RRB SCIENCE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is not a bone in the
human body?
(a)Sternum
(b) Humerus
(c)Pericardium
(d) Tibia
Ans : c

2. Rennin and lactase, the enzymes required to digest milk, disappear in the human body by the age of
(a) two
(b) three
(c) five
(d) eight
Ans : a

3. Duodenum is situated
(a) at the uppermost part of the small intestine
(b) near the lungs
(c) in the brain
(d) at the tail end of the intestine
Ans : a

4. The heart is covered by a membrane called
(a) Epidermis
(b) Dermis
(c)Epicardium
(d) Pericardium
Ans : d

5. About ……..of the total calcium present in the human body is in the blood.
(a) 99%
(b) 70%
(c) 5%
(d) 1%
Ans : d

6. Phenylketonuria is an example of an inborn error of metabolism. This ‘error’ refers to
(a) hormonal overproduction
(b) non disjunction
(c) atrophy of endocrine glands
(d) inherited lack of an enzyme
Ans : c

7. As in the arms and legs, blood flows against gravity and is prevented from flowing back by
(a) the extremely low pressure of venous blood
(b) valves
(c) movements in the surrounding muscles
(d) the narrowing down of the lumen of veins by the contraction of the muscle layer comprising their walls
Ans : b

8. Identical twins arise when two
(a) cells develop independently from the same zygote
(b) gametes develop independently
(c) sperms develop independently
(d) ova develop independently
Ans : a

9. Element that is not found in blood is
(a)iron
(b) copper
(c)chromium
(d) magnesium
Ans : c

10. Scratching eases itching because
(a) it kills germs.
(b) it suppresses the production of enzymes which cause itching,
(c) it removes the outer dust in the skin.
(d) it stimulates certain nerves which direct the brain to increase the production of antihistaminic chemicals.
Ans : d
11. The gland, which in relation to body size is largest at birth and then gradually shrinks after puberty, is?
(a) Thyroid
(b) Pituitary
(c)Thymus
(d) Adrenal
Ans : c
12. A human sperm may contain ?
1. X-chromosome
2. Y-chromosome
3. XY-chromosome
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c)1 and 2
(d) l,2 and 3
Ans : c
13. Which of the following is not a bone in the legs
of human body?
(a) Radius
(b) Tibia
(c) Femur
(d) Fibula
Ans : a
14. Bleeding from artery is characterised by which of the following?
1. Blood is red.
2. Blood is purple.
3. Bleeding is continuous.
4. Bleeding is intermittent.
(a)1 and3
(b) 2 and 3
(c)1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans : b
15. Which of the following is not a vestigial organ?
(a) Centriole
(b) Molar tooth
(c) Appendix
(d) Diaphragm
Ans : d
16. Which of the following bone articulations forms the gliding joint?
(a) Humenis and radius
(b) Carpals
(c) Hip girdle and femur
(d) Skull & neck verterbrae
Ans : b
17. Pancreas secretes hormones which help in
(a) blood clotting
(b) production of antibodies
(c) growth of body
(d) keeping sugar balance in body
Ans : d
18. S-A node of mammalian heart is known as
(a) Autoregulator
(b) Pace-maker
(c) Time controller
(d) Beat regulator
Ans : b
19. Consider the following statements regarding blood pressure:
1. It is the pressure exerted by the blood on the walls of any vessel.
2. It decreases in the arteries as the distance from the heart increases,
3. It is lower in the capillaries than in the arteries.
4. It is usually lower in women than in men.
Of these, the correct ones are
(a)1 and 4
(b) l, 2and 3
(c)2,3 and 4
(d) l,2,3 and 4
Ans : d
20. The hormone responsible for the secretion of milk in mothers, is?
(a) ACTH
(b) Leutinizing hormone
(c) Adrenalin
(d) Lactogenic hormone
21. What is the correct sequence of the following in heart attack?
1. Narrowing of the inner orifice of the vessel
2. ‘Plaque’ from fibrous tissue and high cholesterol
3. Inadequate supply of blood and oxygen
4. Clots of blood carried into the coronary arteries
(a)1,2,3,4
(b) 2,4, 1,3
(c) 2, 3, 1, 4
(d) 4, 2, 1 3
Ans : b
22. Bile juice is secreted by
(a)Pancreas
(b) Liver
(c)Spleen
(d) Gall bladder
Ans : b
23. Veins differ from arteries in having
(a) thinner walls
(b) strong walls
(c) narrower lumen
(d) valves to control direction of flow
Ans : d
24. What is the main function of insulin in the hman body?
(a) To maintain blood pressure
(b) To help in digestion of food
(c) To control the level of sugar in the body
(d) To check the level of iodine in the body
Ans : c
25. An enzyme that works in an acidic medium is
(a) pepsin
(b) tiypsin
(c) ptyalin
(d) maltose
Ans : a
26. The blood pressure is the pressure of blood in
(a)arteries
(b) veins
(c)auricles
(d) ventricles
Ans : a
27. The total number of bones in human skull are
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 30
(d) 32
Ans : c
28. Which of the following glands controls the development of sex organs in humans?
(a) Paancreas
(b) Thyroid
(c) Adrenal
(d) Pituitary
Ans : d
29. Oxygen is transported to every cell of the human
body by?
(a)red blood cells
(b) blood platelets
(c)white blood cells
(d) hormones
Ans : a
30. Which of the following components of blood protects human beings from infection?
(a) Plasma
(b) Blood Platelets
(c) Haemoglobin
(d) White Blood Corpuscles
Ans : d
31. The normal temperature of the human body is
(a) 90 F
(b) 98 F
(c) 98.4 F
(d)96.4 F
Ans : c
32 .If a person can see an object clearly when it is placed at distance of about 25 cm away from him, he is suffering from
(a) myopia
(b) hypermetropia
(c) astigmatism
(d) None of these
Ans : d
33. The blood pressure values of four persons are
given below:
1. Mrs.X-90/60
2.Mr.X-160/120
3. Mr. Y-120/80
4.Mrs.Y-140/l00
Who among the following has normal blood pressure?
(a) Mrs. Y
(b) Mr. X
(c) Mrs. X
(d) Mr. Y
Ans : d

34. In the case of a ‘Test-tube baby’?
(a) fertilisation takes place inside the test tube.
(b) development of the baby takes place inside the test tube.
(c) fertilisation takes place outside the mother body.
(d) unfertilised egg develops inside the test tube.
Ans : c

35. Pituitary gland is present
(a) below the brain
(b) above the brain
(c) inside the brain
(d) nowhere near the brain
Ans : a

36. Which of the following organs is used in the purification of blood in human body?
(a) Liver
(b) Kidney
(c) Spleen
(d) Lungs
Ans : d

37. Cornea is a part of which of the following organs
of human body?
(a) Eye
(b) Ear
(c) Nose
(d)Heart
Ans : a

38. What is Funny Bone?
(a) A muscle
(b) A nerve
(c) A bone
(d) A blood vessel
Ans : b

39. Man cannot digest cellulose whereas cows can do so because?
(a) their gut contains bacteria capable of digesting cellulose.
(b) they have a many – chambered stomach.
(c) they have efficient grinding molars.
(d) they produce an enzyme cellulase which can digest cellulose.
Ans : a

40. Which of the following when taken by pregnant women, is found to be the cause of deformed children?
(a) Glycerol
(b) Xylidine
(c) Thalidomide
(d) None of these
Ans : c
41. The diploid number of chromosomes in human body is ?
(a) 24
(b) 40
(c) 46
(d) 48
Ans : c

42. The largest cell in the human body is
(a) Nerve cell
(b) Muscle cell
(c) Liver cell
(d) Kidney cell
Ans : a

43. Lichens are formed due to the symbiotic association of
(a) moss and fungi
(b) bacteria and fungi
(c) algae and fungi
(d) None of these
Ans : c

44. Insects form the largest class of animals living on land and sea. They are grouped into
(a) 22 orders
(b) 26 orders
(c) 29 orders
(d) 32 orders
Ans : c

45. Which of the following statements is true for planktons?
(a) They live on the surface of lake water.
(b They live on the bottom of lakes.
(c) They live on the plants growing in water.
(d) They live in the water column.
Ans : b

46. Which of the following has the smallest egg?
(a) Ostrich
(b) Humming bird
(c) Pigeon
(d) Homo sapiens
Ans : c

47. The population of which of the following is maximum on the earth?
(a) Reptiles
(b) Fishes
(c) Birds
(d) Beetles
Ans : d

48. Poison glands of snakes are homologous to
(a) stings of rays
(b) salivary glands of vertebrates
(c) electric organs of fishes
(d) sebaccous glands of mammals
Ans : b

49. The phylum chordata is characterised by the presence of
(a) spinal cord
(b) notochord
(c) nerve chord
(d) None of these
Ans : d

50. Which of the following activities is suppressed by the presence of auxins in plants?
(a) Growth of lateral buds
(b) Cell division
(c) Root initiation
(d) Development of fleshy fruits
Ans : c

RRB TECHNICAL QUESTIONS

1. The bent-up length of rail used in front of nose of crossing which help in channelising the train wheels in their proper routes are known as:
(a) lead rail (b) point rail (c) wing rail (d) splice rail
Ans:- C

2.The point up to which the new railway track laid, at any time is called:
(a) terminal (b) station (c) rail-head (d) base
Ans:- C

3.The good quality wood for sleeper is:
(a) Deodar (b) Sheesham (c) Teak (d) Sal
Ans:- C

4.Generally the life of wooden sleepers is taken as:
(a) 2 to 3 years (b) 12 to 15 years
(c) 35 to 50 years (d) 5 to 8 years
Ans:- B

5.The gradual or tapered widening of the flangeway which is formed by bending and splaying the end of check rail or wing rail away from the gauge line is known as:
(a) Flare (b) Toe (c) Heel (d) Loop
Ans:- A

6.The minimum height of embankment above the highest flood mark in the area should be:
(a) zero cm (b) 30 cm (c) 100 cm (d) 60 cm
Ans:- D

7.The recommended depth of ballast cushion on a curved portion of a track is provided under the ........ edge of the sleeper.
(a) upper (b) middle (c) inner (d) outer
Ans:- C

8. An outward slope provided on the tread of the wheel is:
(a) 1 in 5 (b) 1 in 10 (c) 1 in 20 (d) 1 in 25
Ans:- C

9.The granular material spread on the formation of a railway track for the sleepers to rest upon is known as:
(a) anchors (b) ballast (c) subgrade (d) chairs
Ans:- B

10.Bone shaped section of fish plate is commonly used for connecting:
(a) double headed rails (b) flat footed rails
(c) bull headed rails (d) all above are correct
Ans:- B

11.The members laid transversely under the rails for supporting and fixing them at the gauge distance apart are known as:
(a) fastenings (b) sleepers (c) ballast (d) fish plate
Ans:- B

12.The bottom width of foot in a flat footed rail is:
(a) 78.6 mm (b) 136.5 mm (c) 66.7 mm (d) 70 mm
Ans:- B

13.The rectangular pits in which wheels of the locomotives are taken out for repairs, are known as:
(a) Track pits (b) Inspection pits
(c) Drop pits (d) Siding pits
Ans:- C

14. The wheels are coned to prevent from rubbing the inside face of the rail head and to prevent lateral movement of the axle with its wheels. The slope of cone is:
(a) 1 in 5 (b) 1 in 20 (c) 1 in 10 (d) 1 in 15
Ans:- B

15. Gauge is the distance measured in place of the between which faces of two parallel rails in a track.
(a) inner faces
(b) centre line of one rail to inner face of other rail
(c) centre lines (d) outer faces
Ans:- A

16. Most significant which imposes limitations in raising the high speeds is:
(a) adhesion of wheels (b) resistance due to oscillations
(c) flange resistance (d) air or wind resistance
Ans:- A

17. The rails are welded by:
(a) Thermit welding (b) Gas welding
(c) Arc welding (d) MIG welding
Ans:- A

18. Steel sleepers are ..... shaped in section.
(a) oval (b) rectangular (c) trough (d) semi-spherical
Ans:- C

19. In India generally the sleeper density of sleepers per rail length used is:
(a) 18 (b) 30 (c) 12 (d) 24
Ans:- A

20. The extra rails provided over bridge to prevent damage and danger in case of derailment on the bridge are known as:
(a) Stock rails (b) Guard rails (c) Check rails (d) Wing rails
Ans:- B

21. The phenomenon of misalignment of rails due to temperature change is known as:
(a) cropping (b) creeping (c) bulging (d) buckling
Ans:- D

22. Creep is the ..... movement of rails.
(a) longitudinal (b) diagonal (c) horizontal (d) vertical
Ans:- A

23. Ballast best suited to steel sleepers is:
(a) sand (b) Gravel (c) Quartzite (d) All the above
Ans:- C

24. The section of a rail is decided on the basis of:
(a) Type of rails (b) Spacing of the sleepers
(c) Speed of trains (d) All of the above
Ans:- D

25. While preparing sub-grade of a railway line, the grubbing operation means:
(a) checking of subgrade
(b) filling or cutting of earth work in railway subgrade
(c) compaction and consolidation of earth work
(d) removal and disposal of stumps and roots trees
Ans:- D

26. The sinuous path taken by an engine as against the alignment of the track is known as:
(a) Rolling motion (b) Nosing motion
(c) Lurching motion (d) Vibration
Ans:- B

27. The mechanical device which transfer chemical energy of fuel into mechanical energy in the form of motion is called:
(a) rolling stock (b) railway (c) wagon (d) locomotive
Ans:- D

28. Integrated coach factory is located in:
(a) Chennai (b) Bangalore (c) Jamshedpur (d) Mumbai
Ans:- A

29. C.T.C. stands for:
(a) Critical Track Control
(b) Critical Traffic Channeliser
(c) Centralised Traffic Control
(d) None of these
Ans:- C

30. To reduce the intensity of pressure particularly on soft variety of sleepers, a rectangular plate is introduced between the rails and the sleepers. This is known as:
(a) Fish plate (b) Chair
(c) Saddle plate (d) Bearing plate
Ans:- D

31. Generally the rail sections used in India is:
(a) flat footed (b) double headed
(c) bull headed (d) all above
Ans:- A

32. The arrangement consisting of three tracks used for changing the direction of engine is called:
(a) three ladder track (b) turn table
(c) three throw switch (d) triangle
Ans:- B

33. The length of a wooden sleeper for broad gauge track is:
(a) 1.83 m (b) 1.52 m (c) 2.74 m (d) 1.676 m
Ans:- C

34. The technical officer of the rank of sectional officer in the maintenance organisation of Indian Railways is called:
(a) Permanent Way Inspector
(b) Gangmate
(c) Assistant Permanent Way Inspector
(d) None of these are correct
Ans:- C

35. The depth of ballast section under sleeper for broad gauge track as per Indian standard should be:
(a) 250 to 300 mm (b) 200 to 250 mm
(c) 150 to 200 mm (d) 150 mm
Ans:- B

36. The completed and finished railway line on which wheeled vehicles are drawn by locomotive is known as:
(a) steel way (b) rails (c) railway (d) permanent way
Ans:- D

37. The horse power to weight ratio steam engine is generally of the order of:
(a) 10-15 kg/HP (b) 60-80 kg/HP
(c) 20-30 kg/HP (d) 100-150 kg/HP
Ans:- B

38. The cause of formation of kinks in a rail is:
(a) Loose packing at joints
(b) Defect in gauge and alignment
(c) Defect in cross level joints
(d) Any of the above
Ans:- D

39. The horizontal distance from the material depot to the rail head is called:
(a) lift (b) site distance (c) rail-head (d) lead
Ans:- D

40. On curves, to counteract the effect of centrifugal force, the level of outer rail is raised above the inner rail by a certain amount. This is called:
(a) Track gradient (b) Track slope
(c) Super elevation (d) Horizontal gradient
Ans:- C

41. The measure of stiffness of track required to produce a unit depression in the track is known as:
(a) Tractive force (b) Load capacity
(c) Gauge (d) Track modulus
Ans:- D

42. The head of a gang in maintenance organisation of railway is called:
(a) P.W.I (b) Keyman (c) Ganger (d) A.P.W.I
Ans:- C

43. The fixed rail in a railway track against which the tongue rail fits s known as:
(a) wing rail (b) stock rail (c) lead rail (d) point rail
Ans:- B

44. The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge track in India is:
(a) 19.2 m (b) 25.6 m (c) 11.8 m (d) 12.8 m
Ans:- D

45. The thickness of fish plate generally used in Indian Railway is:
(a) 16 mm (b) 10 mm (c) 25 mm (d) 20 mm
Ans:- D

46. Thermal efficiency of a diesel engine may be expected to be in the range of:
(a) 50-65% (b) 25-35% (c) 15-20% (d) 10-15%
Ans:- B

47. Wear on top or head of rail occurs due to:
(a) Abrasion of rolling wheels
(b) Heavy axle load
(c) Constant brake application
(d) Any or all of the above
Ans:- D

48. Any movement of the locomotive in different planes, e.g., vertical, longitudinal, transversal etc., is known as:
(a) Oscillating motion (b) Lurching motion
(c) Shutting motion (d) Vibration
Ans:- A

49. In rainy season the dust in the ballast becomes mud and comes up by suction from below the rail joint. Such joint is called:
(a) Wet joint (b) Water joint
(c) Pumping joint (d) Blowing joint
Ans:- C

50. Accidents can be avoided by adopting:
(a) interlocking (b) C.T.C. system
(c) pilot guard system (d) A.T.C. system
Ans:- A

RRB ELECTRICAL SIGNAL MAINTAINER SOLVED PAPER

FOR RRB ELECTRICAL SIGNAL MAINTAINER SOLVED PAPER CLICK HERE

RRC CHENNAI GROUP-D RECRUITMENT

RRB SECUNDERABAD TECHNICIAN EXAM SCHEDULE

RRC SOUTH EAST CENTRAL RAILWAY GROUP-D RECRUITMENT

Government of India
Ministry of Railways

South East Central Railway (SRCR)
Railway Recruitment Cell, Annex Building, General Manager’s office, Bilaspur – 495004 (Chhattisgarh)

Railway Recruitment Cell/ Bilaspur invites applications from citizens of India and such other candidates declared eligible by the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India to fill up the following posts in Pay Band-1 of Rs. 5200-20200 with Grade Pay of Rs. 1800/-

1. Porter : 456 posts
2. Helper-II (S&T, Mechanical Electrical & Civil Engineering) : 1542 posts
3. Helper-II (Stores & Workshops) : 220 posts
4. Trackman : 3145 posts
5. Safaiwala : 245 posts
6. Hamal : 113 posts
7. Peon/ Chowkidar : 77 posts

Age : 18-33 years as on 01/01/2011. Relaxation in age as per rules.

Qualification : Candidates should possess the qualification of 10th Pass or ITI or equivalent . Candidates appearing at and/or awaiting results of the final examinations of 10th/ITI or equivalent

Application Fee : Rs.40/- payable in a form of crossed Demand Draft from State Bank of India or from any other Nationalized Bank or crossed Indian Postal Order drawn in favour of Assistant Personnel Officer, Railway Recruitment Cell, South East Central Railway, Bilaspur - 495004, Chhattisgarh.

How to Apply : The filled in application form along with the required documents should be addressed to the Assistant Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell, Annex Building, General Manager’s office, South East Central Railway, Bilaspur– 495004, (Chhattisgarh State) on or before 14/02/2011.

Please visit http://www.secr.indianrailways.gov.in/secr/writereaddata/M000494.htm for details and application format.

RRC North Eastern Railway Group-D Recruitment

Government of India
Ministry of Railways

North Eastern Railway (NER)
Railway Recruitment Cell, CCM Annexe Building, Railway Road No. 14, Gorakhpur (UP) - 273012

Some Posts are exclusive reserved for PH candidates

Railway Recruitment Cell/ Allahabad invites applications from citizens of India and such other candidates declared eligible by the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India to fill up the following posts in Pay Band-1 of Rs. 5200-20200 with Grade Pay of Rs. 1800/-

1. Helper Khalasi : 128 posts
2. Coupling Khalais / L-C Porter/ Box Porter/ Khalasi / Shuntman : 572 posts
3. Gateman/ Helper - Trollyman : 34 posts
4. Hamal/ Khalasi : 1188 posts
5. Trackman/ Gangman : 1953 posts
6. Helper-II/ Peon/ Khalasi/ Helper : 687 poss
7. Safaiwala : 146 posts

Age : 18-33 years as on 01/01/2011. Relaxation in age as per rules.

Qualification : Candidates should possess the qualification of 10th Pass or ITI or equivalent .


Application Fee : Rs. 40/- payable in a form of crossed Demand Draft from State Bank of India or from any other Nationalized Bank or crossed Indian Postal Order drawn in favour of Asstt. Personnel Officer (Recruitment), RRC, N .E.Railway payable at Gorakhpur. (SC/ST/PH candidaes are exempted)


How to Apply : The filled in application form along with the required documents should be addressed to the on or before 12/02/2011.

Deputy Chief Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell, North Eastern Railway Headquarters, CCM’s Annexre Building, Railway Road No.14, Gorakkhpur, Uttar Pradesh -273012

Please click on the Recruitment section at http://www.ner.indianrailways.gov.in/ for details and application format.

RRC North Central Railway Group-D Recruitment

Government of India
Ministry of Railways

North Central Railway (NCR)
Railway Recruitment Cell, Civil Lines, Allahabad - 211001

Some Posts are exclusive reserved for PH candidates

Railway Recruitment Cell/ Allahabad invites applications from citizens of India and such other candidates declared eligible by the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India to fill up the following posts in Pay Band-1 of Rs. 5200-20200 with Grade Pay of Rs. 1800/-

1. Assistan Pointsman/ Gateman/ Porter/ Box Porter : 347 posts
2. Helper-II (Mech./ Elec.) : 121 posts
3. Helper-II (Signa & Telecom/ Elec./Civil/ CPOH/ Mech.) : 2287 posts
4. Helper-II (Elec. General) : 71 posts
5. Trackman : 1256 posts
6. Parcel Porter/ Safaiwala : 508 poss
7. Peon/ Office Khalasi : 102 posts

Age : 18-33 years as on 01/01/2011. Relaxation in age as per rules.

Qualification : Candidates should possess the qualification of 10th Pass or ITI or equivalent .


Application Fee : Rs.40/- payable in a form of crossed Demand Draft from State Bank of India or from any other Nationalized Bank or crossed Indian Postal Order drawn in favour of Assistant Personnel Officer, Railway Recruitment Cell, North Central Railway, Allahabad. (SC/ST/PH candidaes are exempted)



How to Apply : The filled in application form along with the required documents should be addressed to the Assistant Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell, North Central Railway, Nawab Yousuf Road, Civil Lines, Allahabad - 211001 on or before 18/02/2011.

Please visit http://www.ncr.indianrailways.gov.in/ncr/departments/Personal/recruitment.jsp for details and application format.

RRC Central Railway Group-D Recruitment

Government of India
Ministry of Railways
Central Railway (CR)
Railway Recruitment Cell, Chief Project Manager (Conv.)’s Office, 1st Floor, P.D. Mello Road, Wadi Bunder, Mumbai - 400010


Railway Recruitment Cell/ Central Railway, Mumbai invites applications from citizens of India and such other candidates declared eligible by the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India to fill up the following posts in Pay Band-1 of Rs. 5200-20200 with Grade Pay of Rs. 1800/-

• Trackman/ Porter/ Hamal/ Khalasis/ Safaiwalas/ Assistant Pointsman : 2022 posts, Age : 18-33 years as on 01/01/2011. Relaxation in age as per rules.

Qualification : Candidates should possess the qualification of 10th Pass or ITI or equivalent . Candidates appearing at and/or awaiting results of the final examinations of 10th/ITI or equivalent

Application Fee : Rs.40/- payable in a form of crossed Demand Draft from State Bank of India or from any other Nationalized Bank or crossed Indian Postal Order drawn in favour of Assistant Personnel Officer, Railway Recruitment Cell, Central Railway, Mumbai – 500071.


How to Apply : The filled in application form along with the required documents should be addressed to the Assistant Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell, , Central Railway, Chief Project Manager (Conv.)’s Office, 1st Floor, P.D.Mello Road, Wadi Bunder, Mumbai - 400010 on or before 15/02/2011. (Last date is 02/03/2011 for the candidates of far-flung areas)

Please view http://www.cr.indianrailways.gov.in/cr/cr/hq/administration/NotificationwithESM.doc for details and application format.

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT CELL, NORTH EASTERN RAILWAY GROUP-D RECRUITMENT

Railway Recruitment Cell RRC NER Recruitment 2010 Group D Posts North Eastern Railway Recruitment 2010 Notification 2010 Group D Jobs
RAILWAY RECRUITMENT CELL,

NORTH EASTERN RAILWAY

CCM Annexe Building, Railway Road No. 14.,

Gorakhpur (U.P.) - 273012

Emloyment Notice for filling up of Group 'D' Posts in North Eastern Railway and DLW/Varanasi

Employment Notice No: NER/RRC/D/2/2010

Date of issue 15.12.2010

Closing Date 12.02.2011

Closing Time 18.00 Hrs

Postal Address-Deputy Chief Personnel Officer (Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell, North Eastern Railway Headquarters, CCM’s Annexre Building, Railway Road No.14, Gorakkhpur, Uttar Pradesh- 273012.www.nerailway.gov.in

EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION:- Minimum 10th pass or ITI or equivalent. Those candidates who are appearing in and/or awaiting results of final examination of class 10th are not eligible. Academic qualification must be from recognized Educational Institution/Board, otherwise candidature will be rejected.

AGE LIMIT INCLUDING RELAXATION PROVISIONS:- 4.1 For all the above vacancies, the age limit will be 18 to 33 years and will be reckoned as on 01.01.2011. 4.2 The upper age limit will be relalxed as under, subject to the production of requisite certificates. (i) FIVE years for SC/ST and by THREE years for OBC candidatesin possession of valid certificates issued by appropriate authority as per Annexure- II. (ii) By Ten years (15 years for SC/STs and 13 years for OBCs) for persons with disability in possession of valid disability certificate issued by medical board duly constituted by the central or state government. (iii) Casual labourers or substitutes, if any, who have put in a minimum of THREE Years service will be given age relaxation to the extent of length of service rendered by them, subject to the age limit not exceeding 40,43 & 45years in case of General,OBC and SC/ ST candidates, respectively. (iv) In case of staff of Quasi Administrative Offices of Railway Organization such as Railway Canteens, Railway Institutes and Railway Cooperative societies who have put in 3 years service, relaxation of age will be given to the extent of service rendered by them subject to a maximum of 05 years and upper age limit of 35 yerars. (v) Widows and Divorced women who have judicially separated from their husbands and not remarried, will be given relaxation in age up to 35, 38 and 40 years in case of General, OBC and SC/ST candidates respectively. (vi) Relaxation of FIVE years will be given to the candidates who had ordinarily been domiciled in the Kashmir Division of the State of Jammu and Kashmir during the period from the Ist day of Jan, 80 to the 31st of December, 89, subject to production of a residential certificate from the appropriate authority of the State of Jammu and Kashmir. (vii) No age rellalxation is allowed to SC/ST/OBC candidates applying against unreserved posts.

For Application Form Download and complete details visit notification here

NORTHERN RAILWAY RAILWAY RECRUITMENT CELL GROUP-D NOTIFICATION DETAILS

FOR NORTHERN RAILWAY RAILWAY RECRUITMENT CELL GROUP-D NOTIFICATION DETAILS CLICK HERE

RRC EAST COAST RAILWAY GROUP-D RECRUITMENT

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT CELL, EAST COAST RAILWAY Office of the Chief Personnel Officer, 2nd Floor, South Block, ECoR Sadan, Samant Vihar, PO-Mancheswar, Bhubaneswar, Orissa - 751017. Employment Notice No. ECoR /RRC/D/2010
Date of issue: 17.12.2010 Closing Date: 17.02.2011, Closing Time: 17.00 Hrs.
(For residents of Andaman, Nicobar & Lakshadweep: Closing Date: 04.03.2011 Closing Time: 17.00 Hrs.)
Employment Notice for recruitment of staff in Pay Band-1 of Rs.5200-20200 having Grade Pay of
Rs.1800/- in East Coast Railway
IMPORTANT
Candidates to note that all the zonal railways are likely to issue separate notifications for recruitment to the posts. The Physical Efficiency Test (PET) will be held by all the railways during the same period
simultaneously. Similarly, the Written Examination for those who qualify in the PET will be held on
the same day simultaneously by all the zonal railways. Candidates should keep this in mind before
applying in response to any particular notification.
Detailed Notification
Applications are invited from the Citizens of India and from such other persons declared eligible by Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India for filling up posts in Pay Band-1 of Rs.5200-20200 having Grade Pay of Rs.1800/- in the Divisions and Workshop of East Coast Railway. Application in prescribed format in A-4 size may be sent by ordinary post addressed to the “Deputy Chief Personnel Officer(Recruitment), Railway Recruitment Cell, East Coast Railway Headquarters, Office of the Chief Personnel Officer, 2nd Floor, South Block, ECoR Sadan, Samant Vihar, PO-Mancheswar, Bhubaneswar, Orissa - 751017” upto 17.00 hrs. on the closing date 17.02.2011. Alternatively, application can also be dropped into the Application Drop Box available at the Railway Recruitment Cell, East Coast Railway Headquarters, 2nd Floor, South Block, ECoR Sadan, Samant Vihar, PO-Mancheswar, Bhubaneswar, Orissa - 751017 upto 17.00 hrs. on the closing date. The envelopes containing the application should be clearly superscribed “Application for recruitment against E. N. No.ECoR /RRC/D/2010”. Applications received after closing date and time
will not be entertained. For candidates belonging to Andaman & Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep, the last date for receiving application by post will be 04.03.2011. They should also mention on the bottom-left portion of the envelope their complete ‘from-address’ so that it is possible to receive their applications by ordinary post.Note: (i) Out of the total – 492 Helper-II vacancies, 152 vacancies are earmarked for Persons with
Disabilities (PWD) with the break-up of (a) VH-50 (Suitable for LV); (b) HH-51 (Suitable for HH); (c)
OH-51 (Suitable for OA, OL, BL, OAL).
(ii) The number of vacancies notified is provisional and liable to be increased or decreased by the competent authority. No consequential damage/loss or refund of fee will be made to the applicant on this account.
(iii) A candidate should submit only one application form, even if he / she intends to be considered for more than one or all categories of notified vacant posts.
(iv) There is no quota for ex-servicemen in the above vacancies.
(v) ABBREVIATIONS: RRC – Railway Recruitment Cell; SRE – Serving Railway Employees; ECoR – East Coast Railway; PET – Physical Efficiency Test; UR – Unreserved; SC – Scheduled Caste; ST – Scheduled Tribe; OBC – Other Backward Classes; VH – Visually Handicapped; HH – Hearing Handicapped; OH – Orthopaedically Handicapped. LV - Low Vision; OA – One Arm; OL – One Leg; BL – Both Legs; OAL – One Arm & One Leg.

3. MINIMUM EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION: Candidates must have passed 10th standard or ITI or equivalent from a recognized educational institution or Board. Candidate should possess requisite academic qualification on the date of submission of application. Those who are appearing at and/or awaiting results of final examination are not eligible.
4. AGE LIMITS, including RELAXATION PROVISIONS:
(i) The age limit will be minimum 18 years and maximum 33 years, and will be reckoned as on 01.01.2011.
(ii) The upper age limit will be relaxed as under subject to the production of requisite certificates in the
formats given in Annexures-I & II required for respective relaxations: [a] by FIVE Years for SC/ST and by THREE years for OBC candidates. [b] ‘Serving’ railway staff/casual labourers or substitutes with a minimum of 3 years of such service will be given age relaxation to the extent of length of service rendered by them, subject to the upper age limit not exceeding 40, 43, 45 years in case of General, OBC, SC/ST candidates respectively. [c] In case of staff of Quasi Administrative Offices of Railway Organisation such as Railway Canteens, Railway Institutes and Railway Cooperative societies who have put in 3 years service, relaxation of upper age will be given to the extent of service rendered by them subject to a maximum of 5 years subject to the upper age limit not exceeding 35 years. [d] For widows and divorced Women who are ‘judicially separated’ from their husband and not remarried, will be given relaxation in upper age limit up to 35, 38 and 40 in case of General, OBC and SC/ST candidates respectively. [e] For candidates who had ordinarily been
domiciled in the Kashmir Division of the State of Jammu and Kashmir during the period from the 1
st day of Jan. 1980 to the 31 st day of Dec. 1989, will be given relaxation in upper age limit by 5 years, subject to production of a residential certificate from the competent authority of the state of Jammu and Kashmir.
5. LIST OF AUTHORITIES EMPOWERED TO ISSUE CERTIFICATES OF VERIFICATION FOR
SC/ST/OBC STATUS:
(i) District magistrate / Additional district magistrate / District collector / Deputy Commisioner / Deputy Collector / First Class Stipendary Magistrate / City Magistrate / Sub-Divisional Magistrate / Taluka Magistrate / Executive Magistrate / Extra Assistant Commissioner (not below the rank of First Class Stipendary Magistrate).
(ii) Chief Presidency Magistrate / Additional Presidency Magistrate / Presidency Magistrate.
(iii) Revenue Officers not below the rank of Tehsildar.
(iv) Sub Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and/or his family originally resides.
(v) Administrator / Secretary to Administrator / Development Officer (Lakshadweep Islands)
6. PROOF OF AGE: The 10th standard or ITI or equivalent board certificate issued by a recognised Board / institution where the date of birth is mentioned.
7. SERVING EMPLOYEES: A candidate serving under the government or Public Sector
Enterprise/Undertaking, including Railways, may apply directly to RRC/ECoR with a “No Objection
Certificate” and a ‘Certificate of Service Details’ from the employer concerned.
8. EXAMINATION FEE:
(i) UR and OBC candidates should submit application fee for an amount of Rs.40/- in the form of Demand Draft / Pay Order from any Nationalized Bank, or crossed Indian Postal Order from any Post Office (issued on or after the date of this notification) drawn in favour of “Dy.Chief Personnel Officer(Recruitment), East Coast
Railway, Bhubaneswar” payable at Bhubaneswar. (i) Validity of Bank Draft / Pay Order / IPO should be for a minimum of six months.
(ii) Application received in cash /cheque / Central Recruitment Fee Stamps and Money Orders will not be accepted, and will render the application as rejected and amount forfeited.
(iii) Pay Orders/Bank Drafts/IPOs issued before the date of issue of this Employment Notice and after closing date will not be accepted and the application will be treated as rejected and amount forfeited.
(iv) The candidates are advised to write their name and postal address on the backside of the original Bank Draft / Pay Order / IPO and enclose it on the top of the application form.
(v) The details of Pay Orders/Bank Drafts/IPO for the examination fee should be written in the application form. Examination fee is not refundable under any circumstances including applications rejected.
(vi) SC/ST, ex-servicemen, physically challenged, women, minority candidates (Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists & Zorastrians [Parsis]) and candidates belonging to economically backward classes (whose family income is less than Rs.50,000/- per annum) need not pay this fee.
The following authorities are authorized to issue income certificate (in the office / letterhead) for the purpose of identifying economically backward classes:-
(a) District Magistrate or any other Revenue Officer upto the level of Tehsildar;
(b) Sitting Member of Parliament of Lok Sabha for persons of their own constituency;
(c) BPL Card or any other certificate issued by Central Government under a recognised poverty alleviation programme or Izzat MST issued by Railways;
(d) Union Minister may also recommend to any persons from anywhere in the country; (e) Sitting Member of Parliament of Rajya Sabha for persons of the district in which these MPs normally reside.
(vii) Minority candidates (Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists & Zorastrians [Parsis]), who claim waiver of examination fee, should furnish “self declaration” in the format given at Annexure-III along with the application. At the time of document verification, such candidates will be required to furnish “minority communities declaration” affidavit on non-judicial stamp paper that he/she belongs to any of the above minority community. If the affidavit is not produced during document verification, the candidature will be rejected.
9. SELECTION PROCEDURE:
(i) Selection will consist of Physical Efficiency Test (PET) and Written Examination. Only those who found fit in the PET will have to appear for a Written Examination. The Written examination can be attempted in languages English, Hindi and Urdu, Telugu and Oriya. There will be no interview. Final empanelment of the candidates for the required number of vacancies will be strictly on merit position obtained in the written examination duly following the community reservation rules for earmarked quotas specified in this notification and their passing the Medical Examination of the prescribed standard and document / certificate verification.
(ii) For PH candidates, there is no Physical Efficiency Test but they have to appear in Written Test along with other candidates. Only those who suffer from not less than 40% of relevant disability will be considered as PH candidates. They have to submit PH certificate issued by a competent authority i.e. a medical Board duly constituted by Central or State Government consisting of at least three members out of which at least one shall be a specialist in the particular field for assessing Locomotor / Cerebral/Visual/Hearing disability as the case may be.
(iii) RRC/ECoR reserves the right to conduct second stage written examination if required.
(iv) The marks obtained in the Written Exam will determine the ‘merit order’ of the candidates, whereas PET is of ‘qualifying’ in nature.
(v) Date, time and place of PET and Written Examination will be fixed based on administrative feasibility. No request for any change in time, date and centre of examination will be entertained on any account.
(vi) Physical Efficiency Test Standards: The candidate should be able to perform following
physical tasks: [a] for Male Candidates: Should be able to run for a distance of 1500 meters in 6
minutes in one chance. [b] for Female Candidates: Should be able to run for a distance of 400 meters in 3 minutes in one chance.
(vii) Written Exam Syllabus: Question paper for the written test shall be generally in conformity with the educational standard of 10th Class, consisting of multiple choice objective type questions, mainly aimed to assess general knowledge / general awareness / mathematics / general science / reasoning etc. Question paper shall be printed in five languages: Hindi, English, Urdu, Oriya and Telugu only.
Note: RRC/ECoR and Railway administration will not be liable / responsible for any loss / injury / damage, whether direct or consequential, suffered / incurred by any candidate during the selection, including PET. Candidates are advised to appear in PET in their own interest, therefore, to ensure that they are physically and otherwise fit to undertake the selection and observe due care to avoid injury / damage / loss to either themselves or others during the process of selection.
(viii) Medical Examination: The candidates in the zone of consideration after Written Examination will be subjected to Medical Examination of prescribed medical standard, and only those who qualify in the medical examination will be considered for empanelment subject to fulfillment of other condictions.
(ix) Date and venue of Physical Efficiency Test, Written examination, Medical Examination and Document Verification will be intimated by RRC/ECoR to eligible candidates by post. The RRC/ECoR at its discretion may hold additional written examination and/or Physical Efficiency Test or re-examination or cancel part or whole of the written examination and/or Physical Efficiency Test as the situation may warrant. Request for postponement of the Physical Efficiency Test, Written examination, Medical Examination and Document Verification and change of center/venue will not be entertained under any circumstances.
(x) The inclusion of a candidate in the select panel published by RRC/ECoR does not confer any right to the candidate for actual appointment by the concerned appointing authority. Final appointment will be subject to such selected candidate being found suitable after antecedent verification etc. by the appointing authority as per rules.
(xi) RRC/ECoR shall not be held responsible for any situation arising in case of any certificate / declaration submitted by the candidate being found false after verification at the time of actual appointment or later by the concerned authority.