Sunday, November 19, 2017

Lucknow Metro Rail Corporation Ltd. Junior Engineering Exam Solved Paper (Exam Held on: 17-03-2016)

1. A NAND gate has– 
(A) LOW inputs and a HIGH output (B) LOW inputs and LOW output 
(C) HIGH inputs and a HIGH output (D) HIGH inputs and LOW outputs (Ans : A)

2. When the time period of observation is large the type of the error is– 
(A) Position error constant (B) Steady state error (C) Transient error (D) Half power error (Ans : B)

3. Magnetrostriction is a phenomenon where the magnetization of a ferromagnetic material leads to a change in– 
(A) magnetic susceptibility (B) physical dimensions (C) spontaneous magnetization (D) relative permeability (Ans : D)

4. When an electron jumps from the valence shell to the conduction band it leaves a gap. What is the gap called? 
(A) electron hole pair (B) recombination (C) hole (D) energy gap (Ans : D)

5. An inductor stores energy in– 
(A) electrostatic field (B) electromagnetic field (C) core (D) magnetic field (Ans : D)

6. The characteristics equation s3 – 3s2 – 3s – k = 0 stable for which value of k ? 
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 5 (D) – 6 (Ans : B)

7. The accuracy of a meter is determined by .......... deflection. 
(A) Full-scale (B) Half-scale (C) One-fourth of full scale (D) One-tenth of full scale (Ans : A)

8. Dead zone of an instrument is– 
(A) the largest change of input quantity for which there is no output of the instrument 
(B) the time required by an instrument system to begin to respond to a change in measurement 
(C) the unmeasured quantity which is more than the maximum range of the instrument 
(D) change in measuring time (Ans : C)

9. (– 1/2 – j0) is the centre of a constant N-circle in G-plane. Phase-angle will be– 
(A) 45° (B) 180° (C) 0° (D) 90° (Ans : C)

10. A device that converts from decimal to binary numbered is called– 
(A) encoder (B) decoder (C) CPU (D) converter (Ans : A)

11. The magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnetic material is– 
(A) less than one but positive (B) greater than one (C) equal to zero (D) less than zero (Ans : B)

12. A circuit in which the output is the ramp pulses for an input of square pulses then– 
(A) It is an integrating circuit with low RC (B) It is a differentiating circuit with high RC 
(C) It is a differentiating circuit with low RC (D) It is an integrating circuit with high RC (Ans : B)

13. Convert the binary number 1001.0010 to decimal– 
(A) 9.125 (B) 125 (C) 90.125 (D) 12.5 (Ans : A)

14. The following circuit gives the output– 

(A) ABCDE (B) [{C(A + B)D}E'] (C) C(A + B)DE (D) [C(A + B)D + E'] (Ans : C)

15. ........... cannot be used to measure pressure. 
(A) Strain gauge (B) Pyrometer (C) LVDT (D) Pirani gauge (Ans : B)

16. In case of synchro error detector, the electrical zero position of control-transformer is obtained when angular displacement between rotors is– 
(A) 45° (B) 180° (C) 90° (D) Zero system (Ans : B)

17. Convert the binary number 1011010 to hexadecimal– 
(A) SF (B) SC (C) SA (D) SB (Ans : C)

18. The super-position theorem is applicable to– 
(A) both current and voltage (B) current only (C) voltage only (D) current, voltage and power (Ans : D)

19. What causes the depletion region? 
(A) diffusion (B) barrier potential (C) ions (D) doping (Ans : A)

20.Exclusive-OR (XOR) logic gates can be constructed from what other logic gates? 
(A) AND gates, OR gate!" NOT gates (B) OR gates and NOT gates 
(C) OR gates only (D) AND gates and NOT gates (Ans : A)

21. Figure below represent a– 

(A) Power diode (B) Triac thyristor (C) Capacitive diode (D) Diac trigger (Ans : B)

22. What will be the state of a silicon diode if the voltage drop across it is about 0.7 V ? 
(A) Forward bias (B) Zener region (C) Reverse bias (D) No bias (Ans : *)

23.How many orbiting electron does the germanium atom have? 
(A) 4 (B) 41 (C) 14 (D) 32 (Ans : A)

24. What is the resistor value of an ideal diode in the region of conduction? 
(A) infinity (B) undefined (C) 0 Ω (D) 5 kΩ (Ans : C)

25. If an induction type energy meter runs fast, it can be slowed down by– 
(A) adjusting the position of braking magnet and making it come closer to the centre of the disc (B) lag adjustment 
(C) light load adjustment (D) adjusting the position of braking magnet and making it move away from the centre of the disc (Ans : D)

26. The maximum value of a controller output is 100 V and is obtained when the input error is IV. If the controller is working at 20% proportional band, the error and output will be respectively? 
(A) 1 V and 20 V (B) 0.2 V and 120 V (C) 1 V and 120V (D) 0.2 V and 100 V (Ans : D)

27. If there are b branches and n nodes, the number of equations will be– 
(A) n-1 (B) b-n (C) b (D) b-n-I (Ans : D)

28. Liquid crystal material is used in– 
(A) Ultrasonic amplification and display devices (B) Display devices and thermal sensors 
(C) Thermal sensors and transducers (D) Transducers and ultrasonic amplification (Ans : B)

29. Root loci starts from– 
(A) poles and ends on zero (B) poles and ends on infinity (C) zeros and ends on pole (D) zeros and ends on infinity (Ans : D)

30. For a design of the binary counter preferred types of flip-flop is– 
(A) SR type (B) JK type (C) Latch (D) D-type (Ans : B)

31. In P type semiconductor material, minority carriers would be– 
(A) slower (B) holes (C) dopants (D) electrons (Ans : D)

32 What unit is used to represent the level of diode forward current IF? 
(A) mA (B) μA (C) pA (D) p/A (Ans : A)

33. The radio-communication spectrum is divided into bends based on– 
(A) Amplitude (B) Cost and hardware (C) Frequency (D) Transmission media (Ans : C)

34. Which material may also be considered a semiconductor element? 
(A) carbon (B) argon (C) ceramic (D) mica (Ans : A)

35. Forward bias of a silicon P-N junction will produce a barrier voltage of approximately how many volts? 
(A) 0.7 (B) 0.8 (C) 0.3 (D) 0.2 (Ans : A)

36. An accurate ammeter must have a resistance of– 
(A) high value (B) very high value (C) low value (D) very low value (Ans : D)

37. Calculate the power dissipation of a diode having Id = 40 mA– 
(A) 28 mW (B) 28 W (C) undefined (D) 280 mW (Ans : A)

38. An ohmmeter is a– 
(A) Moving iron instrument (B) Moving coil instrument 
(C) Dynamometer instrument (D) Moving iron and moving coil both (Ans : D)

39 Which capacitance dominates in the forward-bias region? 
(A) Transition (B) Diffusion (C) Depletion (D) Drift (Ans : B)

40. A positive AND gate is also a negative– 
(A) NAND gate (B) AND gate (C) NOR gate (D) OR gate (Ans : D)

41. The main difference between the electronic and electrical instruments is that an electronic instrument has– 
(A) a digital readout (B) transducer (C) an electron device (D) an indicating device (Ans : A)

42. The transducer in a measurement system is the–
(A) signal-conditioning device (B) output element (C) input element (D) processing device (Ans : A)

43. Ultrasonic amplification through electron-photon interaction is generally achieved using a– 
(A) Superconductor (B) Piezoelectric material 
(C) Paramagnetic material (D) Elemental semiconductor (Ans : A)

44. 8085 has .......... software restarts and ......... hardware restarts. 
(A) 6, 6 (B) 10, 5 (C) 7, 5 (D) 8, 4 (Ans : D)

45. Convert the decimal number 151.75 to binary– 
(A) 11010011.01 (B) 10010111.11 (C) 00111100.00 (D) 10000111.11 (Ans : B)

46. In a cable capacitor, voltage gradient is maximum at the surface of the– 
(A) Conductor (B) Sheath (C) Dielectric (D) Earth  (Ans : A)

47. The temperature coefficient of resistance of an insulator is– 
(A) Negative and independent to temperature 
(B) Negative and dependent on temperature 
(C) Positive and dependent on temperature 
(D) Positive and independent of temperature (Ans : B)

48. Piezoelectric materials owe their property to the– 
(A) Lack of axis of symmetry (B) Pressence of a centre of a symmetry 
(C) Lack of a centre of symmetry (D) Presence of axis of summetry (Ans : D)

49. In a CRO, the time base signal is a– 
(A) High frequency sinusoidal waveform (B) Square waveform 
(C) High frequency saw tooth waveform (D) Rectangular waveform (Ans : C)

50. In case of delta connected circuit, when one resistor is open, power will be– 
(A) unaltered (B) reducedto1/3 (C) reduced by 1/3 (D) zero (Ans : A)

51. The output will be a LOW for any case when one or more inputs are zero is a– 
(A) NOT gate (B) NAND gate (C) OR gate (D) AND gate (Ans : D)

52. Highest operating frequency can be expected in the case of– 
(A) JFET (B) All the other given option have nearly same frequency 
(C) MOSFET (D) Bipolar transistor (Ans : D)

53. Which one of the following compensation is adopted for improving transient response of a negative unity feedback system? 
(A) gain compensation (B) both phase lag compensation and gain compensation 
(C) phase lag compensation (D) phase lead compensation (Ans : B)

54. The resistances 15.3 Ω, 7Ω, 13Ω and 4.7Ω are connected series. The equivalent resistance will be– 
(A) 40 Ω (B) 25 Ω (C) 0.025 Ω (D) 0.04 Ω (Ans : A)

55. Which of the examples below expresses the commutative law of multiplication? 
(A) A.B = B.A (B) A + B = B + A (C) A.(B.C) = (A.B).C (D) A.B = B + A (Ans : C)

56. An ammeter is a– 
(A) recording instrument (B) integrating instrument (C) absolute instrument (D) secondary instrument (Ans : C)

57. A unit impulse function on differentiation results in– 
(A) unit triplet (B) unit doublet (C) unit parabolic function (D) unit ramp function (Ans : D)

58. Elements with 1, 2 or 3 valence electrons usually make excellent– 
(A) neutral (B) conductor (C) semiconductor (D) insulator (Ans : B)

59. The major cause of creeping in an energy meter is– 
(A) over-compensation for friction (B) excessive voltage across the potential coil 
(C) mechanical vibrations (D) stray magnetic fields (Ans : D)

60. The term zero effect is associated with– 
(A) quality control (B) radars (C) transistors (D) transmission lines (Ans : A)

61. Standard TTL has a multiple emitter input transistor and a ........... output. 
(A) Register (B) Totem-pole (C) Bipolar (D) Transistor (Ans : B)

62. Regarding VTVM which of the following statement is incorrect? 
(A) It is usually plugged into power supply line (B) It measures AC volts 
(C) Its ohm rangers are usually up to RX 1000 Ω (D) It cannot measure directly (Ans : D)

63. Which one of following is a disadvantage of proportional controller? 
(A) It has very simple implementation (B) It produces offset (C) It makes response faster (D) It destabilises the system (Ans : D)

64. In N-type material majority carriers would be– 
(A) dopants (B) electrons (C) holes (D) slower(Ans : B)

65. What is the result when a decimal 5238 is converted to base 16 ? 
(A) 327.375 (C) 1476 (B) 12166 (D) 1388 (Ans : C)

66. The observation that a bubbled input OR gate interchangeable with a bubbled output AND gate is referred to as– 
(A) the commutative law of addition (B) de-morgan's second theorem 
(C) a kamaugh map (D) the associative law of multiplication (Ans : B)

67. Ionization within a P-N junction causes a layer on each side of the barrier called the– 
(A) forward voltage (B) junction (C) depletion region (D) barrier voltage (Ans : C)

68. The coercive force in ferromagnetic material is related to the–
(A) Intercept on the negative H-axis of the B-H loop 
(B) Area enclosed by the B-H loop 
(C) Maximum value of B on the B-H loop 
(D) Intercept on the positive B-axis of the B-H loop (Ans : B)

69. An electronic instrument essentially consists of– 
(A) a transducer (B) an indicating device (C) a digital readout (D) an electron device (Ans : C)

70. When is a P-N junction formed? 
(A) Whenever there is a forward voltage drop 
(B) The point at which two opposite doped materials come together 
(C) In a large reverse biased region (D) In a depletion region (Ans : B)

71. What is an energy gap? 
(A) The energy equal to the energy acquired by an electron passing a IV electric field 
(B) Energy difference between conduction band and valence band 
(C) An energy level at which an electron can exist 
(D) The space between two orbital shell (Ans : B)

72. A potentiometer may be used for– 
(A) Measurement of energy (B) Measurement of resistance 
(C) Calibration of ammeter and voltmeter (D) Measurement of current (Ans : C)

73. The relaxation time (τ) in a perfect dielectric is– 
(A) 0 (B) 1 < τ < ͚  (C) 1 (D)  ͚  (Ans : B)

74. As compared to oscillators an inverter provides– 
(A) low voltage output (B) low frequency output (C) noiseless output (D) distortionless output (Ans : D)

75. The multiplier and the meter coil in a voltmeter are connected in– 
(A) No connection (B) Mixed (C) Series (D) Parallel (Ans : D)

76. The ceramic dielectrics used in electrical engineering include– 
(A) Cermet and Silicide (B) Porcelain and Cermet (C) Cordierite and Porcelain (D) Silicide and Cordierite (Ans : C)

77. A coil having an inductance of 75 H is carrying a current of 100 A. If the current is reduced to zero in 0.2 second, the self-inductance e.m.f. will be– 
(A) 375 V (B) 500 V (C) 125 V (D) 750 V (Ans : A)

78. What is the decimal value of the hexadecimal number 777 ? 
(A) 1911 (B) 19 (C) 191 (D) 19111 (Ans : A)

79. How many truth table entries are necessary for a four-input circuit ? 
(A) 16 (B) 12 (C) 4 (D) 8 (Ans : A)

80. Which semi-conductor device acts like a diode and two resistors? 
(A) SCR (B) Diac (C) Triac (D) UJT (Ans : D)

81. Intrinsic semiconductor material is charaterized by a valence shell of how many electrons? 
(A) 1 (B) 6 (C) 2 (D) 4 (Ans : D)

82. How many 3 to 8 line decoder are required for a 1 of 32 decoder? 
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 2 (D) 1 (Ans : A)

83 A P-N junction depicts a closed switch when it– 
(A) cannot overcome its barrier potential (B) is reversed biased 
(C) has a low junction resistance (D) has a wide depletion region (Ans : C)

84. The room temperature resistivity (in ohm-meter) of pure silicon is– 
(A) 3 (B) 3000 (C) 300 (D) 30 (Ans : C)

85. The effect of adding poles and zero can be determined quickly by– 
(A) Nicholas chart (B) Bode plot (C) Root locus (D) Nyquist plot (Ans : B)

86. What type of magnetic behaviour is observed in a type I super-conductor? 
(A) perfect diamagnetism (B) perfect ferrimagnetism (C) perfect ferromagnetism (D) perfect paramagnetism (Ans : C)

87. If the instrument is to have a wide range, it should have– 
(A) square-law scale (B) linear scale (C) logarithmic scale (D) exponential scale (Ans : B)

88. The diffused impurities with how many valence electrons are called donor atoms? 
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 0 (D) 5 (Ans : D)

89. The period of a periodic wave is– 
(A) expressed in volts (B) the same as the frequency 
(C) the time required to complete one cycle (D) measured in wavelengths (Ans : C)

Sunday, November 5, 2017

North Central Railway Recruitment of 446 Apprentice Posts

North Central Railway, Jhansi Division invites applications for the recruitment of Act Apprentice 446 vacancies.

Trade:
1. Fitter: 220
2. Welder (Gas & Elect): 11 Posts
3. Mechanic(DSL): 72 Posts
4. Machinist: 11 Posts
5. Painter (Genl): 11 Posts
6. Carpenter: 11 Posts
7. Electrician: 99 Posts
8. Lohar/ Black Smith: 11 Posts



Age limit: 15 to 24 years of age as on 30.11.2017.


Qualification: Must have passed 10th class examination or its equivalent (under 10+2 system) with minimum 50% marks and possess essential ITI passed certificate in related trade.


How to Apply: Completed applications forms should be sent to Office of the Divisional Railway Manager, Personnel Dept. (R&D Section), North Central Railway, Jhansi U.P.


Last date for receiving of application: 30.11.2017.


For Recruitment Notification Click Here

Central Railway, Mumbai - 2196 Apprentice Posts

Railway Recruitment Cell- Central Railway, Mumbai invites applications for engagement of 2196 Apprentices Posts. 

Trades: Mechanic (Diesel), Electrician, Welder (Gas & Electric), Machinist, Tailor, Painter (General), Fitter, Carpenter, Electronics Mechanic, Tool & Die maker, Mechanic (Motor Vehicle), Turner, Sheet Metal Worker, Instrument Mechanic, Laboratory Assistant (CP), Programming & Systems Administration Assistant.


Mumbai Cluster:
1. Carriage & Wagon (Coaching) Wadi Bunder, Mumbai: 252 Posts
2. Kalyan Diesel Shed: 50 Posts
3. Kurla Diesel Shed: 56 Posts
4. Sr.DEE(TRS) Kalyan: 179 Posts
5. Sr.DEE(TRS) Kurla: 192 Posts
6. Parel Workshop: 274 Posts
7. Matunga Workshop: 445 Posts
8. S&T Workshop, Byculla: 54 Posts


Bhusawal Cluster:
1. Carriage & Wagon Depot: 81 Posts
2. Electric Loco Shed, Bhusawal: 68 Posts
3. Electric Locomotive Workshop, Bhusawal: 96 Posts
4. Manmad Workshop: 48 Posts
5. TMW Nasik Road: 48 Posts


Pune Cluster:
1. Carriage & Wagon Depot: 30 Posts
2. Diesel Loco Shed: 121 Posts


Nagpur Cluster: 
1. Electric Loco Shed, Ajni: 48 Posts
2. Carriage & Wagon Depot: 59 Posts


Solapur Cluster: 
1. Carriage & Wagon Depot: 73 Posts
2. Kurduwadi Workshop: 21 Posts



Age limit: 15 - 24 years of age as on 01.11.2017.


Qualification: Passed 10th class examination (under 10+2 examination system) with minimum 50% marks and also possess National Trade Certificate in the notified trade issued by the National Council for Vocational Training or Provisional Certificate issued by National Council for Vocational Training/ State Council for Vocational Training.


Mode of Selection: Basis of simple average of marks in the matriculation and ITI.


Application fees: Rs.100


Applying mode: Online.


Last date for receipt of application: 30.11.2017.


For Online Application Click Here

Sunday, August 27, 2017

Railway Police Force (RPF) Recruitment of 19952 Constable Posts


Railway Police Force (RPF), there are 19952 vacant posts for Constable, for these posts desired and eligible candidates are invited online application. 

More and important information for RPF Recruitment 2017 is given below–

RPF Recruitment 2017 : 19952 Constable Post


Total Post :
 19952 


Name of Post : Constable


Education Qualification : Candidates who have completed 10th or equivalent from a recognized Institute are Eligible to apply RPF Recruitment 2017


Age Limit : 18 to 25 Years as per 01 July 2017. Candidates who are belonging to reservation category can claim for the relaxation in the age as per the government rules.


Pay Scale : Rs.5200-20200/- + Grade Pay Rs. 2000/-


Application Fee :
 General/OBC : Rs.40/-Other Candidates (ST/SC/Ex-s/PWD) Application Fee : Nil


Selection Process : Selection of Candidates will made through Written Test, Physical Test, Medical Test, Viva Voice. After the Selection of Candidates they Will Be Called for Interview Process


How to Apply : Eligible persons must fill the application form available at www.indianrailways.org and may send to addresses of the Nodal Chief Security Commissioners before 14-Oct-2017. Please ensure your eligibility through official notification before apply. 


Advertisement No. : 01/2017

Important Dates:
Application Online Start : Available 
Last Date for Registration : 14 October, 2017 
Last Date Fee Payment : 14 October, 2017

Important Links:
Download Notification : Click Here 
Application Form & Official Website : http://www.indianrailways.gov.in

Friday, August 25, 2017

Rail Coach Factory Recruitment of 101 Apprentices Posts

 Under Rail Coach Factory, Kapurthala, invited applications for recruitment of 101 Apprentices posts.

Rail Coach Factory Recruitment 2017 : 101 Apprentices Posts 


Total Post :
 101 
Name of Post : 
1. Fitter : 25
2. Welder (G&E) : 27
3. Machinist : 08 
4. Painter (G) : 07
5. Carpenter : 07 
6. Mechanic (Motor Vehicle) : 04 
7. Electrician : 14 
8. Electronic Mechanic : 02
9. AC & Ref Mechanic : 07

Education Qualification : Candidates should posses 10th or ITI or its equivalent with minimum 50% marks in aggregate from a recognized Organisation or Board.


Age Limit : 15 to 24 years As on 21.09.2017. Age relaxation is applicable as per government rules.


Application Fee : General/OBC : 100/- & For All Other Candidates (PH/ST/SC/Women) Application Fee is : Nil


Selection Process : All Eligible Candidates will Be Selected Based on Their Performance In Merit List .


How to Apply : All Eligible and Interested candidates may fill the online application through official website http://www.rcf.indianrailways.gov.in before or on 21st September 2017.


Advertisement No. : A-1/2017 

Important Dates:
Application Online Start : 23 August, 2017 
Last Date for Registration : 21 September, 2017 
Last Date Fee Payment : 21 September, 2017

Important Links:
Download Notification : Click Here 
Apply Online : Click Here 
Official Website : http://www.rcf.indianrailways.gov.in

Wednesday, August 9, 2017

Rail Tel Corporation -Recruitment of 50 Technical Posts

Rail Tel Corporation of India Limited, New Delhi invites applications for the following Technical Posts on Contract basis.

Post details:
1. Project Director/ Enterprise Architect: 02 Posts
2. Senior Architect - OS/ Server/ Hardware (Infra): 02 Posts 
3. Senior Architect-Database Ad ministration: 01 Post
4. Senior ERP Techno Functional - Oracle: 04 Posts 
5. Technical Lead - SAP: 01 Post 
6. Technical Lead - .Net: 03 Posts 
7. Technical Lead - Android Applications: 01 Post 
8. Technical Lead - Java Developer: 05 Posts
9. Technical Lead - Network Bandwidth: 04 Posts
10. Technical Consultant - OS/ Server/ Hardware Admin/ Java/.Net/ DBA/ Oracle/ ERP/ SAP/ Storage/ Security/ Network: 25 Posts
11. Office Admin - Coordinator/ Training Manager: 02 Posts

Qualification: B.E/ B.Tech/ B.Sc/ MCA/ Diploma (Relevant discipline)/ Any Degree with experience.

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Selection Process: Based on written examination (Aptitude Test) and Interview.

How to Apply: Apply online only.


Last date for online registration: 22.08.2017. 


For Online Application Click Here

For more Details Click Here

Sunday, July 23, 2017

South Eastern Railway (SER) Recruitment of Goods Guard and Station Master Posts

South Eastern Railway (SER) announce recruitment for the vacant posts of Goods Guard : 285, Station Master : 125.

SER Recruitment 2017 : 410 Station Master, Goods Guard Posts 
Total Post :
 410 

Name of Post : 
1. Station Master : 125
2. Goods Guard : 285

Education Qualification : Candidates should have done Bachelor Degree or its equivalent qualification from a recognized university. 

Age Limit : Candidates upper age limit should not exceed 42 Years. Age relaxations will be applicable as per the rules. 

Pay Scale : Rs. 9300 – 34,800/- with Grade Pay of Rs. 4200/-. (Post 1), Rs. 5200 – 20,200/- with Grade Pay of Rs. 2800/-. 

Selection Process :
 All Eligible Candidates will Be Selected Based on Their Performance In Written Exam/Aptitude Test, Medical Exam .

How to Apply : All Eligible and Interested candidates Can Download application Form through official website http://www.ser.indianrailways.gov.in. After Filling The application form, candidate must send hard copy of application along with relevant testimonials (Mentioned In Detailed Advertisement) to the following Address before or on 14th August 2017.

Advertisement No. :
 SER/P/-HQ/RRC/GDCE/2017 

Important Dates:
Application Online Start : 18 July, 2017 
Last Date for Registration : 14 August, 2017 

Important Links
Download Notification & Application Form : PDF Download 
Official Website : http://www.ser.indianrailways.gov.in

Eastern Railway Recruitment of Cultural Quota

Eastern Railway (ER)  announces Recruitment for Cultural Quota Posts.

Post Name :
Cultural Quota
Qualification : All Interested Candidates should have completed 12th, Degree/Diploma from recognized university.
Age Limit : Maximum age limit is 40 years As on 01st January 2018age relaxation as per the govt rules.
Pay Scale : Rs.5200-20200/- With Grade Pay Rs.1900/-. For Post Wise Pay Scale Details Go To Official Notification.
Selection Process : written test.
Examination Fee : Candidates belonging General /OBC have to pay Rs. 500/- & Rs. 250/- (for SC, ST, Ex-servicemen, PWD, Women, Minorities and Economically Backward Classes) through Indian Postal Order drawn in favor of FA & CAO, Eastern Railway, Kolkata payable at Kolkata.
How To Apply : All Interested candidates may apply in prescribed application form along with attested copies of relevant documents, Income Certificate, two recent passport size photograph, two self-addressed envelopes of size (23” X 10”) & application fee send to the below mentioned address.
Address :
The Chief Personnel Officer, Eastern Railway Headquarters, Eastern Railway Sports Association’s (ERSA) Office, 17, Netaji Subhas Road (Fairlie Place), Kolkata- 700001.on or before 07.08.2017 upto17.30 hrs.
Important Dates :
Last Date for Submission of Application form : 07th August 2017

Tuesday, July 11, 2017

GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS FOR ALL EXAMS

1. In July 2017 Narendra Modi became the first Indian Prime Minister to visit which of the following
countries?
1) Germany
2) Netherlands
3) Israel
4) Portugal
5) Iran

2. Who took charge as the 21st Chief Election Commissioner of India on July 6, 2017?
1) Om Prakash Rawat
2) Achal Kumar Jyoti
3) H.S. Brahma
4) Ratan Watal
5) None of these

3. The National Health Policy-2017 aims at increasing life expectancy to 70 years from 67.5 by?
1) 2022
2) 2020
3) 2025
4) 2030
5) 2040

4. What is India's rank in terms of representation of women in Parliament, according to a report published by the Inter Parliamentary Union (IPU) and UN Women?
1) 133
2) 122
3) 143
4) 148
5) 136

5. Bhadla Solar Park is located in which of the following States?
1) Rajasthan
2) Madhya Pradesh
3) Gujarat
4) Haryana
5) Himachal Pradesh

6. State Bank of India has signed an agreement with KfW Development Bank for $274 million loan
facility to finance affordable housing segment in India. KfW Development Bank is based in?
1) Spain
2) Portugal
3) Germany
4) France
5) Italy

7. Which of the following has been ranked as the top Indian city as per Mercer's Quality of Living rankings 2017?
1) Hyderabad
2) Pune
3) New Delhi
4) Mumbai
5) Chennai

8. The extension of BrahMos missile's range became possible after India joined the group of?
1) NSG
2) Australia Group
3) Wassenaar Arrangement
4) MTCR
5) None of these

9. Which is the second largest party in the Punjab Assembly?
1) Congress
2) Bharatiya Janata Party
3) Aam Aadmi Party
4) Shiromani Akali Dal
5) None of these

10. Which private bank has launched an Electronic Virtual Assistant (EVA), an artificial intelligencedriven chatbot, for customer services?
1) HDFC Bank
2) Axis Bank
3) Kotak Mahindra Bank
4) ICICI Bank
5) None of these

11. Who was appointed Chairman of National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK) in March 2017?
1) Manhar Valjibhai Zala
2) Dalip Kallu
3) Narain Dass
4) Bezwada Wilson
5) None of these

12. Who has been named the 2017 Artist of the Year by the Harvard Foundation?
1) Shakira
2) Viola Davis
3) Sharon Stone
4) Halle Berry
5) Salma Hayek

13. The bill to regulate marriages of minority Hindus became a law in which of the following countries in March 2017?
1) Bangladesh
2) Malaysia
3) Pakistan
4) Indonesia
5) Afghanistan

14. The Whanganui River was recognized by the Parliament of which of the following countries as a
"legal person" in March 2017?
1) China
2) Laos
3) Vietnam
4) New Zealand
5) South Africa

15. Which of the following High Courts has decreed that the rivers Ganga and Yamuna as well as
their tributaries and sister bodies be declared "legal and living entities"?
1) Delhi High Court
2) Allahabad High Court
3) Uttarakhand High Court
4) Himachal Pradesh High Court
5) Jharkhand High Court

16. Who was appointed as the Chairman of the Central Water Commission (CWC) in March 2017?
1) K.P. Kharat
2) Ajay Singh
3) M.K. Jain
4) Narendra Kumar
5) None of these

17. Who is the first Indian singer to make it to the Madame Tussauds Museum in New Delhi?
1) Sonu Nigam
2) K.J. Yesudas
3) Shreya Ghoshal
4) Shaan
5) Sunidhi Chauhan

18. Who has completed 50 years as a legislator in the Kerala Assembly on March 15, 2017?
1) P. Sreeramakrishnan
2) V.S. Achuthanandan
3) Ramesh Chennithala
4) K.M. Mani
5) Oommen Chandy

19. Park Geun-hye was removed as the President of which of the following Asian countries over a graft scandal in March 2017?
1) Vietnam
2) Thailand
3) South Korea
4) North Korea
5) Singapore

20. George Olah of USA passed away on March 8, 2017. He was awarded the 1994 Nobel Prize in?
1) Physics
2) Chemistry
3) Medicine
4) Literature
5) Economics

21. Prime Minister Narendra Modi dedicated ONGC Petro addition Ltd's (OPaL) Rs.30,000 crore plant to the nation on March 7, 2017. It is in Dahej in?
1) Gujarat
2) Rajasthan
3) Jharkhand
4) Goa
5) Madhya Pradesh

22. Which of the following universities will host the 105th session of the Indian Science Congress in January 2018?
1) Guru Nanak Dev University, Amritsar
2) Osmania University, Hyderabad
3) Jawaharlal Nehru University, New Delhi
4) Thapar University, Patiala
5) Sri Venkateshwara University, Tirupati

23. The Executive Director of the United Nations Environment Program (UNEP) visited India recently. What is his name?
1) Jens Stoltenberg
2) Trond Giske
3) Erik Solheim
4) Jonas Gahr Store
5) None of these

24. Where are the headquarters of the United Nations Environment Program?
1) Bonn, Germany
2) Geneva, Switzerland
3) New York, USA
4) Nairobi, Kenya
5) Rome, Italy

25. Where is the Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Ltd (GRSE) located?
1) Mumbai
2) Kochi
3) Kolkata
4) Visakhapatnam
5) Chennai

26. The popular singer Rihanna has been named the 2017 Harvard University Humanitarian of the
Year. She belongs to which of the following countries?
1) Cuba
2) Colombia
3) Barbados
4) Bahamas
5) Jamaica

27. American surgeon Thomas Starzl passed away on March 4, 2017. In 1967 he performed the world's first successful human?
1) Liver transplant
2) Heart transplant
3) Kidney transplant
4) Spleen transplant
5) None of these

28. Rene Preval died on March 3, 2017. He twice served as the President of?
1) Panama
2) Peru
3) Paraguay
4) Haiti
5) Chile

29. Which country has declared March 25 as 'Genocide Day'?
1) Israel
2) Rwanda
3) Bangladesh
4) Syria
5) Germany

30. Shahpur Kandi Dam project is located in which of the following States?
1) Haryana
2) Uttarakhand
3) Punjab
4) Jammu & Kashmir
5) Uttar Pradesh

31. Which of the following teams won the Santosh Trophy football tournament on March 26, 2017?
1) West Bengal
2) Goa
3) Mizoram
4) Kerala
5) None of these

32. Plastic notes will be introduced in five cities in a field trial. Which of the following cities is not one among them?
1) Kochi
2) Mysore
3) Shimla
4) Bhubaneswar
5) Srinagar

33. Which State has introduced 'KCR Kit', a scheme designed for the welfare of women and newborn?
1) Kerala
2) Karnataka
3) Telangana
4) Tamil Nadu
5) None of these

34. Which State has launched 'Pratibimba', a comprehensive webbased platform showcasing the
government's performance and achievements to the citizens?
1) Kerala
2) Andhra Pradesh
3) Telangana
4) Karnataka
5) Odisha

35. Which country has the highest women members in Parliament?
1) Rwanda
2) Bolivia
3) Cuba
4) Iceland
5) Nicaragua

36. Where is the Head Office of the Asian Boxing Confederation (ASBC) located?
1) Doha, Qatar
2) Manama, Bahrain
3) Astana, Kazakhstan
4) Tokyo, Japan
5) Tashkent, Uzbekistan

37. Lesia Tsurenko won the Mexican Open tennis women's singles title in March 2017. She belongs to?
1) Ukraine
2) Bulgaria
3) Latvia
4) Russia
5) Georgia

38. Pablo Cuevas won the Brazil Open tennis title in March 2017. He is a tennis player from?
1) Mexico
2) Chile
3) Brazil
4) Uruguay
5) Venezuela

39. Where were the 2017 Special Olympics World Winter Games held?
1) South Korea
2) UK
3) Austria
4) USA
5) Germany

40. Which Indian city hosted the 22nd edition of the Asian Athletics Championships in July 2017?
1) Pune
2) Ranchi
3) New Delhi
4) Bhubaneswar
5) Chennai

ANSWERS: 
1) 3 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 5) 1 6) 3 7) 1 8) 4 9) 3 10) 1
11) 1 12) 2 13) 3 14) 4 15) 3 16) 4 17) 3 18) 4 19) 3 20) 2
21) 1 22) 2 23) 3 24) 4 25) 3 26) 3 27) 1 28) 4 29) 3 30) 3
31) 1 32) 5 33) 3 34) 4 35) 1 36) 3 37) 1 38) 4 39) 3 40) 4