Exam Pattern :-
(1)Common Preliminary Examination. (Computer Based Test)(2) Exam followed by Verification of documents and typing test according to posts(Computer Based Test)The question paper will be in English, Hindi, Urdu and regional languages and the duration of the examination will be 90 minutes with approximately 100 questions.1. General Awareness2. Arithmetic3. General Intelligence and reasoningGeneral AwarenessHistory & culture of IndiaGeographyScience- Physics, chemistry and BiologyAppointmentsIndian Polity and ConsitutionCurrent Affairs - India and InternationalSports NewsBooks and AuthorsImportant DaysNational and International OrganisatiosnEconomy of India Arithmetic Simplification and Approximation Percentages. Profit and Loss. Ratios and Proportions. Averages. Problems on Ages. Simple & Compound Interest. Time and Distances Time and Work etc. Data InterpretationGeneral Intelligence & Reasoning Analogies. Arithmetical reasoning. Space visualization. Problem solving. Relationship concepts. Decision making. Arithmetical Number Series. Similarities & Differences. Non-verbal series etc. Verbal and Figure Classification. Non-verbal series etc.
1. Which of the following is the lightest metal ?
(A) Mercury (B) Silver
(C) Lithium (D) Lead (Ans : C)
2. The most important ore of Aluminium is–
(A) Bauxite (B) Calamine
(C) Calcite (D) Galena (Ans : A)
3. The element present in the largest amount in rocks and minerals is–
(A) Carbon (B) Silicon
(C) Hydrogen (D) Aluminium (Ans : B)
4. The chemial name of Uria is–
(A) Aneurin (B) Chloroetane
(C) Carbamide (D) None of these (Ans : C)
5. Permanent hardness of water can be removed by adding–
(A) Potassium Permanganate (B) Chlorine
(C) Bleaching Powder (D) Washing Soda (Ans : D)
6. The formula of Plaster of Paris is–
(A) CaSO4 (B) CaSO4, 2H2O
(C) 2CaSO4, 4H2O (D) 2CaSO4, H2O (Ans : D)
7. Liquefied Petroleum gas (LPG) consists of mainly–
(A) Methane, Ethane and Hexane (B) Ethane, Hexane and Nonane
(C) Methane, Butane and Propane (D) Methane, Hexane and Nonane (Ans : C)
8. The metal that is present in Photo Films is–
(A) Mercury (B) Platinium
(C) Magnesium (D) Silver (Ans : D)
9. Which of the following is in liquid form at room temperature ?
(A) Cerium (B) Sodium
(C) Francium (D) Lithium (Ans : C)
10. The property of a substance to absorb moisture from the air on exposure is called–
(A) Osmosis (B) Desiccation
(C) Efflorescence (D) Deliquescene (Ans : D)
11. Brass gets discoloured in air due to the presence of which gas in air–
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Oxygen
(C) Hydrogen Sulphide (D) Nitrogen (Ans : C)
12. Quartz crystals normally used in quartz clocks etc. is chemically–
(A) Sodium Silicate (B) Silicon dioxide
(C) Germenium dioxide (D) A mixture of (B) and (C) (Ans : B)
13. Which of the following elements is non-radioactive?
(A) Uranium (B) Thorium
(C) Plutonium (D) Zirconium (Ans : D)
14. According to Dalton’s atomic theory the smallest particle which can exist independently is–
(A) An atom (B) A molecule
(C) A cation (D) An anion (Ans : A)
15. The recent atomic weight scale is based on–
(A) 1H1 (B) 1H2
(C) 6C12 (D) 8O16 (Ans : C)
16. The major ingredient of leather is–
(A) Carbohydrate (B) Collagen
(C) Polymer (D) Nucleic acid (Ans : B)
17. Glass is made from the mixture of–
(A) Quartz and mica (B) Sand and salt
(C) Sand and silicates (D) None of these (Ans : C)
18. Epoxy resins is used as–
(A) Moth repellants (B) Insecticides
(C) Detergents (D) Adhesives (Ans : D)
19. One fathom is equal to–
(A) 6 metres (B) 6 feet
(C) 60 feet (D) 60 cms (Ans : B)
20. What is the unit for measuring the pitch or frequency of sound ?
(A) Coulomb (B) Hum
(C) Cycles (D) Decible (Ans : D)
21. The fastest acting enzyme in the biological kingdom is–
(A) lipase (B) amylase
(C) carboxypeptidase (D) carbonic anhydrase (Ans : D)
22. Lightening cause rainfall because–
(A) It cause combination of oxygen and nitrogen (B) Some of the gas molecules become bigger
(C) It activate H2O molecule (D) Photo-electricity reaction starts (Ans : C)
23. Nitrification means–
(A) Liquifaction of nitrogen (B) Convert the atmospheric nitrogen to effective nitrogen compound.
(C) Production of nitrogen from air (D) Conversion of nitrogen to nitric acid. (Ans : B)
24. Cell membrane is–
(A) permeable (B) selectively permeable
(C) semipermeable (D) impermeable (Ans : C)
25. Polythene is industrially prepared by the polymerisation of–
(A) methane (B) styrene
(C) acetylene (D) ethylene (Ans : D)
26. An alloy used in making heating elements for electric heating devices is–
(A) Solder (B) Alloysteel
(C) Nichrome (D) German Silver (Ans : C)
27. German Silver is an alloy of–
(A) Copper, Silver and Nickel (B) Silver, Copper and Aluminium
(C) Zinc, Copper and Nickel (D) Silver, Zinc and Nickel (Ans : C)
28. Air is a/an–
(A) Compound (B) Element
(C) Mixture (D) Electrolyte (Ans : C)
29. Which of the following substance is a bad conductor of electricity but a good conductor of heat?
(A) Asbestos (B) Celluloid
(C) Purspecks (D) Mica (Ans : D)
30. Carborandum is–
(A) Silicon Dioxide (B) Silicon Carbide
(C) Silicon Nitride (D) Silicon Phosphide (Ans : B)
31. Which of the following is the best conductor of electricity ?
(A) Copper (B) Mica
(C) Zinc (D) Silver (Ans : D)
32. Soda water contains–
(A) Nitrous acid (B) Carbonic acid
(C) Carbon dioxide (D) Sulphuric acid (Ans : C)
33. Which of the following is basis of the modern periodic table ?
(A) Atomic mass (B) Atomic number
(C) Atomic size (D) Atomic volume (Ans : B)
34. Of the following metals, which one pollutes the air of a big city ?
(A) Copper (B) Cadmium
(C) Lead (D) Chromium (Ans : C)
35. Bell Metal is an alloy of–
(A) Brass and Nickel (B) Zinc and Copper
(C) Tin and Copper (D) Nickel and Copper (Ans : C)
36. The high temperature superconductors are–
(A) Metal alloys (B) Ceramic oxides
(C) Inorganic polymers (D) Pure rare earth metals (Ans : B)
37. The ingredients of Gun metal are–
(A) Iron, tin (B) Copper, tin
(C) Iron, brass, tin (D) Iron, zinc, titanium (Ans : B)
38. The neutral atom’s two isotopes differ in the number of–
(A) Electron shells (B) Protons
(C) Valence electrons (D) Neutrons (Ans : D)
39. Optical fibres are mainly used in–
(A) Communication (B) Weaving
(C) Musical Instruments (D) Food Industry (Ans : A)
40. The first synthetic fibre made by man was–
(A) Rayon (B) Nylon
(C) Polyester (D) Terycott (Ans : B)
41. Polythene is industrially prepared by the polymerization of–
(A) Methane (B) Styrene
(C) Acetylene (D) Ethylene (Ans : D)
42. A mixture of water and alcohol can be separated by–
(A) Filtration (B) Evaporation
(C) Distillation (D) Decantation (Ans : C)
43. A substance which changes readily into vapour without heating is called–
(A) Efflorescent (B) Synthetic
(C) Volatile (D) Effervescent (Ans : C)
44. German biochemist, Emil Fischer–
(A) gave Operon model (B) compared the fit between enzyme substrate to lock and key
(C) proposed the theory of competitive inhibition (D) proposed the feed back inhibition theory (Ans : B)
45. Enzymes generally have–
(A) same pH and temperature optima (B) same pH but different temperature optima
(C) different pH but same temperature optima (D) different pH and temperature optima (Ans : C)
46. Coenzyme is–
(A) always protein (B) often metal
(C) always inorganic compound (D) often a vitamin (Ans : D)
47. Cholesterol is one kind of–
(A) Saturated fatty acid (B) unsaturated fatty acid
(C) Steroid (D) Diglyceride (Ans : A)
48. Ethyl-alcohol is mixed completely with water. How ethyl alcohol is separated from the mixture ?
(A) by separation flannel (B) by evaporation
(C) partial-distillation (D) evaporation of water (Ans : C)
49. White vitriol is–
(A) FeSO4, 7H2O (B) ZnSO4, 7H2O
(C) MgSO4, 7H2O (D) CuSO4, 7H2O (Ans : B)
50. Combustion is a process by which–
(A) heat is produced (B) light is produced
(C) heat and light both are produced (D) None of these (Ans : C)
51. Which of the following is the best conductor of Electricity ?
(A) Ordinary water (B) Sea water
(C) Boiled water (D) Distilled water (Ans : B)
52. Balloons are filled with–
(A) Helium (B) Oxygen
(C) Nitrogen (D) Argon (Ans : A)
53. The charcoal used to decolourise raw sugar is–
(A) Animal charcoal (B) Sugar charcoal
(C) Cocoanut charcoal (D) Wood charcoal (Ans : D)
54. Washing soda is the common name of–
(A) Calcium Carbonate (B) Calcium Bi-Carbonate
(C) Sodium Carbonate (D) Sodium Bi-Carbonate (Ans : C)
55. The filament of electric bulb is made of–
(A) Iron (B) Nichrome
(C) Tungsten (D) Graphite (Ans : C)
56. Bleaching powder is made from–
(A) Sulphur dioxide and gypsum (B) Chlorine and Charcoal
(C) Soda ash and lime (D) Lime and Chlorine (Ans : D)
57. Brass is an alloy of–
(A) Nickel and Copper (B) Copper and Silver
(C) Nickel and Zinc (D) Zinc and Copper (Ans : D)
58. The element required for Solar energy conversion–
(A) Beryllium (B) Silicon
(C) Tantalum (D) Ultra pure carbon (Ans : B)
59. Monazite is an ore of–
(A) Sodium (B) Titanium
(C) Thorium (D) Zirconium (Ans : C)
60. The gas usually causing explosions in coal mines is–
(A) Hydrogen (B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Air (D) Methane (Ans : D)
61. Cotton fibers are made of–
(A) cellulose (B) starch
(C) proteins (D) fats (Ans : A)
62. Which of the following ores does not contain iron?
(A) Haematite (B) Magnetite
(C) Limonite (D) Cassiterite (Ans : D)
63. Which variety of glass is heat resistant ?
(A) Hard glass (B) Flint glass
(C) Pyrex glass (D) Bottle glass (Ans : C)
64. Which of the following is used for removing air bubbles from glass during its manufacture ?
(A) Fledspar (B) Arsenic oxide
(C) Potassium Carbonate (D) Soda Ash (Ans : B)
65. What are soaps ?
(A) Salts of silicates (B) Ester of heavy fatty acids
(C) Sodium or potassium salts of heavier fatty acids (D) Mixture of glycerol and alcohol (Ans : C)
66. In which following processes light energy is converted into chemical energy ?
(A) Respiration (B) Fermentation
(C) Photosynthesis (D) Photorespiration (Ans : C)
67. Cooking oil can be converted into vegetables ghee by the process of–
(A) Oxidation (B) Hydrogenation
(C) Distillation (D) Crystallisation (Ans : B)
68. Photosynthesis is–
(A) An exothermic process (B) An endothermic process
(C) A neutral process (D) A thermostatic process (Ans : B)
69. J. B. Sumner isolated first enzyme from Jackbeans as–
(A) amylase (B) trypsin
(C) urease (D) renin (Ans : C)
70. Enzymes are absent in–
(A) fungi (B) bacteria
(C) viruses (D) algae (Ans : C)
71. The enzymes sucrase acts on–
(A) sucrose only (B) sucrose and starch
(C) all disaccharides (D) any organic monomer (Ans : A)
72. C.T. Scanning uses–
(A) Ultrasound waves (B) Gamma rays
(C) X-rays (D) None of the above (Ans : A)
73. Chemically ‘speropolenin’ is a / an–
(A) co-polymer of carotinoid and fatty acid (B) Carbohydrate
(C) Propene (D) Lactic acid (Ans : A)
74. A mixture of salt and sand can be separated by–
(A) Sublimation (B) Dissolving water
(C) Gravity separation (D) Dry distillation (Ans : B)
75. PVC is obtained by the polymerisation of–
(A) propane (B) vinyl chloride
(C) styrene (D) Acetylene (Ans : B)
76. The most abundant metal in the earth’s crust is–
(A) Zinc (B) Copper
(C) Aluminium (D) Iron (Ans : C)
77. The gas used to extinguish fire is–
(A) Neon (B) Nitrogen
(C) Carbon dioxide (D) Carbon Monoxide (Ans : C)
78. In which of the following activities Silicon Carbide is used ?
(A) Making cement and glass (B) Disinfecting water and ponds
(C) Making castes for statues (D) Cutting very hard substances (Ans : D)
79. The two elements that are frequently used for making transistors are–
(A) Boron and Aluminium (B) Silicon and Germenium
(C) Iridium and Tungsten (D) Niobium and Columbium (Ans : B)
80. Which of the following gas is not known as green house gas ?
(A) Methane (B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Nitrous oxide (D) CFC (Ans : C)
81. Which of the following is not a neutral oxide ?
(A) Carbon Monoxide (B) Sulphur Dioxide
(C) Water (D) Nitric Oxide (Ans : B)
82. Potassium Permanganate is used for purifying drinking water, because–
(A) It dissolves the impurities of water (B) It is a sterilizing agent
(C) It is an oxidising agent (D) It is a reducing agent. (Ans : C)
83. The presence of which of the following salts in water causes corrosion in steam boilers ?
(A) Sodium Chloride (B) Magnesium Chloride
(C) Calcium bicarbonate (D) Potassium bicarbonate (Ans : B)
84. Water is a good solvent of ionic salts because–
(A) It has no colour (B) It has a boiling point
(C) It has a high dipole moment (D) It has a high specific heat (Ans : C)
85. Nuclear fission is caused by the impact of–
(A) Proton (B) Electron
(C) Neutron (D) (A) and (b) (Ans : C)
86. Which is a good nuclear fuel ?
(A) Uranium – 238 (B) Neptunium – 239
(C) Thorium – 236 (D) Plutonium – 236 (Ans : C)
87. Long distance photography is facilitated by–
(A) Visible light (B) X-rays
(C) Infra Red rays (D) Ultra violet rays (Ans : C)
88. Which of the following is used in making artificial sweetener saccharine ?
(A) Benzene (B) Toluene
(C) Phenol (D) Aniline (Ans : B)
89. Rayon is chemically–
(A) Glucose (B) Amylase
(C) Cellulose (D) Peptin (Ans : C)
90. Which of following is used as a filter in rubber tyres?
(A) Graphite (B) Coal
(C) Coke (D) Carbon Black (Ans : D)
91. Which of the following substances exhibit the property of sublimation ?
(A) Ice (B) Wax
(C) Camphor (D) Ethyl Alcohol (Ans : C)
92. Combustion is the process in which–
(A) Heat is produced (B) Light is produced
(C) Heat and Light is produced (D) None of these (Ans : C)
93. The chemical used as a fixer in photography is–
(A) Borax (B) Sodium thiosulphate
(C) Sodium Sulphate (D) Ammonium persulphate (Ans : B)
94. Vitamins are–
(A) inorganic substances which cannot be synthesized by animals
(B) inorganic by animals
(C) organic substances that cannot be generally synthesized by animals
(D) organic substances which can be commonly synthesized by animals (Ans : C)
95. Richest source of vitamin B1 (thiamine) is–
(A) cod liver oil (B) curd
(C) whole bread meal (D) eggs (Ans : C)
96. One of these vitamins is called erythrocyte maturation factor–
(A) A (B) C
(C) K (D) B12 (Ans : D)
97. Saponification involves the hydrolysis of fats and oils by–
(A) water (B) washing soda
(C) stearic acid (D) caustic soda (Ans : D)
98. Photo-synthesis is a/ an–
(A) exothermic process (B) endothermic process
(C) a neutral process (D) a thermostatic process (Ans : B)
99. Which of the following is a physical change ?
(A) oxidation (B) reduction
(C) sublimation (D) decomposition (Ans : C)
100. The process by which an organic compound breaks down into simpler compounds on heating to high temperature is known as–
(A) Aromatisation (B) Polymerisation
(C) Pyrolysis (D) Reduction (Ans : C)
1. When was the first underground railway (Metro Railway) started?
(A) 1982 (B) 1989 (C) 1984 (D) 1992 (Ans : C)
2. Shatabdi Express train was started in–
(A) 1984 (B) 1988 (C) 1990 (D) 1985 (Ans : B)
3. At which of the following places Diesel Component Works is established?
(A) Jamshedpur (B) Patiala (C) Perambur (D) Varanasi (Ans : B)
4. Which Zone is the largest in Indian Railways?
(A) Central Railway (B) Northern Railway
(C) Eastern Railway (D) Western Railway (Ans : C)
5. The railway station situated in the extreme south is–
(A) Chennai (B) Cochin (C) Kanyakumari (D) Trivandrum (Ans : C)
6. A platform surrounded by rail lines from all the four sides, is called–
(A) dock platform (B) passenger platform
(C) island platform (D) goods platform (Ans : C)
7. When was the nationalization of Indian Railways done?
(A) 1952 (B) 1950 (C) 1951 (D) 1954 (Ans : B)
8. In which year Research, Design and Standard organization was established?
(A) 1954 (B) 1957 (C) 1959 (D) 1967 (Ans : B)
9. Railway Staff College is situated at–
(A) Bangalore (B) Secundrabad (C) Chennai (D) Vadodara (Ans : D)
10. Where is the Research, Design and Standard Organisation situated?
(A) Lucknow (B) Bangalore (C) Pune (D) New Delhi (Ans : A)
11. Which is the following pairs of regional Railways and their headquarters not true?
(A) South-Central Railway - Secunderabad
(B) Central railway - Bhopal
(C) South Railway - Chennai
(D) North Railway - New Delhi (Ans : B)
12. Between which of the destinations the first Indian train was started?
(A) From Calcutta to Delhi (B) From Mumbai to Thane
(C) From Mumbai to Surat (D) From Mumbai to Madras (Ans : B)
13. When was the first train in Indian started?
(A) 1851 (B) 1852 (C) 1853 (D) 1854 (Ans : C)
14. In which Governor-General’s reign railway lines in India were established?
(A) Lord William Bentick (B) Lord Cornwallis
(C) Lord Kenning (D) Lord Dalhousie (Ans : D)
15. A station where the rail lines end, is called
(A) junction station (B) way-side-station
(C) block station (D) terminal station (Ans : D)
16. How much distance was traveled by first train of India?
(A) 33 km (B) 36 km (C) 34 km (D) 46 km (Ans : C)
17. What is the position of the Indian Railway in the world according to the length of rail lines?
(A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Fourth (Ans : D)
18. What is the length of North-Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR)?
(A) 4300 Km (B) 3700 Km (C) 4290 km (D) 5298 km (Ans : B)
19. The headquarters of North-Eastern railway is situated at–
(A) Mumbai (V.T) (B) Guwahati (C) Gorakhpur (D) New Delhi (Ans : C)
20. When was the North-Eastern frontier Railway (NEFR) established?
(A) 15th Jan, 1958 (B) 15th Jan, 1955
(C) 2nd Jan, 1956 (D) 14th April, 1952 (Ans : A)
21. The headquarters of North -Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR) is–
(A) Calcutta (B) Maligaon (Guwahati)
(C) Chennai (D) Gorakhpur (Ans : B)
22. In which of the following cities, the first sub-way train was started?
(A) Mumbai (B) Delhi (C) Calcutta (D) Chennai (Ans : C)
23. General Manger is responsible for–
(A) Railway Board (B) Railway Ministry
(C) Both railway Board and Railway Ministry (D) None of these (Ans : A)
24. The headquarters of South-Central Railways is situated at–
(A) Mumbai (V.T) (B) Chennai
(C) Secundrabad (D) Mumbai (Central) (Ans : C)
25. The headquarters of Northern Railway is at–
(A) New Delhi (B) Guwahati (C) Gorakhpur (D) Mumbai (V.T) (Ans : A)
26. The headquarters of South Railways is situated at–
(A) Calcutta (B) Chennai (C) Delhi (D) Mumbai (Ans : B)
27. In which institution the training of electric work is being given?
(A) Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering
(B) Indian Railways Institute of Electrical Engineering
(C) Railway Staff College
(D) Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering (Ans : B)
28. Who invented the railway engine?
(A) Charles Babbage (B) Isaac Newton
(C) James Watt (D) George Stephenson (Ans : D)
29. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering Insttitue situated?
(A) Nasik (B) Baroda (C) Jamalpur (D) Pune (Ans : C)
30. Metro Railway is functioning in which of the following Indian States?
(A) Gujarat (B) Maharashtra (C) West Bengal (D) Tamil Nadu (Ans : C)
31.The zone with the minimum length is
(A) North-Eastern Railway (B) North-Eastern Frontier Railway
(C) South-East Railway (D) South-Central Railway (Ans : B)
32. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering Institute situated?
(A) Pune (B) Chennai (C) Nasik (D) Sikandrabad (Ans : A)
33. How many training institutions of Railways are in India?
(A) Three (B) Four (C) Five (D) Six (Ans : C)
34. What is the position of the Indian Railway under the zonal system?
(A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Forth (Ans : B)
35. Which of the gauges is used in the hilly areas?
(A) Broad gauge (B) Meter gauge
(C) Narrow gauge (D) Special gauge (Ans : C)
36. Where is the extreme north of India a railway station?
(A) Jammutavi (B) Amritsar (C) Pathancoat (D) Guwahat
37. How many institutions do give suggestions for railways technology?
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four (Ans : B)
38. Diesel Locomotive Works is situated at–
(A) Perambur (B) Varanasi (C) Kapurthala (D) Bangalore (Ans : B)
39. The manufacturing of steam engine in Chittranjan Locomotive Works was stopped in–
(A) 1974 (B) 1961 (C) 1971 (D) 1973 (Ans : C)
40. The passenger bogies of the Indian Railways are manufactured at which of the following places?
(A) Kapurthala (B) Chittranjan (C) Perambur (D) Bangalore (Ans : C)
41. Indian Railways which is the largest of the Public Sector Enterprises, is divided in how many regions?
(A) 7(B) 9 (C) 8(D) 10 (Ans : B)
42. Besides Mahrashtra, Karnataka and Goa, which of the following is the fourth State for Konakan Railway Project?
(A) Kerala (B) Tamil Nadu (C) Gujarat (D) Andhra Pradesh (Ans : A)
43. Palace On Wheels train was inaugurated in which year?
(A) 1988 (B) 1972 (C) 1982 (D) 1965 (Ans : C)
44. When was the Central Railway established?
(A) 5th Nov 1951 (B) 14th Nov 1951 (C) 14th April 1951 (D) 16th August, 1951 (Ans : A)
45. Rajasthan is under which of the following railway zones?
(A) Northern region (B) Western region
(C) North-Western region (D) Central Region (Ans : B)
46. The largest national enterprise of India is–
(A) Indian Railway (B) Indian Shipyard
(C) Airways (D) None of these (Ans : A)
47. The first locomotive which was manufactured in Chittaranjan on–
(A) November 1950 (B) October 1950
(C) September 1949 (D) October 1954 (Ans : A)
48. Where is the wheel and axle plant of Indian Railways situated?
(A) Chittranjan (B) Kapurthala (C) Bangalore (D) Perambur
49. When was the Jammu City appeared on the map of Indian Railway?
(A) 1965 (B) 1963 (C) 1967 (D) 1965 (Ans : D)
50. Where is the headquarters of Central Railway situated?
(A) Mumbai (V.T) (B) Mumbai (Church Gate)
(C) Gwalior (D) Gorakhpur (Ans : A) - See more at: http://www.allexamgurublog.com/2015/05/rrb-solved-question-papers-2015-free.html#sthash.il4sUqJP.dpuf
Online applications are invited for filling up the following Non Technical Popular Categories (Graduate) Posts of various Zonal Railway/ Production Units on Indian Railways.
Name of the posts:
1. Commercial Apprentice: 703 Posts
2. Traffic Apprentice: 1645 Posts
3. Enquiry-cum-Reservation Clerk: 127 Posts
4. Goods Guard: 7591 Posts
5. Jr. Accounts Assistant-cum-Typist: 1205 Posts
6. Sr. Clerk-cum-Typist: 869 Posts
7. Assistant Station Master: 5942 Posts
8. Traffic Assistant: 166 Posts
9. Sr. Time Keeper: 04 Posts
Total No. of posts: 18252
How to Apply: Candidates to apply only through online mode.http://rrbsecunderabad.nic.in/cen_03_2015.pdf
Dates/ Slot of Common Computer Based Test: March/ May, 2016.
More Details: The advertisement giving details regarding number of vacancies, reservation, eligibility criteria, examination fee, mode of examination, age relaxation, General Instructions, Terms & Conditions and prescribed formats will be notified by the Railway Recruitment Boards in the Centralized Employment Notice No. 03/ 2015 and the same will be published in the 26th December, 2015 edition of Employment News/ Rojgar Samachar.
For More Details Visit: http://rrbsecunderabad.nic.in/cen_03_2015.pdf
