnal    (B) Haldighati
    (C) Mysore    (D) Bengal
12.     Who was the first Vice-President of India ?
    (A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan    (A)
    (B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
    (C) C. V. Raman
    (D) Jawahar Lal Nehru
13.     What was the reason behind the mutiny of 1857 ?        (B)
    (A) Cartridge containing fat
    (B) Frustration in soldiers
    (C) Failure of British Government
    (D) Administrative research
14.     Which of the following is UHF ?    (B)
    (A) 40 MHz    (B) 400 MHz
    (C) 400 KHz    (D) 40 KHz
15.     Mass of a particle is m and its momentum is p. Its kinetic energy will be—    (D)
    (A) mp    (B) p2m
    (C) p3m    (D) p2/2m
16.    S. I. unit of power is ‘watt’. It is equivalent to which of the following ?    (C)
    (A) Kgms–2    (B) Kgm2s–2
    (C) Kgm2s–3    (D) None of these
17.     Who among the following cricketers scored the highest runs—        (C)
    (A) Brien Lara
    (B) Sanat Jaysurya
    (C) Sachin Tendulkar
    (D) Virendra Sehwag
18.     Which is the oldest Veda ?    (B)
    (A) Samveda    (B) Rigveda
    (C) Yajurveda    (D) Atharvaveda
19.     Who was the founder of Pakistan ?    (A)
    (A) Mohammad Ali Jinna
    (B) Liyaquat Ali Khan
    (C) Gaffar Khan
    (D) Benazir Bhutto
20.     Who invented television ?    (A)
    (A) J. L. Baird    (B) Lawrance
    (C) Frederick Trechithic
    (D) King Gillette
21.     Who invented wireless ?    (A)
    (A) Marconi
    (B) Charles Caterin
    (C) George Cayley
    (D) Zenobe Gramme
22.     Which of the following was the battle strategy of Shivaji against Mughals ?    (D)
    (A) Alert army
    (B) Large army
    (C) Political monopoly
    (D) Guerilla warfare
23.     Find out the next term of the series—    (A)
    1, 2, 4, 7, 11, ……
    (A) 16    (B) 12
    (C) 9    (D) 4
24.     Which of the following cities is termed as the Pink city ?        (A)
    (A) Jaipur    (B) Jodhpur
    (C) Ajmer    (D) Delhi
25.     Who wrote the Meghdoot ?    (A)
    (A) Kalidas    (B) Vatsyayan
    (C) Chanakya    (D) Premchand
26.     Find out the missing term of the series—
    11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41……    (B)
    (A) 43    (B) 47
    (C) 53    (D) 51
27.     Which of the following is a creation of Maithili-Sharan Gupta ?        (A)
    (A) Saket    (B) Urvashi
    (C) Prempachisi    (D) Gatha
28.     Which is the longest railwayline of the world ?
    (A) Trans-Siberian        (A)
    (B) Trans-Canadian
    (C) Orient Railway line
    (D) Railwayline from London to Paris
29.     Which of the following states has the highest number of voters ?        (A)
    (A) Uttar Pradesh    (B) Bihar
    (C) Rajasthan    (D) Gujarat
30.     Garaba folk dance belongs to which of the following states ?        (C)
    (A) Manipur    (B) Assam
    (C) Gujarat    (D) Orissa
    Nearest Meaning :
31.     Addicted—        (D)
    (A) wild    (B) enhaneed
    (C) sentenced    (D) incline
32.     Bewilder—        (C)
    (A) Cross    (B) Seize
    (C) Puzzle    (D) Annoy
33.     Destitute—        (B)
    (A) Sick    (B) Poor
    (C) thin    (D) Angry
34. Genteel—        (B)
    (A) Clever    (B) Polite
    (C) Hopeful    (D) Lovable
35.     Camouflage—        (D)
    (A) Deject    (B) Disappear
    (C) Drown    (D) Conceal
36.     A thing liable to be easily broken—    (C)    (A) Breakable    (B) Ductile
    (C) Brittle    (D) Delicate
37.     Animal living on land and in water—    (C)
    (A) Ambiguous    (B) Pacify
    (C) Amphibian    (D) Ambivalend
38.     One who does not care for literature or and—
    (A) Barbarian    (B) Philistine    (B)
    (C) Primitive    (D) Literate
39.     The following country is the winner of the last three world cricket coups—    (C)
    (A) Pakistan    (B) India
    (C) Australia    (D) Sri Lanka
40.     Find the odd man out—    (B)
    1, 5, 14, 30, 50, 55, 91
    (A) 5    (B) 50
    (C) 55    (D) 91
41.     Find out wrong number in each sequence—
    582, 605, 588, 611, 634, 617, 600    (A)
    (A) 634    (B) 611
    (C) 605    (D) 600
42.     A boy was asked to multiply a number by 25. He instead multiplied the number by 52 and got the answer 324 more than the correct answer. The number to be multiplied was—
    (A) 12    (B) 15    (A)
    (C) 25    (D) 32
43.     Insert the missing number—
    16, 33, 65, 131, 261, (……)    (A)
    (A) 523    (B) 521
    (C) 613    (D) 721
44.     3251 + 587 + 369 – ? = 3007    (D)    (A) 1250    (B) 1300
    (C) 1375    (D) 1200
45.     If 2 tables and 3 chairs cost Rs. 3500 and 3 tables and 2 chairs cost Rs. 4000, then how much does a table cost ?    (C)
    (A) Rs. 500    (B) Rs. 750
    (C) Rs. 1000    (D) Rs. 1500
46.     The sum of first five prime numbers is—    (D)
    (A) 11    (B) 18
    (C) 26    (D) 28
47.     Three numbers are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 and their H. C. F. is 12. The numbers are—    (D)
    (A) 4, 8, 12    (B) 5, 10, 15
    (C) 10, 20, 30    (D) 12, 24, 36
48.     Income of a company doubles after every one year. If the initial income was Rs. 4 lakhs, what would be the income after 5 years ?    (B)
    (A) Rs. 1.24 crores    (B) Rs. 1.28 crores
    (C) Rs. 2.52 crores    (D) Rs. 2.56 crores
49.     Water boils at 2120F or 1000C and melts at 320F or 00C. If the temperature of a particular day is 350C, it is equivalent to—    (C)
    (A) 850F    (B) 900F
    (C) 950F    (D) 990F
50. A Bazar has an average of 510 people on Sundays and 240 on other days. The average number of people per day in a month of 30 days beginning with a Sunday is—    (D)
    (A) 250    (B) 276
    (C) 280    (D) 285
51.     Kumar is older than Vishnu who is younger than Ashoka. Harsha is older than Anil but younger than Vishnu, Ashoka is younger than Kumar. Who is the youngest ?    (D)
    (A) Kumar    (B) Ashoka
    (C) Vishnu    (D) Anil
52.     A station director starts from the radio station Jalandhar and drives 15 km towards west, turns, left and covers another 10 km and again turns, right and covers 18 km. In which direction is he driving ?        (B)
    (A) South    (B) West
    (C) South West    (D) North West
53.     If TOM = 48 and DICK = 27, what is HARRY equal to ?        (C)
    (A) 50    (B) 44
    (C) 70    (D) 60
54.    If UNDERSTAND is coded as 3287654321,  how will START be coded ?    (D)
    (A) 56781    (B) 83243
    (C) 73652    (D) 67857
55. Foot is to hand as leg is to—    (D)    (A) Elbow    (B) Toe
    (C) Finger    (D) Arm
56.     Daughter is to father as niece is to—    (C)
    (A) Nephew    (B) Cousin
    (C) Uncle    (D) Mother
    Directions—(Q. 57–60) Read the following information and give the answers. If you start running from a point towards North and after covering 4 kms you turn to your left and run 5 km and then again turn to your left and run 5 km and then turn to left again and run another 6 km and before finishing you take another left turn and run 1 km, then answer questions based on this information—
57. How many kms are you from the place you started ?        (A)
    (A) 1 km    (B) 2 km
    (C) 3 km    (D) 4 km
58.     In which direction will you be running while finishing ?        (C)
    (A) East    (B) West
    (C) North    (D) South
59.     After taking the second turn, in which direction will you be running ?        (D)
    (A) East    (B) West
    (C) North    (D) South
60.     From the finishing point if you have to reach the point from where you started in which direction will you have to run ?    (B)
    (A) East    (B) West
    (C) North    (D) South
61.     Introducing a lady, a man said, “Her father is my mother’s only son.” How is the lady related to the man ?        (B)
    (A) Sister    (B) Daughter
    (C) Aunt    (D) Mother
62.     In which of the following years was the Indian National congress founded ?    (B)
    (A) 1805    (B) 1885
    (C) 1893    (D) 1870
63.     Choose the incorrect one—    (B)
    36, 54, 18, 27, 9, 18.5, 4.5
    (A) 18    (B) 18.5
    (C) 4.5    (D) 27
64.     Unit of which of the following has been derived from ohm’s law ?        (A)
    (A) Resistance
    (B) Current
    (C) Potential difference
    (D) All the above
65.     Ajanta caves are famous for which of the following—        (A)
    (A) Artistic painting    (B) Caves
    (C) Carving    (D) None of these
66.     Which country awards Nobel Prize ?    (A)
    (A) Sweden    (B) France
    (C) Norway    (D) Spain
67.     Who was the first Indian to be honoured with Nobel Prize ?        (B)
    (A) Mother Teresa
    (B) Rabindranath Tagore
    (C) Subhash Chandra Bose
    (D) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
68.     Which of the following is an odd number ?
    385, 462, 572, 396, 427, 671, 264    (D)
    (A) 462    (B) 396
    (C) 671    (D) 427
69.     Find out the an odd number—    (A)
    835, 734, 642, 751, 853, 981, 532
    (A) 751    (B) 853
    (C) 981    (D) 532
70.     Average of 50 numbers is 30. If two numbers 35 and 40 are deleted, what would be the average of rest numbers ?    (D)
    (A) 28.32    (B) 28.78
    (C) 29.27    (D) 29.68
71.     ITDC stands for—        (A)
    (A) Indian Trade Development Corporation
    (B) Indian Trade Defence City
    (C) Income Tax Development Corporation
    (D) Indian Trade Design Corporation
72.     Sri Harikota is famous for which of the following ?
    (A) Space programmes    (B)
    (B) Satellite launching
    (C) Nuclear Research Centre
    (D) Missile launching Centre
73.     Pointing towards a woman, a girl said, “She is the only daughter-in-law of the grandmother of my father’s son.” Who is this woman of the girl ?        (A)
    (A) Mother    (B) Aunt
    (C) Mother-in-law    (D) Sister-in-law
74.     7589 – ? = 3434        (D)
    (A) 4242    (B) 1123
    (C) 11023    (D) 4155
75.     Who was the founder of Sikh religion ?    (A)
    (A) Guru Nanak
    (B) Guru Ramdas
    (C) Guru Govind Singh
    (D) Guru Arjundev
76.     Chanakya was the Prime, Minister of which of the following emperors ?    (A)
    (A) Chandragupta Maurya
    (B) Chandragupta II
    (C) Ashok
    (D) Bimbisar
77.     L.C.M. of two numbers is 4284 and their H.C.F. is 34. One of these two numbers is 204, then what is second number ?    (A)
    (A) 714    (B) 720
    (C) 700    (D) 715
78.     Which of the following is odd ?    (A)
    – 3, 9, 21, 34, 45, 57
    (A) 34    (B) 57
    (C) 21    (D) – 3
79.     What is full form of INTERPOL ?    (A)
    (A) International Police Organization
    (B) International Public Organization
    (C) Indian Police Organization
    (D) Indian Police Office

R.R.B. Asst. Station Master Exam-2008

R.R.B. Asst. Station Master  Exam-2008  Solved Paper

 
1.     When a ray of light passes from an optically denser medium to a rarer medium, it
    (a) Remains undeviated
    (b) Bends towards normal
    (c) Bends away from normal
    (d) None of these
2.    Who is the author of “Anandmath” ?
    (a) Rabindranath Tagore
    (b) Bankim chandra Chattopadhyaya
    (c) Sarojini Nayadu
    (d) Jyotiba Phule
3.     Thimpu is the capital of -
    (a) Nepal     (b) Bhutan
    (c) Thailand     (d) Myanmar
4.     The time period of a seconds pendulum is
    (a) 1 second     (b) 4 seconds
    (c) 3 seconds     (d) 2 seconds
5.     The nuclear fuel in the sun is
    (a) Helium     (b) Uranium
    (c) Hydrogen     (d) Oxygen
6.     The second’s hand of a watch is 2 cm long. The velocity of its tip is
    (a) 0.21 cm/sec.     (b) 2.1 cm/sec.
    (c) 21 cm/sec.     (d) None of these
7.     In diesel engine, ignition is caused by
    (a) Spark     (b) Automatic starter
    (c) Compression     (d) Friction
8.     The mass-energy equivalence, relationship E = mc2 was propounded by
    (a) Max Plank     (b) Einstein
    (c) Newton     (d) Hertz
9.     The filament of bulb is made of
    (a) Tungsten     (b) Iron
    (c) Nichrome     (d) Carbon
10. Anti-knocking can be lessened by
    (a) Iso Octane     (b) N Heptane
    (c) TEL     (d) Benzene
11. In which of the following oxidation shows a positive oxidation state.
    (a) CO     (b) N2O
    (c) NO     (d) F2O
12. Which of the following is used in photography?
    (a) Silver Bromide
    (b) Sodium Bromide
    (c) Potassium Chloride
    (d) Sodium Sulphate
13. Which of the following is used in accumulator cell?
    (a) Copper     (b) Iron
    (c) Lead     (d) Zinc
14.     Choose the wrong statement :
    (a) Single magnetic poles can exist
    (b) Magnetic poles are always of equal strength
    (c) Like poles repel each other
    (d) None of these
15. Laws of electrolysis are given by:
    (a) Farady     (b) Maxwell
    (c) Lenz     (d) Bohr
16. Flemings left hand rule is used to fine out:
    (a) Direction of magnetic field due to flow of current
    (b) Direction of induced current due to effect of magnetic field
    (c) Direction of motion of a current carrying conductor in magnetic field
    (d) None of these
17. The pH of a neutral solution at 250C is :
    (a) 0     (b) 1.0
    (c) 7.0     (d) 1.4
18. The raw material used for the manufacture of Portland cement is :
    (a) Limestone and clay
    (b) Alumina, clay and gypsum
    (c) Gypsum and limestone
    (d) Gypsum and clay
19.     CaOCI2 is the chemical formula for a compound commonly known as :
    (a) Soda Ash     (b) Lime
    (c) Bleaching Powder     (d) Plaster of Paris
20. The glass used for making laboratory apparatus is :(a) Pyrex glass     (b) Hard glass
    (c) Soft glass     (d) Safety glass
21. The iron produced in blast furnace is :
    (a) Pig iron     (b) Wrought iron
    (c) Stainless steel     (d) Steel
22. Formation is a 40% solution of :
    (a) Methanol     (b) Methenal
    (c) Methanoic acid     (d) None of these
23.     Which of the following is not an ore of aluminium :
    (a) Cryolite     (b) Feldspar
    (c) Bauxite     (d) Azurite
24. Rhombic monoclinic and plastic sulphur are:
    (a) Isomers     (b) Isotopes
    (c) Allotropes     (d) Hydrides of sulphur
25.     The alkaline hydrolysis of oils or fats gives soap and :
    (a) Glycerol     (b) Ethenol
    (c) Glycol     (d) Ethanoic acid
26. The sight of a delicious food usually makes month watery. It is a :
    (a) Hormonal response    
    (b) Neural response
    (c) Optic response
    (d) Olfactory response
27. Nitrogen fixing bacteria are normally found in :
    (a) Parasitic plants     (b) Epiphytic plants
    (c) Leguminous plants     (d) Aquatic plants
28. Powdery mildew of wheat is caused by:
    (a) Bacteria     (b) Virus
    (c) Fungi     (d) Protozoans
29. Septic sore throat is caused by :
    (a) Bacteria     (b) Virus
    (c) Fungi     (d) Protozoans
30. A person of blood group AB can give blood to :
    (a) ‘A’ and ‘B’     (b) Only ‘AB’
    (c) ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘O’     (d) All of these
31. Cell activities are controlled by :
    (a) Chloroplast     (b) Nitochondria
    (c) Cytoplasm     (d) Nucleus
32. Which of the following helps eye to adjust the focal length of the eye lens :
    (a) Cornea     (b) Conjunctiva
    (c) Ciliary body     (d) Iris
33. When pollen of a flower is transferred to the stigma of the same plant, pollination type is referred to as :
    (a) Autogamy     (b) Allogamy
    (c) Xenogamy     (d) Geitonogamy
34. Respiration is a :
    (a) Catabolic process     (b) Anabolic process
    (c) Both of these     (d) None of these
35. The structural and functional unit of kidneys are :
    (a) Neurons     (b) Nephrons
    (c) Medula     (d) None of these
36. Which of the following enzymes is generally nor present in adult human :
    (a) Renin     (b) Pepsin
    (c) Trypsin     (d) Amylopsin
37. The part of the plant which is responsible for carrying water and solutes from roots to various parts of plants is :
    (a) Phloem     (b) Xylem
    (c) Duodenum     (d) Sclercids
38. ‘Widal test’ is used for susceptibility of :
    (a) Malaria     (b) Typhoid
    (c) Cholera     (d) Yellow fever
39. Exchange of gases in plants takes place through :
    (a) Stomata     (b) Lenticels
    (c) Cuticle     (d) All of these
40. ‘Lieutenant’ in army is equivalent to following rank in navy :
    (a) Lieutenant    
    (b) Sub Lieutanant
    (c) Lieutenant Commander
    (d) None of these
41. Pankaj Advani is associated with :
    (a) Snooker     (b) Golf
    (c) Shooting     (d) Archery
42. Which city in the world is known as the forbidden city :
    (a) Aberdeen     (b) Jerusalem
    (c) Mecca     (d) Lhasa
43.     Rajeev Gandhi Khel Ratna Award carries a sum of :
    (a) Rs. 3 lakns     (b) Rs. 5 lakhs
    (c) Rs. 1 lakh     (d) Rs. 7 lakhs
44. Who is known as ‘Nightingale of India’ :
    (a) Asha Bhonsle     (b) Begum Akhtar
    (c) Sarojini Naidu     (d) Vijaylaxmi Pandit
45. Which one of the following is not included in the UNESCO’s list of world heritage site :
    (a) Kaziranga National Park         (b) Qutab Minar
    (c) Champaner Pavagarh         (d) None of these
46. Which of the following is not an electric resistant?
    (a) Lead     (b) Ebonite
    (c) Charcoal     (d) Lac
47. Which of the following is a complementary colour?
    (a) Blue     (b) Yellow
    (c) Magenta     (d) Yellow and Magenta
48. The velocity of sound increases in air by ……… for every degree Celsius increase of temperature.
    (a) 60 m/sec.     (b) 0.61 m/sec.
    (c) 60 ft/sec.     (d) 0.61 km/sec.
49. Henry is a unit of
    (a) Capacity     (b) Magnetic field
    (c) Inductance     (d) Frequency
50. The velocity of rotation of Earth is
    (a) 28 km/min     (b) 30 km/min
    (c) 25 km/min     (d) 39.5 km/min
51. What is Hubble?
    (a) Warship     (b) Star
    (c) Telescope     (d) Missile
52. Which acid is normally found in lemon and grape fruits?
    (a) Citric acid     (b) Tartaric acid
    (c) Ascorbic acid     (d) Lactic acid
53.     At which temperature Fahrenheit and Celsius show same reading?
    (a) -400     (b) 00
    (c) -574.250     (d) 2730
54.     Limestone is metamorphosed to form
    (a) Graphite     (b) Quartz
    (c) Granite     (d) Marble
55.     Rift valley is formed by
    (a) Earthquake     (b) Folding
    (c) Faulting     (d) All of these
56. If a piece of ice at 00C is mixed with water at 00C, then
    (a) Whole ice melts     (b) Some ice melts
    (c) No ice melts    
    (d) Temperature decreases
57. Mettur Dam is built on the river
    (a) Krishna     (b) Cauvery
    (c) Narmada     (d) Mahanadi
58. Mahendra Giri peak is situated in the
    (a) Eastern Ghats     (b) Western Ghats
    (c) Shiwaliks     (d) Vindhyachal
59. In what time a sum will double itself at 20% per annum rate of interest?
    (a) 2 years     (b) 3 years
    (c) 4 years     (d) 5 years
60. The famous Dilwara Temple is situated in
    (a) Madhya Pradesh     (b) Maharashtra
    (c) Gujarat     (d) Rajasthan
61. Pneumonia affects
    (a) Lungs     (b) Tongue
    (c) Liver     (d) Kidney
62. The chemical name of Vitamin A is
    (a) Retinol     (b) Jhiamin
    (c) Biotic     (d) Riboflavin
63. A 130m long train crosses a bridge in 30 seconds at 45 kmph. The length of the bridge is
    (a) 200m     (b) 225m
    (c) 245m     (d) 250m
64. By selling an article at some price a person gains 10%. If the article is sold at twice of the price, the gain percent will be
    (a) 20%     (b) 60%
    (c) 100%     (d) 120%
65. Atoms are electrically charged as
    (a) Positive     (b) Negative
    (c) Bi-positive     (d) Neutral
66. Ionic bond exists in
    (a) Kcl     (b) H2O
    (c) NH3     (d) Cl3
67. Which force is required to increase the momentum of an object to 40 kg m/s in 5 seconds?
    (a) 2N     (b) 4N
    (c) 8N     (d) 10N
68. The river that does not form delta is
    (a) Mahanadi     (b) Tapti
    (c) Krishna     (d) Cauvery
69. The ratio of the redius and height of a cone is 5 : 12, respectively. Its volume is 23147cc. Find its slant height.
    (a) 13cm     (b) 14cm
    (c) 17cm     (d) 26cm
70. 27 students took part in a debate of a college. What is the probability that at least 3 of them have their birth days in the same month?
    (a) 3/27     (b) 3/12
    (c) 12     (d) 1
71. Who was the first winner of Dada Saheb Phalke Award?
    (a) B.N.Sarkar     (b) Prithvi Raj Kapoor
    (c) Devika Rani     (d) Kanan Devi
72. How many members are nominated by the President in the Rajya Sabha?
    (a) 12     (b) 15
    (c) 10     (d) 20
73. Who was the founder of Brahmo Samaj?
    (a) Raja Rammohan Roy
    (b) Aurobindo Ghosh
    (c) Vivekanand
    (d) Dyanand Saraswati
74. The Parliamentary System in India has been taken from
    (a) America     (b) Britain
    (c) Australia     (d) Ireland
75. The electric supply in India was first started in
    (a) Kolkata     (b) Chennai
    (c) Mumbai     (d) Darjeeling
76. Bhatnagar Prize is given in the field of
    (a) Peace    
    (b) Music and dance
    (c) Science & technology         (d) Fine arts
77. Who discovered the solar system?
    (a) Copernicus     (b) Kepler
    (c) Aryabhatta     (d) Newton
78. The Nobel Prize in Economics was started in
    (a) 1901     (b) 1936
    (c) 1957     (d) 1967
79. In India, the second largest in
    (a) Bengali     (b) Urdu
    (c) Telugu     (d) Marathi
80. The first Asian Games were held in
    (a) Manila     (b) Tokyo
    (c) Jakarta     (d) New Delhi
81. The Islam was established in
    (a) 7th A.D.     (b) 5th A.D.
    (c) 3rd B.C.     (d) 5th B.C.
82. The Olympic Games 2012 will be held in
    (a) Moscow     (b) Paris
    (c) New York     (d) London
83. The main factor of air pollution is
    (a) Lead     (b) Copper
    (c) Zinc     (d) Gold
84. The bauxite ore is found in
    (a) Musabani     (b) Karnapura
    (c) Koderma     (d) Palamu
85. The first fertilizer plant in India was established in
    (a) Trombay     (b) Nangal
    (c) Alwaye     (d) Sindri
86. Which of the following had strong navy?
    (a) Bahmani     (b) Chalukya
    (c) Chola     (d) Rashtrakuta
87. The last king of Maurya Dynastry was
    (a) Brihdarth     (b) Kunal
    (c) Samprati     (d) Salishuk
88.     How will the image formed by a convex lens be affected if the central part of the lens is covered by black paper?
    (a) Remaining part of the lens will form no image
    (b) The central position of the image is absent
    (c) There will be no effect
    (d) The full image will be formed with lessened brightness
89. The force between two parallel wires conducting current is used to define
    (a) Ampere     (b) Coulomb
    (c) Volt     (d) Newton
90. A body is thrown vertically upward and it reaches 10m high. Find the velocity with which the body was thrown? (g = 9.8 m/s)
    (a) 10 m/sec.     (b) 18 m/sec.
    (c) 14 m/sec.     (d) 7 m/sec.
91. The buoyancy depends on the
    (a) Depth of the fluid
    (b) Density of the fluid
    (c) Volume of the fluid
    (d) Weight of the fluid


ANSWERS

1. (c)     2. (b)     3. (b)     4. (d)     5. (c)    6. (a)     7. (c)     8. (b)     9. (a)     10. (a)     11. (d)     12. (a)    13. (c)     14. (a)     15. (a)
16. (c)     17. (c)     18. (b)     19. (c)     20. (a)     21. (a)     22. (b)     23. (d)    24. (c)     25. (a)     26. (d)     27. (c)     28. (c)     29. (a)     30. (b)     31. (d)     32. (c)     33. (a)     34. (a)    35. (b)     36. (a)     37. (b)     38. (b)     39. (d)     40. (b)    41. (a)     42. (d)     43. (b)     44. (c)     45. (d)     46. (a)    47. (d)     48. (b)     49. (c)     50. (a)     51. (c)     52. (a)     53. (a)     54. (d)     55. (c)     56. (c)     57. (b)     58. (a)    59. (d)     60. (d)     61. (a)     62. (a)     63. (c)     64. (d)     65. (d)     66. (a)     67. (c)     68. (b)     69. (a)     70. (c)
71. (c)     72. (a)     73. (a)     74. (b)     75. (d)    76. (c)     77. (a)     78. (d)     79. (c)     80. (d)    81. (a)     82. (d)    83. (a)     84. (d)     85. (d)     86. (c)     87. (a)     88. (d)     89. (a)     90. (c)     91. (b)

R.R.B. Chandigarh ASM Exam-2007

R.R.B. Chandigarh ASM  Exam-2007
Solved Paper (Based on Memory)

1.     If x means “, ÷ means +, + means ÷, “ means x then find the value of 13 “ 12 ÷ 400 + 20 x 100
    (a) 1/760    (b) 76
    (c) 176     (d) 186
2.     If the numbers divisible by 3 between 14 and 55 (both inclusive) and the numbers with 3 at unit’s place of them are removed then how may numbers will remain?
    (a) 24     (b) 23
    (c) 22     (d) 25
3.     A trader told his servant Shambhu that he left for his home from the shop after every 2 : 40 hours. I left for home 55 minutes earlier and for the next time I will leave for home from my shop at 8 :15 p.m. At which time did I inform my servant?
    (a) 6 : 30     (b) 6 : 00
    (c) 6 : 15     (d) 4 : 20
4.     Nivedita stops to walk after covering a distance of 10 km to the west. She then turns to the right and walks 8 km. Again she walks 4 km to the right. How far is she from her office?
    (a) 18 km     (b) 8 km
    (c) 16 km     (d) 10 km
5.     Karishma is taller than Kajal. Kajal is taller than Vimal. Ankita is taller than Kajan and Vimal. Which is the tallest?
    (a) Karishma     (b) Kajal
    (c) Ankita     (d) None of these
6.     Radha and Saroj are ranked 10th and 16th respectively in a class of 37 students. What will be their ranks from the bottom in the class?
    (a) 28th, 22nd     (b) 27th, 21st
    (c) 28th, 20th     (d) 27th, 22nd
7.     If ‘A’=26, and SUN = 27, then CAT?
    (a) 24     (b) 57
    (c) 58     (d) 27
8.     A number when divided by three consecutive numbers 9, 11, 13 leaves the remainders 8, 9 and 8 respectively. If the order of divisors is reversed, the remainders will be:
    (a) 8, 9, 8     (b) 9, 8, 8
    (c) 10, 1, 6     (d) 10, 8, 9
9.     Find the multiple of 11 in the following numbers?
    (a) 978626     (b) 112144
    (c) 447355     (d) 869756
10.     Four prime numbers are arranged in ascending order. The product of first three is 385 and that of last three is 1001. The largest prime number is:
    (a) 11     (b) 13
    (c) 17     (d) 9
11.     On dividing a number by 19, the difference between quotient and remainder is 9. The number is:
    (a) 370     (b) 352
    (c) 361     (d) 371
12.     Mohan engaged a servant on the condition that he would pay him Rs. 200 and a uniform after 10 days. The servant served only for 5 days and got Rs. 20 and a uniform. Find the price of the uniform.
    (a) Rs. 80     (b) Rs. 120
    (c) Rs. 140     (d) Rs. 160
13.     If you subtract – 1 from + 1, what will be the result?
    (a) 2     (b) -2
    (c) 0     (d) 1
14.    Find the value of 50 × 8.
    (a) 40     (b) 200
    (c) 8     (d) 0
15.     One litre of water is evaporated from a 6 litre solution containing 4% sugar. The percentage of sugar in the remaining solution is:
    (a) 24/5 %     (b) 4 %
    (c) 3 %     (d) 10/3 %
16.     When water is changed into ice, its volume increases by 9%. If ice changes into water, the percentage decrease in volume is:
    (a) 9%     (b) 10%
    (c) 18%     (d) 900/ 109 %
17.     A watch becomes fast by 5 minutes every day. By what per cent does it become fast?
    (a) 50/144 %    (b) 5%
    (c) 1/12 %    (d) 5/24 %
18.     A bag contains 25 paise. 10 paise and 5 paise coins in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. If their total value is Rs. 30, the number of 5 paise coins is:
    (a) 50     (b) 100
    (c) 150     (d) 200
19.     The temperature of a place increases uniformly from 210C to 380C from 9 am to 2 pm. What was the temperature at noon?
    (a) 28.50C     (b) 270C
    (c) 300C     (d) 320C
20.     If 5 men or 9 women can do a piece of work in 19 days; 3 men and 6 women will do the same work in:
    (a) 10 days     (b) 15 days
    (c) 12 days     (d) 7 days
21.     Total area of 64 small squares of a chess board is 400cm2. There is 3 cm wide border around the chess board. What is the length of the side of the chess board?
    (a) 17 cm     (b) 20 cm
    (c) 26 cm     (d) 23 cm
22.     If the radius of a circle is increased to 3 times. Then how many times will its circumference be increased?
    (a) 2 times     (b) 1/3 times
    (c) 9 times     (d) 3 times
23.     A passenger train runs at the rate of 80 kmph. It starts from the station at some time. After 6 hours a goods trains leaves the station. The passenger train overtakes the goods train after 4 hours. The speed of goods train is:
    (a) 32 km/h     (b) 50 km/h
    (c) 45 km/h     (d) 64 km/h
24.     A boat takes half time in moving a certain distance downstream than upstream. What is ratio between rate in still water and rate of current?
    (a) 1 : 2     (b) 3 : 1
    (c) 2 : 1     (d) 1 : 3
25.     Two pipes can fill a cistern in 6 minutes and 7 minutes respectively. Both the pipes are opened alternately for 1 minute each. In what time will they fill the cistern?
    (a) 5 minutes     (b) 17/3 times
    (c) 45/7 minutes     (d) 5/4 minutes
26.     Find the value of 0.0016
    (a) 0.4     (b) 0.04
    (c) 0.8     (d) 4
27.     By what number must 32 be multiplied to make it a perfect square?
    (a) 4     (b) 3
    (c) 5     (d) 2
    Directions (28-30): Fill up the blanks with the appropriate words.
28.     Mr. Jagdish is confident _________ his success.
    (a) about     (b) of
    (c) for     (d) regarding
29. He persisted _________ doing things in a manner in which he had been doing them.
    (a) on     (b) at
    (c) about     (d) in
30.     An exhibition _________ the new trends in computer education was held in Delhi.
    (a) into     (b) for
    (c) of     (d) on
    Directions (31-35): In the following questions choose the word that can be substituted for the given words.
31.     A disease which spreads by contact
    (a) infection     (b) contagious
    (c) contiguous     (d) uxoring
32.     A science which studies insects
    (a) Entomology     (b) Epistemology
    (c) Entymology     (d) Biology
33.     That which cann’t be corrected
    (a) Ineligible     (b) Ineluctable
    (c) Insortable     (d) Incorrigible
34.     One who believes easily
    (a) sedulous     (b) credible
    (c) assiduous     (d) credulous
35.     A speech made for first time
    (a) simultaneous     (b) drawn
    (c) extempore     (d) maiden
    Direction (36-39): Write word which is most opposite in meaning of the given word.
36.     Obstinate
    (a) Hoary     (b) Amenable
    (c) Tenable     (d) Tender
37.     Pernicious
    (a) Salutary     (b) Recondite
    (c) Innocuous     (d) Disastrous
38.     Radical
    (a) Singular     (b) Unusual
    (c) Normal     (d) Conservative
39.     Mention
    (a) Impart     (b) Observe
    (c) Attend     (d) Conceal
    Direction (40-42): Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the word.
40.     Sedentary
    (a) Material     (b) Sluggish
    (c) Slash     (d) Mischief
41.     Pertinacious
    (a) Stubborn     (b) Tremulous
    (c) Stupid     (d) Stingy
42.     Gregarious
    (a) Clumsy     (b) Pugnacious
    (c) Turbulent     (d) Saciable
43. In Rajasthan, Mount Abu, famous for Jain temples is known for:
    (a) Abu temple (b) Ranakpura temple
    (c) Dilwara temple (d) Marble temple
44.     The United Nations Organisation was formed on:
    (a) October 20, 1945 (b) November 11, 1944
    (c) October 24, 1945 (d) June 26, 1946
45.     In Vedic literature the meaning of the word ‘Nishk’ was ornament. It was used in Artharva Veda as:
    (a) Weapon
    (b) Agricultural implements
    (c) Script
    (d) Coin
46.     The executive in India is directly responsible to the:
    (a) President     (b) Judiciary
    (c) People     (d) Legislature
47.     The major producer of copper is:
    (a) Kerala     (b) Rajasthan
    (c) Orissa     (d) Madhya Pradesh
48.     Boys scout and Girls Guide movements were formed by:
    (a) Charles Andies     (b) General Ramphel
    (c) John Quat     (d) Weden Powel
49.     In history the Chola rulers are famous for which type of administration?
    (a) Central     (b) Urban
    (c) State
    (d) Village administration
50.     Chanakya was known by the name:
    (a) Samudragupta     (b) Vishnugupta
    (c) Shrigupta     (d) None of these
51.     The largest reserve of crude oil is in the country:
    (a) Iran     (b) Iraq
    (c) Saudi Arab     (d) Kuwait
52.     The Jainism propounded the complete knowledge as:
    (a) Jin     (b) Ratna
    (c) Kaivalya     (d) Nirvana
53.     The rotational motion of earth is maximum at the:
    (a) North pole     (b) Tropic of Capricorn
    (c) Equator     (d) Tropic of cancer
54.     Silicon dioxide is used in:
    (a) Cement production
    (b) Cutting hard precious metals
    (c) Glass manufacture
    (d) None of these
55.     In which of the following chemical energy is converted into electrical energy?
    (a) Dynamo     (b) Thermopile
    (c) Battery     (d) Atom bomb
56.     If the atmosphere is removed from the earth:
    (a) Day will lengthen
    (b) Night will lengthen
    (c) Both will remain same
    (d) Both will be equal
57.     In Kushana period the maximum development was observed in the field of:
    (a) Religion     (b) Art
    (c) Literature     (d) Architecture
58.     In rice production Indic is ranked in the world
    (a) First     (b) Second
    (c) Third     (d) Fourth
59.     The brightest star in the sky is:
    (a) Proxima Centauri     (b) Bernard
    (c) Nebula     (d) Cirius
60.     The number of permanent member nations in the UN Security Council is:
    (a) 10     (b) 5
    (c) 7     (d) 15
61.     From which mine diamond is extracted?
    (a) Panna     (b) Golkunda
    (c) Jaipur     (d) None of these
62.     Like Poland in Europe which state in India is large?
    (a) Bihar     (b) Orissa
    (c) Madhya Pradesh     (d) Maharashtra
63.     The capital of Vijayanager empire. Hampi was situated on the bank of the river:
    (a) Krishna     (b) Pennar
    (c) Tungbhadra     (d) Godavari
64.     The land shape formed at the drainage site of the Chanbal river is:
    (a) Ramp     (b) Rift
    (c) Delta     (d) None of these
65.     Which of the following rivers passes through Himachal Pradesh?
    (a) Sutlej     (b) Jhelum
    (c) Ravi     (d) Chenab
66.     Rigmies are related to:
    (a) Asia     (b) Europe
    (c) Africa     (d) America
67.     Mettur dam is situated on the river:
    (a) Krishna     (b) Cauvery
    (c) Narmada     (d) Mahanadi
68.     Most abundant element in maximum rocks is:
    (a) Silicon     (b) Carbon
    (c) Iron     (d) None of these
69.     The old name of African country Ghana is:
    (a) Abisinia     (b) Congo
    (c) Gold Coast     (d) Tanganika
70.     Who first deciphered the Ashokan inscriptions?
    (a) James Princep     (b) James Williams
    (c) John Munro     (d) None of these
71.     The foundation of Indian Vedanta philosophy is:
    (a) Ram Charit Manas     (b) Mahabharat
    (c) Puranas     (d) Upanishad
72.     In which Satyagraha movement of Mahatma Gandhi women participated most?
    (a) Quit India     (b) Non-cooperation
    (c) Salt     (d) Bardoli
73.     The noble gas is:
    (a) Helium     (b) Oxygen
    (c) Nitrogen     (d) Hydrogen
74.     In which part of the Constitution, the separation of executive and judiciary has been described?
    (a) Preamble
    (b) Fundamental rights
    (c) Directive principles of state policy
    (d) Seventh schedule
75.     Who administers the Union Territory?
    (a) Council of Ministers
    (b) Governor
    (c) Former Governor
    (d) President
76.     The spherical shape of rain drops is due to:
    (a) Surface tension    
    (b) Viscosity
    (c) Gravity
    (d) Atmospheric pressure
77.     Which is not an electric resistant?
    (a) Lac     (b) Glass
    (c) Charcoal     (d) Ebonite
78.     The first black Nobel prize winner of literature in the world is:
    (a) Tom Morrison     (b) Luther King
    (c) John King     (d) None of these
79.     Which of the following planets has the highest period of revolution around the sun?
    (a) Mercury     (b) Earth
    (c) Mars     (d) None of these
80.     The headquarter of Asian Development Bank is in:
    (a) Geneva     (b) Manila
    (c) Bangkok     (d) Jakarta
81.     Which of the following elements is found in free state?
    (a) Iodine     (b) Magnesium
    (c) Sulphur     (d) Phosphorus
82.     In which disease blood does not clot?
    (a) Thrombosis     (b) Haemophilia
    (c) Pneumonia     (d) None of these
83.     The Ajanta caves are situated in:
    (a) Maharashtra     (b) Madhya Pradesh
    (c) Tamil Nadu     (d) None of these
84.     National Codet Corps was established in:
    (a) 1948     (b) 1946
    (c) 1947     (d) 1950
85.     The first Yoga University was established at:
    (a) Bodh Gaya     (b) Mumbai
    (c) Monghyr     (d) Kolkata
86.     The biggest glacier of India is:
    (a) Siachin     (b) Yamanotri
    (c) Chunhari     (d) Gangotri
87.     The number of schedules in Indian Constitution is:
    (a) 11     (b) 12
    (c) 13     (d) None of these
88.     The Commonwealth games were recently held in:
    (a) Britain     (b) Canada
    (c) Australia     (d) India
89.     Which of the following did not come to India?
    (a) Megasthanese     (b) Columbus
    (c) Vasco De Gama     (d) Fahein
90.     Double fault is related to:
    (a) Footbal     (b) Rugby
    (c) Tennis     (d) None of these
91.     Which of the following countries is the biggest producer of milk?
    (a) Pakistan     (b) Australia
    (c) America     (d) India
92.     Who is the Indian Mass Universe 2006 in india?
    (a) Neha Kapoor    (b) Neha Dhupia
    (c) Priyanka Sud     (d) None of these
93.     CTPN : DSQM : : MUSK?
    (a) NUTL     (b) NTTJ
    (c) NTTL     (d) LTRS
94.     LO : PK : : IT : ?
    (a) GT     (b) SH
    (c) MN     (d) FU
95. Which of these is the largest railway zone?
    (a) Central Railway
    (b) Southern Railway
    (c) Eastern Railway
    (d) Northern Railway


Answers


1. (b)     2. (d)     3. (a)     4. (d)     5. (d)
6. (a)     7. (b)     8. (c)     9. (a)     10. (b)
11. (d)     12. (d)     13. (a)     14. (c)     15. (a)     16. (d)     17. (a)     18. (c)     19. (d)     20. (b)
21. (c)     22. (d)     23. (a)     24. (b)     25. (c)
26. (b)     27. (d)     28. (b)     29. (a)     30. (c)
31. (b)     32. (a)     33. (d)     34. (d)     35. (d)
36. (c)     37. (c)     38. (d)     39. (d)     40. (b)
41. (a)     42. (d)     43. (c)     44. (c)     45. (d)
46. (d)     47. (b)     48. (d)     49. (d)     50. (b)
51. (c)     52. (c)     53. (a)     54. (c)     55. (c)
56. (c)     57. (b)     58. (d)     59. (a)     60. (b)
61. (a)     62. (c)     63. (c)     64. (a)     65. (d)    
66. (c)     67. (b)     68. (a)     69. (c)     70. (a)
71. (d)     72. (a)     73. (a)     74. (d)     75. (d)
76. (a)     77. (c)     78. (a)     79. (d)     80. (b)
81. (c)    82. (b)     83. (a)     84. (a)     85. (c)
86. (a)     87. (b)     88. (c)     89. (b)     90. (c)
91. (d)     92. (a)     93. (b)     94. (c)     95 (d)

RRB TECHNICAL EXAM PREVIOUS PAPER

1. When was the first underground railway (Metro Railway) started?
(a) 1982 (b) 1989 (c) 1984 (d) 1992
Answer: C
2. Shatabdi Express train was started in
(a) 1984 (b) 1988 (c) 1990 (d) 1985
Answer: B
3. At which of the following places Diesel Component Works is established?
(a) Jamshedpur (b) Patiala (c) Perambur (d) Varanasi
Answer: B
4. Which Zone is the largest in Indian Railways?
(a) Central Railway (b) Northern Railway (c) Eastern Railway (d) Western Railway
Answer: C
5. The railway station situated in the extreme south is
(a) Chennai (b) Cochin (c) Kanyakumari (d) Trivandrum
Answer: C
6. A platform surrounded by rail lines from all the four sides, is called
(a) dock platform (b) passenger platform (c) island platform (d) goods platform
Answer: C
7. When was the nationalization of Indian Railways done?
(a) 1952 (b) 1950 (c) 1951 (d) 1954
Answer: B
8. In which year Research, Design and Standard organization was established?
(a) 1954 (b) 1957 (c) 1959 (d) 1967
Answer: B
9. Railway Staff College is situated at
(a) Bangalore (b) Secundrabad (c) Chennai (d) Vadodara
Answer: D
10. Where is the Research, Design and Standard Organisation situated?
(a) Lucknow (b) Bangalore (c) Pune (d) New Delhi
Answer: A
11. Which is the following pairs of regional Railways and their headquarters not true?
(a) South-Central Railway – Secunderabad
(b) Central railway – Bhopal
(c) South Railway – Chennai
(d) North Railway – New Delhi
Answer: B
12. Between which of the destinations the first Indian train was started?
(a) From Calcutta to Delhi (b) From Mumbai to Thane
(c) From Mumbai to Surat (d) From Mumbai to Madras
Answer: B
13. When was the first train in Indian started?
(a) 1851 (b) 1852 (c) 1853 (d) 1854
Answer: C
14. In which Governor-General’s reign railway lines in India were established?
(a) Lord William Bentick (b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Kenning (d) Lord Dalhousie
Answer: D
15. A station where the rail lines end, is called (a) junction station (b) way-side-station (c) block station (d) terminal station Answer: D 16. How much distance was traveled by first train of India? (a) 33 km (b) 36 km (c) 34 km (d) 46 km Answer: C 17. What is the position of the Indian Railway in the world according to the length of rail lines? (a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Fourth Answer: D 18. What is the length of North-Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR)? (a) 4300 Km (b) 3700 Km (c) 4290 km (d) 5298 km Answer: B 19. The headquarters of North-Eastern railway is situated at (a) Mumbai (V.T) (b) Guwahati (c) Gorakhpur (d) New Delhi Answer: C 20. When was the North-Eastern frontier Railway (NEFR) established? (a) 15th Jan, 1958 (b) 15th Jan, 1955 (c) 2nd Jan, 1956 (d) 14th April, 1952 Answer: A 21. The headquarters of North -Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR) is (a) Calcutta (b) Maligaon (Guwahati) (c) Chennai (d) Gorakhpur Answer: B 22. In which of the following cities, the first sub-way train was started? (a) Mumbai (b) Delhi (c) Calcutta (d) Chennai Answer: C 23. General Manger is responsible for (a) Railway Board (b) Railway Ministry (c) Both railway Board and Railway Ministry (d) None of these Answer: A 24. The headquarters of South-Central Railways is situated at (a) Mumbai (V.T) (b) Chennai (c) Secundrabad (d) Mumbai (Central) Answer: C 25. The headquarters of Northern Railway is at (a) New Delhi (b) Guwahati (c) Gorakhpur (d) Mumbai (V.T) Answer: A 26. The headquarters of South Railways is situated at (a) Calcutta (b) Chennai (c) Delhi (d) Mumbai Answer: B 27. In which institution the training of electric work is being given? (a) Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering (b) Indian Railways Institute of Electrical Engineering (c) Railway Staff College (d) Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering Answer: B 28. Who invented the railway engine? (a) Charles Babbage (b) Isaac Newton (c) James Watt (d) George Stephenson Answer: D 29. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering Insttitue situated? (a) Nasik (b) Baroda (c) Jamalpur (d) Pune Answer: C 30. Metro Railway is functioning in which of the following Indian States? (a) Gujarat (b) Maharashtra (c) West Bengal (d) Tamil Nadu Answer: C 31.The zone with the minimum length is (a) North-Eastern Railway (b) North-Eastern Frontier Railway (c) South-East Railway (d) South-Central Railway Answer: B 32. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering Institute situated? (a) Pune (b) Chennai (c) Nasik (d) Sikandrabad Answer: A 33. How many training institutions of Railways are in India? (a) Three (b) Four (c) Five (d) Six Answer: C 34. What is the position of the Indian Railway under the zonal system? (a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Forth Answer: B 35. Which of the gauges is used in the hilly areas? (a) Broad gauge (b) Meter gauge (c) Narrow gauge (d) Special gauge Answer: C 36. Where is the extreme north of India a railway station? (a) Jammutavi (b) Amritsar (c) Pathancoat (d) Guwahat Answer: A 37. How many institutions do give suggestions for railways technology? (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four Answer: B 38. Diesel Locomotive Works is situated at (a) Perambur (b) Varanasi (c) Kapurthala (d) Bangalore Answer: B 39. The manufacturing of steam engine in Chittranjan Locomotive Works was stopped in (a) 1974 (b) 1961 (c) 1971 (d) 1973 Answer: C 40. The passenger bogies of the Indian Railways are manufactured at which of the following places?
(a) Kapurthala (b) Chittranjan (c) Perambur (d) Bangalore
Answer: C
41. Indian Railways which is the largest of the Public Sector Enterprises, is divided in how many regions?
(a) 7(b) 9 (c) 8(d) 10
Answer: B
42. Besides Mahrashtra, Karnataka and Goa, which of the following is the fourth State for Konakan Railway Project?
(a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Gujarat (d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: A
43. Palace On Wheels train was inaugurated in which year?
(a) 1988 (b) 1972 (c) 1982 (d) 1965
Answer: C
44. When was the Central Railway established?
(a) 5th Nov 1951 (b) 14th Nov 1951
(c) 14th April 1951 (d) 16th August, 1951
Answer: A
45. Rajasthan is under which of the following railway zones?
(a) Northern region (b) Western region
(c) North-Western region (d) Central Region
Answer: B
46. The largest national enterprise of India is
(a) Indian Railway (b) Indian Shipyard
(c) Airways (d) None of these
Answer: A
47. The first locomotive which was manufactured in Chittaranjan on
(a) November 1950 (b) October 1950
(c) September 1949 (d) October 1954
Answer: A
48. Where is the wheel and axle plant of Indian Railways situated?
(a) Chittranjan (b) Kapurthala (c) Bangalore (d) Perambur
Answer: C
49. When was the Jammu City appeared on the map of Indian Railway?
(a) 1965 (b) 1963 (c) 1967 (d) 1965
Answer: D
50. Where is the headquarters of Central Railway situated?
(a) Mumbai (V.T) (b) Mumbai (Church Gate)
(c) Gwalior (d) Gorakhpur
Answer: A

RRB Allahabad Sr. Clerk Exam 2008 Solved Paper

RRB Allahabad Sr. Clerk Exam  2008 Solved Paper

Held on 12-10-2008

1. Trasfer of heat through horizontal movement of air is called

(A) Advection

(B) Convection

(C) Conduction

(D) Radiation

Ans : (A)


2. Which of the following revers is referred to as "Dakshin Ganga"

(A) Krishna

(B) Godavari

(C) Mahanadi

(D) Cauvery

Ans : (B)


3. The clouds float in atmosphere because of their low-

(A) Temperature

(B) Viscosity

(C) Pressure

(D) Density

Ans : (D)


4. Which one is the first atomic plant established in India?

(A) Kaiga

(B) Tarapur

(C) Narora

(D) Kota

Ans : (B)


5. Who presides over the meeting of the council of ministers?

(A) The prime Minister

(B) The President

(C) Cabinet secretary

(D) Lok Sabha Speaker

Ans : (A)


6. What is the minimum age required to become Prime Minister of India?

(A) 18 Years

(B) 21 Years

(C) 25 Years

(D) 35 Years

Ans : (C)


7. Which of the following gases is used in the artificial ripening of fruits?

(A) Acetylene

(B) Ethylene

(C) Methane

(D) Ethane

Ans : (B)


8. The light waves are -

(A) Electric Waves

(B) Magnetic Waves

(C) Electromagnetic Waves

(D) Electrostatic Waves

Ans : (C)


9. Which of the folowing process produce Hydrogen gas?

(A) Electrolysis of water

(B) Passing of steam over red hot iron

(C) Reaction of Zinc with Hydrochloric acid

(D) All of these

Ans : (D)


10. The hydraulic brakes used in automobiles is a direct application of -

(A) Archmedes' Principle

(B) Pascal's Law

(C) Bernoulli's Theorem

(D) Faraday's Law

Ans : (B)


11. Which of the following planet orbits around the sun in background direction from east to west?

(A) Earth

(B) Mercury

(C) Venus

(D) Jupiter

Ans : (B)

RRB BHOPAL EXAM

RRB BHOPAL TICKET COLLECTOR, COMMERCIAL CLERK, JR. CLERK, JR. ACCOUNT CLERK EXAM

1. The main sources about the Indus Valley civilization are :
(1) Inscriptions
(2) Coins
(3) Manuscripts on leaves of palm and birch
(4) Archaeological excavations

2. The propounder of Yoga School of Philosophy was
(1) Patanjali (2) Gautam
(3) Jaimini (4) Shankaracharya

3. The term ‘Double Fault’ is related to the game of
(1) Badminton (2) Golf
(3) Tennis (4) Cricket

4. Which of the following pairs of names are related?
(1) Golf- Polo (2) Soccer- Football
(3) Billiards- Snookers (4) Volleyball- Football

5. Which of the following pairs is the highest peak of India?
(1) Kanchanjungha (2) Nanda Devi
(3) Mount Everest (4) Kamet

6. After how many years elections are held to elect the members of Rajya Sabha?
(1) 6 years (2) 2 years
(3) 3 years (4) 4 years

7. Which of the following is the longest river in India?
(1) Ganga (2) Brahmaputra
(3) Yamuna (4) Godavari

8. Which of the following vitamins is obtained from sunlight?
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin C
(3) Vitamin D (4) Vitamin B

9. How many bones are there in the human body?
(1) 206 (2) 202
(3) 204 (4) 203

10. Which of the following is the longest river in the world?
(1) Amazon (2) Nile
(3) Mississippi (4) Danube

11. Silk is mostly obtained from
(1) Ujjain (2) Koshambi
(3) Taxila (4) Varanasi

12. Who among the following is associated with the Sarnath Inscription ?
(1) Ashoka (2) Harshavardhana
(3) Chandra Gupta Maurya (4) Samundra Gupta

13. Which of the following names of play ground is correct?
(1) Ring – Skating (2) Diamond – Cricket
(3) Field – Cycling (4) Bull – Tennis

14. Who among the following is competent to amend the provisions of citizenship?
(1) Parliament (2) President
(3) Prime Minister (4) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

15. Who among the following administers the oath of office to the President?
(1) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(2) Prime Minister
(3) Vice President
(4) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

16. Who among the following administers the oath of office to the Chief Justice of a High Court?
(1) Governor
(2) President
(3) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(4) Council of Ministers

17. Railway in included in which of the following lists?
(1) Union list (2) State list
(3) Concurrent list (4) None of these

18. Who among the following was the first and last woman ruler of Delhi?
(1) Razia Beghum (2) Chand Bibi
(3) Mumtaz (4) Karnavati

19. Who among the following was the first to land on moon?
(1) Neil Armstrong (2) Tenzing Norgay
(3) Rakesh Sharma (4) Edwin Aldrin

20. Who among the following was the first Indian woman to scale the Mount Everest?
(1) Bachendri Pal (2) Santosh Yadav
(3) Dicky Dolma (4) None of these

21. Zero hour is the period
(1) just after question hour in both Houses of Parliament
(2) at the starting of the sitting
(3) at the end of sitting
(4) None of these

22. The maximum interval between the two sessions of the Houses is
(1) Six months (2) 3 months
(3) 2 months (4) one year

23. The period of proclamation of emergency is
(1) one month (2) two months
(3) six months (4) one year

24. The Chief Minister who remained in the office for the longest period :
(1) Jyoti Basu (2) Lalu Prasad
(3) Mayawati (4) M. Karunanidhi

25. The Salarjung Museum is located in
(1) Hyderabad (2) Bhopal
(3) Patna (4) Ranchi

26. Which of the following gases is filled in a balloon?
(1) Helium (2) Hydrogen
(3) Bromine (4) Oxygen

27. Which of the following is called Banker’s Bank?
(1) Reserve Bank of India (2) State Bank of India
(3) Punjab National Bank (4) None of these

28. Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly?
(1) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (2) Bhimrao Ambedkar
(3) Jawaharlal Nehru (4) Sachchidanand Sinha

29. Which of the following is the longest platform in the world?
(1) Kharagpur (2) Kolkata
(3) Leningrad (4) Tokyo

30. Who among the following built the Grand Trunk road?
(1) Shershah (2) Akbar
(3) Humayun (4) Shahjehan

31. Focus on the age eye is adjusted through
(1) Retina (2) Iris
(3) Comea (4) Lens

32. Who among the following was the ruler of Kalinga?
(1) Kharvela (2) Ashoka
(3) Samudragupta (4) None of these

33. Maximum oil can be extracted from
(1) Sunflower (2) Groundnut
(3) Mustard (4) Cardamom

34. The most suitable conductor is
(1) Saline water (2) Fresh water
(3) Pure water (4) None of these

35. The mausoleum of which saint is located in Ajmer?
(1) Moinuddin Chisti (2) Badruddin Zacharia
(3) Khwaja Walliullah (4) Abdul Shatari

36. Gobar gas mainly contains
(1) Methane (2) Ethane
(3) Propane (4) Butane

37. Who among the following invented the decimal system?
(1) Aryabhatt (2) Copernicus
(3) Magellan (4) Charak

38. Nose starts bleeding when one climbs up mountain due to
(1) low pressure (2) high pressure
(3) height (4) None of these

39. In which of the following sectors maximum number of women are employed?
(1) Tea (2) Agriculture
(3) Jute (4) Textile

40. Railway earns maximum revenue from
(1) freight charges (2) passenger fares
(3) advertisement (4) None of these

41. Which of the following is called the laughing gas?
(1) Nitrogen Oxide (2) Hydrogen Oxide
(3) Nitrous Oxide (4) Sulphur Oxide

42. Who was the first Indian to qualify for Olympics?
(1) Shiny Abraham (2) PT Usha
(3) Karmam Malleshwari (4) Jyotirmony Sikdar

43. During Shivaji’s childhood, who among the following exercised the maximum influence on his character?
(I) Jija Bai, his mother (II) Dadaji Kondadev, his tutor
(III) Shahji Bhonsle, his father
(1) I Only (2) I and III
(3) I, II and III (4) I and II

44. ‘Black Hole Episode’ was the main cause of :
(1) Battle of Buxar (2) Battle of Plassey
(3) Battle of Wandiwash (4) Battle of Haldighati

45. Who is known as the ‘Grand Old Man of India’?
(1) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Kan (2) C. Rajgopalachari
(3) Lala Lajpat Rai (4) Dadabhai Naoroji

46. The slogan ‘Inquilab Zindabad’ was first raised by :
(1) Lokmanya Tilak (2) Veer Savarkar
(3) Chandrashekhar Azad (4) Bhagat Singh

47. Which of the following is/ are true about Sarojini Naidu?
(a) She was the First Woman President of the Congress
(b) She was the first Woman Governor in independent India
(c) She was the first Health Minister in independent India
(d) She wrote the famous ‘Golden Bough’

(1) a, b and d (2) a and c
(3) a and b (4) Only b

48. Which planet looks reddish in the night sky?
(1) Mercury (2) Mars
(3) Jupiter (4) Saturn

49. Geostationary orbit is at a height of :
(1) 6 km (2) 1000 km
(3) 3600 km (4) 36,000 km

50. The ozone layer in the upper part of the atmosphere protects us from :
(1) Cosmic rays (2) Ultrasonic waves
(3) Infra- red rays (4) Ultraviolet rays

51. Nights are cooler in the deserts than in the plains because :
(1) sand radiates that more quickly than the earth
(2) the sky remains clear most of the time
(3) sand absorbs heat more quickly than the earth
(4) None of these

52. Which of the following is the highest plateau in the world?
(1) Colorado Plateau (2) Pamir Plateau
(3) Patagonia Plateau (4) Potwar Plateau

53. Pointing towards a woman Manju said that ‘She is the sister of father of son of my mother’. How is that woman related to woman?
(1) Aunt (2) Sister
(3) Niece (4) None of these
54. Tipu Sultan was the ruler of
(1) Hyderabad (2) Madurai
(3) Mysore (4) Vijayanagar

55. Which of the following passes through India?
(1) Tropic of Cancer (2) Tropic of Capricorn
(2) Prime Meridian (4) Equator

ANSWERS

1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (1)
6. (1) 7. (1) 8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (2)
11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (1) 14. (1) 15. (1)
16. (1) 17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (1) 20. (1)
21. (1) 22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (1) 25. (1)
26. (1) 27. (1) 28. (1) 29. (1) 30. (1)
31. (2) 32. (1) 33. (1) 34. (1) 35. (1)
36. (1) 37. (1) 38. (2) 39. (1) 40. (1)
41. (3) 42. (2) 43. (4) 44. (2) 45. (4)
46. (4) 47. (4) 48. (2) 49. (4) 50. (4)
51. (1) 52. (2) 53. (1) 54. (3) 55. (1)