Saturday, November 20, 2010

RRB AJMER ASM SOLVED PAPER 2009


1. The Buland Darwaja is related to

(1) Shershah

(2) Babur

(3) Akbar

(4) Jehangir

Ans. (3)

2. The Military Games were held in Hyderabad from October 17, 2007 to October 27, 2007.Which country won the highest number of medals?

(1) China

(2) Russia

(3) India

(4) Japan

Ans. (2)

3. The Railways gets the maximum income from

(1) Goods freight

(2) Passenger’s fares

(3) Advertisement

(4) None of these

Ans. (1)

4. What is sound?

(1) Energy

(2) Heat

(3) Magnet

(4) Ray

Ans. (1)

5. The chief source of heat energy is

(1) Sun light

(2) Biogas

(3) Electricity

(4) Natural gas

Ans. (1)

6. The Aravalli hills are located in

(1) Madhya Pradesh

(2) Rajasthan

(3) Assam

(4) Jharkhand

Ans. (2)

7. A plant can be disease resistant due to

(1) Pesticides

(2) Virus

(3) Fungi

(4) Bacteria

Ans. (1)

8. Which of the following Chief Ministers served for the longest tenure?

(1) Lalu Prasad

(2) Jyoti Basu

(3) Ms. Mayawati

(4) M. Karunanidhi

Ans. (2)

9. Which of the following straits separates Europe from Africa?

(1) Berring

(2) Dobar

(3) Gibralter

(4) Mulucca

Ans. (3)

10. The UN Climate Change conference was organized in Bali from December 3, 2007 to December 14, 2007 for 12 days in which 1000 people participated .Bali is situated in

(1) Indonesia

(2) Malaysia

(3) Morocco

(4) China

Ans. (1)

11. The description of caste system is found in

(1) Rig Veda

(2) Sam Veda

(3) Yajurva Veda

(4) Atharva Veda

Ans. (1)

12. Who is called the Akbar of Kashmir?

(1) Janulabeddin

(2) Sikandar

(3) Queen Didda

(4) Emperor Sangram Singh

Ans. (1)

13. The Border Road Organization comes under

(1) Defense

(2) Urban Development

(3) Corporate sector

(4) Private sector

Ans. (1)

14. Which of the following corporations was started first by the Government of India?

(1) Damodar Valley Corporation

(2) National Thermal Power Corporation

(3) National Hydel Power Corporation

(4) All the above

Ans. (1)

15. Which of the following is not a part of three gems of the Buddhism?

(1) Buddha

(2) Sangha

(3) Dhamma

(4) Ahimsa

Ans. (4)

16. Who was the first Indian to reach Antarctica?

(1) Rakesh Sharma

(2) G.S. Sirohi

(3) B.K. Dutta

(4) K. Karuna Nautial

Ans. (2)

17. A saturated solution at S.T.P. is

(1) Colorless

(2) Green

(3) Red

(4) Red and green

Ans. (1)

18. The pure element in the following is

(1) Glass

(2) Diamond

(3) Lime

(4) Salt

Ans. (2)

19. What is gypsum?

(1) Lime

(2) Bleaching powder

(3) Blue vitriol

(4) Ammonium chloride powder

Ans. (3)

20. Bones of horses of Harappan civilization were found at

(1) Lothal

(2) Harappa

(3) Surkotada

(4) Mohanjodero

Ans. (3)

21. What is Ag-mark?

(1) Technique to increase agricultural productivity

(2) Green Revolution

(3) Test of purity in the production of vegetable oil etc.

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

22. Who has taken the highest number of wickets in Test Cricket?

(11) Muttiah Muralitharan

(2) Shane Warne

(3) Anil Kumble

(4) Shoaib Akhtar

Ans. (1)

23. In 1947, 532 princely states were annexed to India except three. Which of the following was not among the three princely states?

(1) Junagarha

(2) Bhavnagar

(3) Hyderabad

(4) Kashmir

Ans. (4)

24. Which of the following gases is used to prepare Ammonia gas?

(1) Nitrogen and oxygen

(2) Nitrogen and oxide

(3) Nitrogen and hydrogen

(4) Nitrogen and carbon

Ans. (3)

25. In which of the following states of India, per capita income is highest?

(1) Orissa

(2) Assam

(3) Manipur

(4) Kerala

Ans. (4)

26. By import of — the inflation has been caused in India?

(1) Wheat

(2) Rice

(3) Sugar

(4) Petroleum

Ans. (4)

27. The meeting of Commonwealth Nations was held in Uganda on November 25, 2007. Who was elected its General Secretary?

(1) Mahesh Sharma

(2) Kamlesh Sharma

(3) Bimalesh Sharma

(4) Kailash Sharma

Ans. (2)

28. In which country the Hindu temples were razed to the ground in

December, 2007?

(1) Indonesia

(2) Malaysia

(3) Mauritius

(4) Afghanistan

Ans. (2)

Directions (29 — 33) : Read the following passage carefully and then answer the following questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage by choosing the best answer to each question out of given four options.

On hearing the news of the massacre at Jallianwala Bagh, Udham Singh did not attend his school but took a train to Armritsar and visited the spot. There, he stood for several minutes in a trance, picked up the soil, rubbed it on his forehead and put some in a phial. He fasted that night. According to his family members he placed fresh flowers on the holy dust every morning, drawing inspiration from it. One early morning he went to the river Ravi and pledged that he would Colour its waters with the colour of his blood, to create what he called the freedom’s flood. With this aim in view in 1921, he first landed in Africa. From there he went to America to meet the Indian revolutionaries working for the liberation of the motherland.

In 1923, he landed in England. In 1928, he returned to India in response to an urgent call from Bhagat Singh. When he reached Lahore, he was detained for violation of the Arms Act. He was released after four years rigorous imprisonment. In 1935, he escaped to Germany by giving a slip to the police. From Berlin, he reached Paris and purchased a revolver. He kept it ready for action and managed to reach London again. Opportunity came on March 13, 1940 when Sir Michael O’ Dwyer was to speak at a seminar in the Caxton Hall. As Sir Michael turned to resume his seat after the speech. Udham Singh pulled out his revolver and fired at him, Sir Michael died without a shriek. Udham

Singh was arrested and produced before the court on April 2, 1940. The court passed death sentence on him and he was hanged at Pentonville Prison, London on July 3, 1940.

29. Udham Singh went to America where he

(1) mobilized the Indian citizens for the liberation of the motherland

(2) collected sufficient funds to fight colonialism

(3) met fellow citizens working for the same cause

(4) went sight-seeing

Ans. (3)

30. Where did Udham Singh buy the weapon which was used for killing Sir Michael?

(1) Paris

(2) Lahore

(3) London

(4) Berlin

Ans. (1)

31. Udham Singh shot at Sir Michael O’Dwyer in

(1) Jallianwala Bagh

(2) Armritsar

(3) London

(4) Paris

Ans. (3)

32. When Udham Singh was arrest ed in Lahore, he was charged for

(1) instigating his countrymen against the Englishmen

(2) his links with anti-British forces

(3) concealing his identity and carrying on underground activities

(4) possessing unlicensed arms and ammunition

Ans. (4)

33. Udham Singh returned to India in 1928 mainly because he was:

(1) short of funds to meet his expenses

(2) to produce some arms from Lahore

(3) to escape from the British police

(4) called by a revolutionary in India

Ans. (4)

34. In the following question a word has been spelt in four different ways one of which is correct. Choose the correctly spelt word:

(1) Assemblage

(2) Asemblage

(3) Assemmblage

(4) Accemblage

Ans. (1)

35. In the following sentence, fill in the blank by choosing correct option from the given alternatives

The documents are available ? inspection.

(1) of

(2) about

(3) with

(4) for

Ans. (4)

36. In the following question, choose the Adjective.

(1) Preference

(2) Gifted

(3) Genius

(4) In vain

Ans. (2)

37. Write the synonym of the word ‘Consummate’.

(1) Novice

(2) Ambiguous

(3) Perfect

(4) Imperfect

Ans. (3)

38. Find out, which part of the following sentence has a grammatical or idiomatic error in it.

They have

(1)/held the championship

(2)/ since the past

(3)/ two years.

(4)

Ans. (3)

39. In the following question, a word has been spelt in four different ways, one of which is correct. Choose the correctly spelt word.

(1) demmurage

(2) demurrage

(3) demarrage

(4) demurage

Ans. (2)

40. In the following question, an idiomatic expression and its four possible meanings are given. Find out the correct meaning of the idiomatic expression and choose your correct answer from the given four choices:

Play one’s cards well

(1) A good gambler displaying skills

(2) A magician showing magic of cards

(3) Use means effectively

(4) A game of gamble

Ans. (3)

41. Out of the four alternatives, choose the one that can he substituted for .the given words/ phrase and mark it as your answer.

A cock and bull story

(1) An unbelievable gossip

(2) A children’s fable

(3) A quarrelsome dialogue

(4) A competition between un equal people

Ans. (1)

42. Choose the part of the following sentence containing error and mark it as your answer:

The number of orders(1). /

for that item have(2). /

increased greatly; several of them(3). /

have come from Egypt(4).

Ans. (2)

43. Identify the part of the following sentence containing an error and choose it as your answer.

In America(1)/

Presidential elections(2) /

is held every four years(3)

No error(4)

Ans. (3)

44. In the following sentence, fill in the blank by choosing correct option from the given alternatives:

‘Ram has annoyed his boss. He ? have to leave the job.

(1) might

(2) will

(3) ought to

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

45. In the following question, three words having different meanings of a certain word are given. Select that word from the answer choices marked (1), (2), (3) and (4).

Witness, Observer; Onlooker

(1) spectator

(2) present

(3) biased

(4) careful

Ans. (1)

46. For the following word written in capital letters, four words are listed below as (1),

(2) (3) and (4). Out of these, choose the word nearest in meaning to it as your answer:

VINDICATE

(1) approve

(2) justify

(3) express

(4) exonerate

Ans. (2)

47. In the following sentence, the bold part contains an error. Answer choice (1) repeats the original, other three are 1ifferent. If you think that the original sentence displays the best way of wording the bold part, choose your answer (1): otherwise select the best alternative from the other three choices.

“Parents and teachers are be coming increasingly concerned about protecting children and the drugs which are available to them, and several parent teacher organizations, dedicated to educating children about the dangers of drug addiction, have recently been formed.”

(1) protecting children and the drugs which are available to them

(2) protecting of children and the drugs which are available to them

(3) protecting children from the drugs available to them

(4) protecting children from the drugs availability to them

Ans. (3)

48. From the given four answer choices, select the answer that gives the clearest, most exact sentence, but do not change the meaning Of the bold part of original sentence.

Such people never have and never will be trusted.

(1) never have and never will be trusted

(2) never have and will be trust ed

(3) never have been trusted and never will be trusted

(4) never have and anyone trust them and never will have anyone

Ans. (3)

49. Which one of the following statements is untrue?

(1) The sea-floor is older than the land

(2) The first rocks were formed as a result of the cooling o. molten matter

(3) Sedimentary rocks are also called aqueous rocks because they were formed by

the agency of water

(4) Stalactites and stalagmites are deposits of lime found in caves

Ans. (3)

50. The main hydro electric power potential of the Indus river system lies in India and not in Pakistan because:

(1) the need for hydro-electric power is greater in India than in Pakistan

(2) India has superior technology to develop hydro—electric power

(3) India has a greater labour force to develop hydro electric power

(4) The mountain stages of these rivers lie in India

Ans. (4)

51. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List-I List-II

(a) Cotton 1. Madhya Pradesh

(b) Gram 2.Gujarat

(c) Black Pepper 3. West Bengal

(d) Pine apple 4. Kerala

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 2 1 3 4

(3) 1 2 4 3

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (1)

52. In the production of tidal energy the maximum potential exists at:

(1) Bhavnagar

(2) Digboi

(3) Cochin

(4) Ladakh

Ans. (1)

53. The National Highway system is the responsibility of

(1) State governments

(2) Central governments

(3) Central and State governments

(4) Local body governments

Ans. (3)

54. Supersonic jets cause pollution by thinning of

(1) Sulphur dioxide layer

(2) Carbon dioxide layer

(3) Ozone layer

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

55. Which one of the following is commonly called Edible sponge mushroom’?

(1) Sargassum

(2) Morchella

(3) Agaricus

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

56. Which of the following is not an essential function of the skin in the human body?

(1) protects the internal or of the body

(2) acts as a sensory organ

(3) regulates the temperature of the body

(4) gives shape to the body

Ans. (4)

57. The device used for converting alternating current to direct current is called

(1) Inverter

(2) Rectifier

(3) Transmitter

(4) Transformer

Ans. (2)

58. Water is used in hot water bottles because:

(1) it is easily obtained in pure form

(2) it has high specific heat

(3) it is cheaper and not harmful

(4) it is easy to heat water

Ans. (2)

59. Mention the ray which appears to originate outside the earth.

(1) cosmic ray

(2) the ultra-violet ray

(3) the alpha ray

(4) the beta ray

Ans. (1)

60. A person cannot see objects clearly which are nearer than 75 cms from his eyes. What disease is he suffering from?

(1) Astigmatism

(2) Colour-blindness

(3) Myopia

(4) Hypermetropia

Ans. (4)

61. Oil rises up to wick in a lamp because

(1) oil is volatile

(2) oil is very light

(3) of the surface tension phenomenon

(4) of the diffusion of oil through the wick

Ans. (3)

62. Following Railway Training Institutes have been indicated with the cities where they are located. Find out which is wrongly matched.

(1) Railway Staff College — Vadodara

(2) Indian Railway Institute of Civil Engineering — Pune

(3) Indian Railway Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering —Jamalpur

(4) Indian Railway Institute Signal and Tele Communication Engineering — Mumbai

Ans. (4)

63. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given four options:

List -I List-II

(Zonal Railway) (Head Quarter)

(a) North Central Railway 1. Bilaspur

(b) South-East Central Railway 2. Allahabad

(c) West Central Railway 3. Jabalpur

(d) East Coast Railway 4. Bhubaneshwar

Code.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 3 4

(2) 1 2 3 4

(3) 2 3 4 1

(4) 4 1 3 2

Ans. (1)

64. In Indian Railways Network, approximately how many passenger service vehicles (passenger coaches) are working?

(1) 44,100

(2) 33.000

(3) 49,000

(4) 54,000

Ans. (2)

65. Who is the principal head of the Department of a Station Master in Zonal Railway Head Quarter Office?

(1) Chief Commercial Manager

(2) Chief Safety Officer

(3) Chief Personnel Officer

(4) Chief Operations Manager

Ans. (4)

66. Two new zones named North Western Railway and East Central Railway become functional/ operational from?

(1) October 1, 2002

(2) April 1, 2002

(3) April 1, 2003

(4) October 1, 2003

Ans. (1)

67. In one of the following State, though the Konkan Railway line does not pass through it, yet it has capital share in the K.R. Corporation. Name the State.

(1) Karnataka

(2) Goa

(3) Tamil Nadu

(4) Kerala

Ans. (3)

68. All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the Vice- President of India are decided by the

(1) High Court of a State

(2) Chief Election Commissioner

(3) Supreme Court of India

(4) President of India

Ans. (3)

69. Consider the following functionaries

1. Union Cabinet Secretary

2. Chief Election Commissioner

3. Union Cabinet Ministers

4. Chief Justice of India

Their correct sequence, in the order of precedence is

(1) 3, 4, 2, 1

(2) 4, 3, 1, 2

(3) 4, 3, 2, 1

(4) 3. 4, 1, 2

Ans. (3)

70. The basic structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that

(1) Certain features of the Constitution are so essential to it that they cannot be abrogated

(2) Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged or taken away

(3) The Constitution cannot be amended except in accordance with the procedure prescribed in Article 368

(4) The Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended

Ans. (1)

71. Which of the following enjoys the constitutional status?

1. Finance Commission

2. Planning Commission

3. Zonal Council

4. National Development Council

5. Election Commission

6. University Grants Commission

(1) 1, 3 and 5

(2) l and 5

(3) 1, 2, 5 and 6

(4) 1, 3, 5 and 6

Ans. (2)

72. The ultimate responsibility of taking due action on the comments of the Comptroller and Auditor General vests with

(1) President of India

(2) Supreme Court of India

(3) Parliament of India

(4) National Development Council

Ans. (1)

73. Mohit said to Neelam, “Your only brother’s son is my wife’s brother.” How is Neelam related to the wife of Mohit?

(1) aunt

(2) mother-in-law

(3) sister

(4) cannot be determined

Ans. (1)

74. A tourist drives 10 km towards East and turns to right hand side and takes a drive of another 3 km. He then drives towards West (turning to his right) another 3 km. He then turns to his left and walks another 2 km. Afterwards, he turns to his right and travels 7 km. How far is he from his starting point and in which direction?

(1) 10 km—East

(2) 9 km— North

(3) 8 km— West

(4) 5 km—South

Ans. (4)

75. The question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. Decide the ‘Strong’ and ‘Weak’ arguments and give answer out of four given options ‘1’, ‘2’, ‘3’ and ‘4’

Question:

Should all the professional colleges in India be encouraged to run their own courses without affiliation to any university?

Arguments:

(I) Yes, this is the only way to create more opportunities for those who seek professional training.

(II) No, this will dilute the quality of professional training as all such colleges may not be equipped to conduct such courses.

(1) Only argument I is strong

(2) Only argument II is strong

(3) Both I and II are strong

(4) Neither I nor II is strong

Ans. (2)

76. Statement: “Please do not wait for me; I may be late, start taking lunch as soon as the guests arrive.” — a message from a director of a company to his office managers.-

Assumptions:

I. Keeping guests waiting is not desirable.

II. Lunch may not be ready in time.

Consider the above statement and two assumptions to decide as to which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Choose the correct answer from the given options 1, 2, 3 and 4.

(1) Only assumption I is implicit

(2) Only assumption II is implicit

(3) Both I and II are implicit

(4) Neither I nor II is implicit

Ans. (1)

77. How many Asian countries are there in Common wealth?

(1) 49

(2) 51

(3) 54

(4) 57

Ans. (3)

78. Khan Abdul Gaffer Khan’s which action; performed in favour of Indian independence, but was against the English men?

(1) Formation of Lal-Kurti sena

(2) Assassination of an Englishman

(3) Trade of red shirts

(4) Demand for Pakhtunistan

Ans. (1)

79. On selling an article for Rs. 270 there is a gain of 12.5%. What

is its cost price?

(1) Rs. 240

(2) Rs. 220

(3) Rs. 210

(4) Rs. 250

Ans. (1)

80. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1: 2: 3. The greatest angle will be

(1) 60°

(2) 30°

(3) 90°

(4) 75°

Ans. (3)

81. The compound interest on Rs. 2500 at the rate of 6% p.a. after 2 years will be

(1) Rs. 309

(2) Rs. 318

(3) Rs. 320

(4) None of these

Ans. (1)

82. (999)2 – (998)22=?

(1) 1995

(2) 1998

(3) 1997

(4) 1992

Ans. (3)

83. A man covers a distance of 6 km at the rate 4 kmph and other 4 km at 3 kmph. His average speed is

(1) 9&13/7 kmph

(2) 3&9/17 kmph

(3) 5&9/17 kmph

(4) 3 & 5/9 kmph

Ans. (2)

84. The cost price of an article is Rs. 7840. To gain 7%, the article should be sold at

(1) Rs. 8388.80

(2) Rs. 8000

(3) Rs. 8383.80

(4) Rs. 8833.80

Ans. (1)

85. Two pipes can fill a tank in 10 minutes and 30 minutes respectively and a third pipe can empty the full tank in 20 minutes. If all the three pipes are opened simultaneously, the tank will be

(1) 10 minutes

(2) 8 minutes

(3) 7 minutes

(4) None of these

Ans. (4)

86.(4*4*4+3*3*3)/13 =

(1) 7

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4

Ans. (1)

87. (6.25) 4÷ (6.25)3 =?

(1) 6.25

(2) 6.025

(3) 6.0025

(4) 6.002

Ans. (1)

88. The ratio between the ages of Ram and Mohan is 4:5 and that between Mohan and Anil is 5:6. If sum of the ages of three be 90 years, how old is Mohan?

(1) 24 years

(2) 20 years

(3) 30 years

(4) 25 years

Ans. (3)

89. The per cent of 2 /45 is?

(1) 3&4/9 %

(2) 4&4/9 %

(3) 4 %

(4) 9 %

Ans. (2)

90. If a x=b;b y=c and cz =a , then xyz =?

(1) 1

(2) -1

(3) 2

(4) 2

Ans. (1)

91. Match the name of countries in List-I with years of beginning of railways in List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List -I List—II

(Countries) (Year of beginning of railways)

(a) Britain 1. 1853

(b) America 2. 1829

(c) India 3. 1825

(d) France 4. 1830

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 4 1 3 2

(3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (3)

92. The length of Indian rails is

(1) More than 5000 km

(2) More than 5630 km

(3) More than 6000 km

(4) More than 6531 km

Ans. (4)

93. Match the items of List-I with List-II and select the-correct answer by using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Largest Population) (States)

(a) Jains 1. Nagaland

(b) Buddhas 2. Rajasthan

(c) Christians 3. Maharashtra

(d) Muslims 4. Lakshadwip

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 2 3 1 4

(3) 1 2 4 3

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (2)

94. The capital of the king of Punjab Ranjit Singh was

(1) Lahore

(2) Ludhiana

(3) Mathura

(4) Sri Nagar

Ans. (1)

95. Photosynthesis does not take place in

(1) plants

(2) fungi

(3) bacteria

(4) virus

Ans. (4)

96. In nucleuic protein, Uceriotic chromosomes are alike in

(1) prophase

(2) Metaphase

(3) Anaphase -

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

97. Which type of protein is found in virus?

(1) Lyco protein

(2) Secondary protein

(3) Primary protein

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

98. In ionic solid, the velocity of electricity is

(1) fast

(2) weak

(3) less than solid

(4) less than gas

Ans. (1)

99. The largest phase in cell division is

(1) Liptotin

(2) Zagotin

(3) Pacotin

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD ASM SOLVED PAPER 2009


1. When was Television separated from Akashvani (radio) as an independent organization?

(1) 1959

(2) 1965

(3) 1976

(4) 1982

Ans. (3)

2. When water condenses into ice

(l) heat is absorbed

(2) heat is released

(3) heat remains unchanged

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

3. Which of the following inert gases is not found in atmosphere?

(1) Xenon

(2) Argon

(3) Helium

(4) Radon

Ans. (4)

4. Which of the following diffuses at the fastest rate?

(1) Solid

(2) Gas

(3) Liquid

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

5. What temperature at Celsius scale is equal to 300°K.?

(1) 30°C

(2) 27°C

(3) 300°C

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

6. The United Nations imposed sanctions on?? ­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­recently due to nuclear issue.

(1) Japan

(2) China

(3) North Korea

(4) South Korea

Ans. (3)

7. The capital of Pandya dynasty was

(1) Mysore

(2) Kanchipuram

(3) Madurai

(4) Dwarsamudra

Ans. (3)

8. Tripitak a religious scripture of

(1) Jainism

(2) Hinduism

(3) Buddhism

(4) Muslim

Ans. (3)

9 Who is the writer of ‘Adhe— Adhure’?

(1) Mohan Rakesh

(2) Premchand

(3) S.K. Tripathi ‘Nirala’

(4) Ashok Vajpayee

Ans. (1)

10. By which Constitutional amendment, fundamental duties were incorporated in the Indian Constitution?

(1) 42nd

(2) 43rd

(3) 44th

(4) 39th

Ans. (1)

11. The headquarters of Central Food Technology Research Institute is located in

(1) Delhi

(2) Anand

(3) Ahmedabad

(4) Mysore

Ans. (4)

12. Which is common in Jainism and Buddhism both?

(1) Non-violence

(2) Violence

(3) Fast

(4) Way of worship

Ans. (1)

13. Light Year is used to measure

(1) intensity of light

(2) mass

(3) time

(4) astronomical distance

Ans. (4)

14. Which of the following is used in the ripening of fruits?

(1) Ethylene

(2) Nitrogen

(3) Carbon dioxide

(4) Hydrogen

Ans. (1)

15. Which of the following was’ involved in Alipore bomb case?

(1) Aurobindo Ghosh

(2) P.C. Benerjee

(3) Bipin Chandra Pal

(4) Subhash Chandra Bose

Ans. (1)

16. The Sikh Guru Arjun Dev was assassinated during the rule of

(1) Humayun

(2) Akbar

(3) Shahjehan

(4) Jehangir

Ans. (4)

17. In an organic compound, which element is generally present in addition to hydrogen?

(1) Phosphorus

(2) Sulphur

(3) Nitrogen

(4) Carbon

Ans. (4)

18. The process by which energy is generated In’ the sun is the

(1) fusion of Uranium

(2) fusion of Helium

(3) fusion of Hydrogen

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

19. What is the source of electric energy in an artificial satellite?

(1) a mini nuclear reactor

(2) a dynamo

(3) a thermopile

(4) solar cells

Ans. (4)

20. Ramanuja preached

(1) Ahimsa

(2) Gyan

(3) Bhakti

(4) The vedas

Ans. (3)

21. Who did not participate in the revolt of 1857?

(1) Rani Lakshmibai

(2) Bhagat Singh

(3) Tantya Tope

(4) Nana Saheb

Ans. (2)

22. On October 17, 1940, the individual Satyagraha was inaugurated by

(1) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

(2) Jawaharlal Nehru

(3) M.K. Gandhi

(4) Acharya Vinoba Bhave

Ans. (4)

23. The biggest producer of fish in the world is

(1) China

(2) Russia

(3) Japan

(4) Norway

Ans. (1)

24. In which state is Silent Valley located?

(1) Tamil Nadu

(2) Kerala

(3) Assam

(4) Arunachal Pradesh

Ans. (2)

25. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not?

(1) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(2) Prime Minister

(3) President

(4) Parliamentary Committee

Ans. (1)

26. Solid carbon dioxide is called

(1) soft ice

(2) dry ice

(3) white ice

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

27. When 1 kg of a liquid is converted from liquid to vapour, the absorbed heat is called (1) latent heat of vaporization.

(2) latent heat of fusion of ice

(3) latent heat of sublimation

(4) None of these

Ans. (1)

28. Should all universities start taking on-line admission with immediate effect at all levels in the entire country?

(i) No, because every student has no easy access to internet

(ii) Yes, it will free the students and their parents from long standing problem of knocking at the doors of different colleges and queuing up.

(1) Only argument (i) is strong

(2) Only argument (ii) is strong

(3) Neither argument (i) nor (ii) is strong

(4) Both the arguments (i) and (ii) are strong

Ans. (4)

29. Product Fair and Lovely is related to

(1) Rocket Benkisar

(2) ITC

(3) P and G

(4) HLL

Ans. (3)

30. Should government make it compulsory that all private medical institutions be included in the general admission test conduct ed by the government?

(i) No, private institutions should have the right so that they decide their own admission strategy that is more suitable for work management.

(ii) Yes, all medical institutions whether private or government should adopt same ad mission standard.

(1) Only argument (i) is strong

(2) Only argument (ii) is strong

(3) Either argument (i) or (ii) is strong

(4) Neither argument (i) nor (ii) is strong

Ans. (1)

31. In case the President of India decides to resign, he will address his letter of resignation to

(1) Prime Minister

(2) Chief Justice

(3) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(4) Vice-President

Ans. (4)

32. The metal extracted from Bauxite is

(1) Silver

(2) Copper

(3) Manganese

(4) Aluminum

Ans. (4)

33. They Cyclone represent a position of atmosphere in which

(1) Low pressure in the centre and high pressure around

(2) There is high pressure in the centre and low pressure around

(3) There is low pressure all around

(4) None of these

Ans. (1)

34. ‘Sea of Tranquility’ is the name given to

(1) Atlantic Ocean

(2) A specific area of Antarctica

(3) A specific area on moon’s surface

(4) None f these

Ans. (4)

35. Capital of Pallavas was

(1) Arcot

(2) Kanchi

(3) Malkhed

(4) Banvasi

Ans. (2)

36. Onam is an important festival of

(1) Tamil Nadu

(2) Kerala

(3) Andhra Pradesh

(4) Karnataka

Ans. (2)

37. How much does our body contain water by mass?

(1) 65%

(2) 70%

(3) 60%

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

38. What determines the sex of a child?

(1) Chromosomes of the father

(2) Chromosomes of the mother

(3) RH factor of the parents

(4) Blood group of the father

Ans. (1)

39. The two civilizations which helped in the formation of Gandhara School of Arts are:

(1) Indian and Roman

(2) Indian and Egyptian

(3) Greek and Roman

(4) Indian and Greek

Ans. (1)

40. ‘Thinkpad’ is a laptop associated with which of the following companies?

(1) HP

(2) TCS

(3) Infosys

(4) IBM

Ans. (1)

41. The first summit of SAARC was held at

(1) Kathmandu

(2) Colombo

(3) New Delhi

(4) Dhaka

Ans. (4)

42. The wire of flash bulb is made of

(1) Copper

(2) Barium

(3) Magnesium

(4) Silver

Ans. (3)

43. The curves showing the volume temperature behaviour of gases plotted at different fixed pressures are called

(1) isochors

(2) isobars

(3) V.T.P. curves

(4) isocurves

Ans. (2)

44. Project Tiger was launched in

(1) 1973

(2) 1976

(3) 1978

(4) 1983

Ans. (1)

45. How many letters in the word TRYST have as many letters between them as in the alphabet?

(1) None

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4

Ans. (1)

46. From the alternatives, select the set which is most alike the set (23, 29, 31).

(1) (17, 21, 29)

(2) (31, 37, 49)

(3) (13, 15, 23)

(4) (41, 43, 47)

Ans. (4)

47. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

13 13 65 585 7605 129285?

(1) 2456415

(2) 2235675

(3) 2980565

(4) 2714985

Ans. (4)

48. If “VEHEMENT” is written as “VEHETNEM” then in that code how will you code. “MOURN FUL”?

(1) MOURLUFN

(2) MOUNULFR

(3) OURMNFUL

(4) URNFULMO

Ans. (1)

49. MOLLIFY is to APPEASE as APPURTENANCE is to?

(1) gratify

(2) avarice

(3) accessory

(4) amend

Ans. (3)

50. Praduman is older than Janaki; Shreshtha is older than Kshama; Ravindra is not as old as Shreshtha but is older than Janaki. Kshama is not as old as Janaki.

Who is the youngest?

(1) Praduman

(2)Janaki

(3) Shreshtha

(4) Kshama

Ans. (4)

51. In a row of children facing North, Bharat is eleventh from the right end and is third to the right of Samir who is fifteenth from the left end. Total how many children are there in the row?

(1) 29

(2) 28

(3) 30

(4) 27

Ans. (2)

52. Which number is missing?

1, 9, 25, 49?

(1) 121

(2) 81

(3) 16

(4) 169

Ans. (2)

53. In the word CALIBRE, the previous letter in the English alpha bet replaces each consonant and each vowel is replaced by the next letter and then the order of letters is reversed, which letter will be third from the right end?

(1) A

(2) C

(3) B

(4) K

Ans. (4)

54. How many such digits are there in the number 57683421, each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number, as they will be when arranged in descending order within the number?

(1) One

(2) Two

(3) Three

(4) More than three

Ans. (4)

Directions (55, 56, 57) : In the following questions there are two words to the left of the sign (::). which are connected in some way. The same relationship exists between the third word and one of the four alternatives under it. Find the correct alternative in each case.

55. Medicine : Sickness: : Book:?

(1) Ignorance

(2) Knowledge

(3) Author

(4) Teacher

Ans. (1)

56. River: Dam: : Traffic:?

(1) Signal

(2) Vehicle

(3) Motion

(4) Lane

Ans. (4)

57. Session: Concludes: : ? : Lapses

(1) Leave

(2) Permit

(3) Agent

(4) Policy

Ans. (4)

58. If 16 = 11, 25 = 12, 36 = 15, then 49 =

(1) 14

(2) 20

(3) 19

(4) 17

Ans. (2)

59. Pick out the stranger in the following:

(1) The Ramayan

(2) The Mahabharata

(3) The Geeta

(4) Godan

Ans. (4)

60. KEATS = 56, SHELLEY = 86, BROWNING =?

(1) 45

(2) 37

(3) 50

(4)102

Ans. (4)

Directions (61—62): What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value)

61. (9321 + 5406 ÷ 1001) (498 + 929 + 660) =?

(1) 13.5

(2) 4.5

(3) 16.5

(4) 7.5

Ans. (4)

62. 561204 x .58 =? x 55555

(1) 606

(2) 646

(3) 586

(4) 716

Ans. (3)

63. The difference between the greatest number and the smallest number of 5 digits formed by 0, 1, 2, 3 and 4 using all but. once is:

(1) 32976

(2) 32679

(3) 32769

(4) None of these.

Ans. (1)

64. Area of a parallelogram whose base is 9 cm and height 4 cm is ? sq cm.

(1) 9

(2) 4

(3) 36

(4) 13

Ans. (3)

65. The number which is neither prime nor composite is

(1) 0

(2) 1

(3) 3

(4) 2

Ans. (2)

66. The length of a room is three times its breadth. If the perimeter of the room is 64 cm, then its breadth is ?cm.

(1) 64

(2) 32

(3) 16

(4) 8

Ans. (4)

67. Aditi read 4/5 th of Tintin comic book which has 100 pages. How many pages of the

book is not yet read by Aditi?

(1) 40

(2) 60

(3) 80

(4) 20

Ans. (4)

68. What is the meaning of the word ‘beckon’?

(1) gestictilate

(2) did not signal

(3) did not call

(4) invite

Ans. (1)

69. A box contains coins (equal number of every one) of rupee and half rupee, coins of 25 paise, 10 paise 5 paise value, 2 paise value and one paise value. The total value of coins in the box is Rs. .1158. Find the number of coins of each value.

(1) 500

(2) 400

(3) 700

(4) 600

Ans. (4)

70. The area of a rhombus with diagonals 12cm arid 20cm is — sq cm.

(1) 120

(2) 12

(3) 20

(4) 240

Ans. (1)

71. A piece of road is one kilo- meter in length. We have to supply lamp posts. One post at each end, distance between two consecutive lamp posts is 25 meters The number of lamp posts required is:

(1) 41

(2) 51

(3) 61

(4) 42

Ans. (1)

72. There are 800 students in a class. On one particular day, if 1 of the students were absent; 10

How many students were present?

(1) 700

(2) 650

(3) 720

(4) 750

Ans. (3)

73. The quotient in a division sum is 403. The divisor is 100 and the remainder is 58, the dividend is

(1) 40458

(2) 34058

(3) 43058

(4) 40358

Ans. (4)

74. A labourer was engaged for 25 days on the condition that for every day, he works, he will be paid Rs 2 and for every day, he is absent he will be fined 50 paise.

If he receives only Rs. 37.50, find the number of days he was absent.

(1) 5

(2) 6

(3) 7

(4) 4

Ans. (1)

75. Which least number should be added to 2600 to make it a perfect square?

(1) 3

(2) 9

(3) 1

(4) 5

Ans. (3)

76. The unit of radioactivity is

(1) megavolt

(2) curie

(3) weber

(4) quark

Ans. (2)

77. When 782 is subtracted from the square of a number, the answer is 6460. What is that number?

(1) 109

(2) 113

(3) 112

(4) 115

Ans. (3)

78. The difference between 42% and 28% of a number is 210. What will be 59% of that number?

(1) 900

(2) 420

(3) 885

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

79. Ellora caves of Maharashtra were built during the rule of

(1) Rashtrakuta

(2) Pallava

(3) Pal

(4) Chola

Ans. (1)

80. The first split in Indian National Congress took place at

(1) Surat

(2) Ca1cutta

(3) Allahabad

(4) Madras

Ans. (1)

81. Gingerisa

(1) transformed flower

(2) transformed root

(3) transformed stem

(4) transformed leaf

Ans. (3)

82. The famous Kalinga war was fought near

(1) Udaygiri

(2) Nauli

(3) Balasore

(4) Barabati

Ans. (1)

83. Mig fighter plane manufacturing unit in Orissa is located at

(1) Brahmapur

(2) Sunaveda

(3) Cuttack

(4) Sambalpur

Ans. (2)

Directions (84—85): Choose the correct passive voice of the sentence at the question place.

84. I remember my father taking me to the zoo

(1) I remember taken to the zoo by my father

(2) I remember being taken to the zoo by my father

(3) I remembered my father taking me to the zoo

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

85. Have you shut the door?

(1) Has the door been shut by you?

(2) Have the door been shut by you?

(3) Has the door been shut?

(4) Have the door being shut by you?

Ans. (1)

Directions (86 – 87) Choose the single word substitution for the group of words.

86. The motive to earn money

(1) merchant

(2) mercenary

(3) matinee

(4) materialistic

Ans. (2)

87. The state of being without wife

(1.) saint

(2) bigot

(3) celibacy

(4) bigamy

Ans. (3)

Directions (88—90): In the following questions there is an error in the one part of each sentence. Choose that part.

88. A towny man (1)/gets (2)/a lot of (3)/comforts (4).

Ans. (1)

89. Standing (1)/on the roof (2) helicopter(3)/flew over me (4)

Ans. (1)

90. A motor car which (1) / weighs less then (2) / two tons may be(3) / driven across the bridge (4)

Ans. (2)

Directions (91—95): Fill In the blanks with appropriate words.

91. A third world — will destroy everything.

(1) fight

(2) battle

(3) war

(4) avenge

Ans. (3)

92. He accepted with thanks some humble presents ? me.

(1) of

(2) from

(3) with

(4) by

Ans. (2)

93. Education helps us ? ourselves to even unfavorable circumstances.

(1) adapt

(2) adept

(3) adopt

(4) except

Ans. (1)

94. Several goats were sacrificed at the ? .

(1) alter

(2) altar

(3) allusion

(4) illusion

Ans. (2)

95. The news is too good ? be credible.

(1) to

(2) for

(3) than

(4) with

Ans. (1)

96. The antonym of the word ‘crude’ is

(1) dear

(2) refined

(3) shallow

(4) wild

Ans. (2)

97. The synonym of the word ‘sparked’ is

(1) flickered

(2) flashed

(3) enlivened

(4) provoked

Ans. (2)

98.

(1) 4

(2) 0.5

(3) 1

(4) None of these

Ans. (1)

99. If 32 = 2x then x = ?

(1) 15

(2) 4

(3) 5

(4) 8

Ans. (3)

100. Fill in the next number in the series.

2 5 8 11 14 ?

(1) 18

(2) 17

(3) 19

(4) 16

Ans. (2)

Wednesday, November 17, 2010

North Eastern Railway Recruitment 2010

Details for North Eastern Railway Recruitment 2010. The notification has been issued for the various posts of Ex-Servicemen Quota in Group ‘D’. As the North Eastern Railway recruitment board is doing its best job to provide the career opportunity in this latest vacancy opening project for 2010-2011. All the interested candidates can send their applications according to the requirement of the board as details given below:-

  • Trackman/ Gangman , Engineering, Total: 452 Posts
  • LC Porter , Operating, Total: 20 Posts
  • Helper-II/ Khalasi/ Malaria Khalasi/ Lab Assistant , Mechanical, Electrical, Signal, Medical, Engineering, Total: 180 Posts
  • Gateman/ Trolleyman/ Keyman , Engineering, Operating, Total: 38 Posts
  • Hammal , Commercial, Total: 16 Posts
  • Safaiwala , Medical, Commercial, Mechanical, Total: 32 Posts
  • Helper-II , Mechanical (ELW/Varanasi), Total: 32 Posts
  • Helper-II/ Mali / Peon , RDSO Lucknow, Total: 36 Posts
  • Safaiwala, RDSO/ Lucknow, Total: 17 Posts
Send applications before the closing date 15/12/2010

All information in details can be downloaded from this Advertisement link for North Eastern Railway Recruitment 2010

Friday, November 5, 2010

RRB SELECTION PROCEDURE


1. All selections made by the Railway Recruitment Boards are purely based on merit position obtained by the candidates in the written examinations subject to reservations for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes. Viva-voce tests (interviews) have been done away except in the four categories indicated in para 5 below.

2. All written examinations are of multiple choice objective type.There will be negative marking, 1/3 mark will be deducted for every wrong answser.

3. The syllabus for the written examinations is generally commensurate with the qualifications prescribed for the post.

4. The questions will be in General Knowledge/General Intelligence and Reasoning and Analytical abilities and in the technical/professional subjects wherever technical/professional qualifications are prescribed. In addition in certain categories like Clerks, Probationary Station Masters, Commercial/Traffic Apprentices/Junior Accounts Assistants etc., questions in English/Hindi language can also be asked.

5. The type of selections for some of the categories is given below. The list is illustrative and not exhaustive.

1.
Safety category posts like Probationary Assistant Station Masters, Assistant Loco Pilot etc.
Single Stage written Examination followed by Aptitude test. Candidates have to qualify in both the tests.
2.
Non Technical Popular Categories like Clerks, Traffic and Commercial Apprentices, Enquiry-cum-Reservation Clerks, Junior Accounts Assistants etc.
Two Stage written examination. Final selection will be based on the merit position Obtaining in the second stage examination. Candidates competing for clerical categories have to pass a qualifying typewriting examination in Hindi or English.
3.
Technical categories like Section Engineers, Junior Engineers, Technicians, Para-medical categories etc.
Single stage written examination.
4.
Raj Bhasha Assistants
Single stage written examination followed by qualifying translation test.
5.
Junior Stenographers
Single stage written examination followed by shorthand test
6.
Teachers, Law Assistants, Physiotherapists and Telephone Operators
Single stage written examination followed by interview

Note: Even in categories where selection is through a single stage examination, the Railway Recruitment Board can prescribe a second stage examination depending upon the number of candidates, administrative exigencies etc. In such cases final selection will be on the basis of the merit position of the second stage examination.

After the final results are announced, the selected candidates have to report to the office of the Railway Recruitment Board on a nominated day for verification of their original certificates. If they are unable to attend the verification on the nominated day, they are given a second opportunity. If a candidate does not attend the verification even on the second occasion, his candidature is cancelled.

Candidature of candidates who cannot produce the necessary documentary proof in support of the minimum educational/technical qualifications, age, community etc. is also cancelled.

A final panel containing the list of selected candidates is thereafter prepared. The names in this panel are recommended to the South Central or East Coast Railway for appointment.

Wednesday, November 3, 2010

RRB AJMER ASM EXAM SOLVED PAPER


1. The Buland Darwaja is related to

(1) Shershah

(2) Babur

(3) Akbar

(4) Jehangir

Ans. (3)

2. The Military Games were held in Hyderabad from October 17, 2007 to October 27, 2007.Which country won the highest number of medals?

(1) China

(2) Russia

(3) India

(4) Japan

Ans. (2)

3. The Railways gets the maximum income from

(1) Goods freight

(2) Passenger’s fares

(3) Advertisement

(4) None of these

Ans. (1)

4. What is sound?

(1) Energy

(2) Heat

(3) Magnet

(4) Ray

Ans. (1)

5. The chief source of heat energy is

(1) Sun light

(2) Biogas

(3) Electricity

(4) Natural gas

Ans. (1)

6. The Aravalli hills are located in

(1) Madhya Pradesh

(2) Rajasthan

(3) Assam

(4) Jharkhand

Ans. (2)

7. A plant can be disease resistant due to

(1) Pesticides

(2) Virus

(3) Fungi

(4) Bacteria

Ans. (1)

8. Which of the following Chief Ministers served for the longest tenure?

(1) Lalu Prasad

(2) Jyoti Basu

(3) Ms. Mayawati

(4) M. Karunanidhi

Ans. (2)

9. Which of the following straits separates Europe from Africa?

(1) Berring

(2) Dobar

(3) Gibralter

(4) Mulucca

Ans. (3)

10. The UN Climate Change conference was organized in Bali from December 3, 2007 to December 14, 2007 for 12 days in which 1000 people participated .Bali is situated in

(1) Indonesia

(2) Malaysia

(3) Morocco

(4) China

Ans. (1)

11. The description of caste system is found in

(1) Rig Veda

(2) Sam Veda

(3) Yajurva Veda

(4) Atharva Veda

Ans. (1)

12. Who is called the Akbar of Kashmir?

(1) Janulabeddin

(2) Sikandar

(3) Queen Didda

(4) Emperor Sangram Singh

Ans. (1)

13. The Border Road Organization comes under

(1) Defense

(2) Urban Development

(3) Corporate sector

(4) Private sector

Ans. (1)

14. Which of the following corporations was started first by the Government of India?

(1) Damodar Valley Corporation

(2) National Thermal Power Corporation

(3) National Hydel Power Corporation

(4) All the above

Ans. (1)

15. Which of the following is not a part of three gems of the Buddhism?

(1) Buddha

(2) Sangha

(3) Dhamma

(4) Ahimsa

Ans. (4)

16. Who was the first Indian to reach Antarctica?

(1) Rakesh Sharma

(2) G.S. Sirohi

(3) B.K. Dutta

(4) K. Karuna Nautial

Ans. (2)

17. A saturated solution at S.T.P. is

(1) Colorless

(2) Green

(3) Red

(4) Red and green

Ans. (1)

18. The pure element in the following is

(1) Glass

(2) Diamond

(3) Lime

(4) Salt

Ans. (2)

19. What is gypsum?

(1) Lime

(2) Bleaching powder

(3) Blue vitriol

(4) Ammonium chloride powder

Ans. (3)

20. Bones of horses of Harappan civilization were found at

(1) Lothal

(2) Harappa

(3) Surkotada

(4) Mohanjodero

Ans. (3)

21. What is Ag-mark?

(1) Technique to increase agricultural productivity

(2) Green Revolution

(3) Test of purity in the production of vegetable oil etc.

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

22. Who has taken the highest number of wickets in Test Cricket?

(11) Muttiah Muralitharan

(2) Shane Warne

(3) Anil Kumble

(4) Shoaib Akhtar

Ans. (1)

23. In 1947, 532 princely states were annexed to India except three. Which of the following was not among the three princely states?

(1) Junagarha

(2) Bhavnagar

(3) Hyderabad

(4) Kashmir

Ans. (4)

24. Which of the following gases is used to prepare Ammonia gas?

(1) Nitrogen and oxygen

(2) Nitrogen and oxide

(3) Nitrogen and hydrogen

(4) Nitrogen and carbon

Ans. (3)

25. In which of the following states of India, per capita income is highest?

(1) Orissa

(2) Assam

(3) Manipur

(4) Kerala

Ans. (4)

26. By import of — the inflation has been caused in India?

(1) Wheat

(2) Rice

(3) Sugar

(4) Petroleum

Ans. (4)

27. The meeting of Commonwealth Nations was held in Uganda on November 25, 2007. Who was elected its General Secretary?

(1) Mahesh Sharma

(2) Kamlesh Sharma

(3) Bimalesh Sharma

(4) Kailash Sharma

Ans. (2)

28. In which country the Hindu temples were razed to the ground in

December, 2007?

(1) Indonesia

(2) Malaysia

(3) Mauritius

(4) Afghanistan

Ans. (2)

Directions (29 — 33) : Read the following passage carefully and then answer the following questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage by choosing the best answer to each question out of given four options.

On hearing the news of the massacre at Jallianwala Bagh, Udham Singh did not attend his school but took a train to Armritsar and visited the spot. There, he stood for several minutes in a trance, picked up the soil, rubbed it on his forehead and put some in a phial. He fasted that night. According to his family members he placed fresh flowers on the holy dust every morning, drawing inspiration from it. One early morning he went to the river Ravi and pledged that he would Colour its waters with the colour of his blood, to create what he called the freedom’s flood. With this aim in view in 1921, he first landed in Africa. From there he went to America to meet the Indian revolutionaries working for the liberation of the motherland.

In 1923, he landed in England. In 1928, he returned to India in response to an urgent call from Bhagat Singh. When he reached Lahore, he was detained for violation of the Arms Act. He was released after four years rigorous imprisonment. In 1935, he escaped to Germany by giving a slip to the police. From Berlin, he reached Paris and purchased a revolver. He kept it ready for action and managed to reach London again. Opportunity came on March 13, 1940 when Sir Michael O’ Dwyer was to speak at a seminar in the Caxton Hall. As Sir Michael turned to resume his seat after the speech. Udham Singh pulled out his revolver and fired at him, Sir Michael died without a shriek. Udham

Singh was arrested and produced before the court on April 2, 1940. The court passed death sentence on him and he was hanged at Pentonville Prison, London on July 3, 1940.

29. Udham Singh went to America where he

(1) mobilized the Indian citizens for the liberation of the motherland

(2) collected sufficient funds to fight colonialism

(3) met fellow citizens working for the same cause

(4) went sight-seeing

Ans. (3)

30. Where did Udham Singh buy the weapon which was used for killing Sir Michael?

(1) Paris

(2) Lahore

(3) London

(4) Berlin

Ans. (1)

31. Udham Singh shot at Sir Michael O’Dwyer in

(1) Jallianwala Bagh

(2) Armritsar

(3) London

(4) Paris

Ans. (3)

32. When Udham Singh was arrest ed in Lahore, he was charged for

(1) instigating his countrymen against the Englishmen

(2) his links with anti-British forces

(3) concealing his identity and carrying on underground activities

(4) possessing unlicensed arms and ammunition

Ans. (4)

33. Udham Singh returned to India in 1928 mainly because he was:

(1) short of funds to meet his expenses

(2) to produce some arms from Lahore

(3) to escape from the British police

(4) called by a revolutionary in India

Ans. (4)

34. In the following question a word has been spelt in four different ways one of which is correct. Choose the correctly spelt word:

(1) Assemblage

(2) Asemblage

(3) Assemmblage

(4) Accemblage

Ans. (1)

35. In the following sentence, fill in the blank by choosing correct option from the given alternatives

The documents are available ? inspection.

(1) of

(2) about

(3) with

(4) for

Ans. (4)

36. In the following question, choose the Adjective.

(1) Preference

(2) Gifted

(3) Genius

(4) In vain

Ans. (2)

37. Write the synonym of the word ‘Consummate’.

(1) Novice

(2) Ambiguous

(3) Perfect

(4) Imperfect

Ans. (3)

38. Find out, which part of the following sentence has a grammatical or idiomatic error in it.

They have

(1)/held the championship

(2)/ since the past

(3)/ two years.

(4)

Ans. (3)

39. In the following question, a word has been spelt in four different ways, one of which is correct. Choose the correctly spelt word.

(1) demmurage

(2) demurrage

(3) demarrage

(4) demurage

Ans. (2)

40. In the following question, an idiomatic expression and its four possible meanings are given. Find out the correct meaning of the idiomatic expression and choose your correct answer from the given four choices:

Play one’s cards well

(1) A good gambler displaying skills

(2) A magician showing magic of cards

(3) Use means effectively

(4) A game of gamble

Ans. (3)

41. Out of the four alternatives, choose the one that can he substituted for .the given words/ phrase and mark it as your answer.

A cock and bull story

(1) An unbelievable gossip

(2) A children’s fable

(3) A quarrelsome dialogue

(4) A competition between un equal people

Ans. (1)

42. Choose the part of the following sentence containing error and mark it as your answer:

The number of orders(1). /

for that item have(2). /

increased greatly; several of them(3). /

have come from Egypt(4).

Ans. (2)

43. Identify the part of the following sentence containing an error and choose it as your answer.

In America(1)/

Presidential elections(2) /

is held every four years(3)

No error(4)

Ans. (3)

44. In the following sentence, fill in the blank by choosing correct option from the given alternatives:

‘Ram has annoyed his boss. He ? have to leave the job.

(1) might

(2) will

(3) ought to

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

45. In the following question, three words having different meanings of a certain word are given. Select that word from the answer choices marked (1), (2), (3) and (4).

Witness, Observer; Onlooker

(1) spectator

(2) present

(3) biased

(4) careful

Ans. (1)

46. For the following word written in capital letters, four words are listed below as (1),

(2) (3) and (4). Out of these, choose the word nearest in meaning to it as your answer:

VINDICATE

(1) approve

(2) justify

(3) express

(4) exonerate

Ans. (2)

47. In the following sentence, the bold part contains an error. Answer choice (1) repeats the original, other three are 1ifferent. If you think that the original sentence displays the best way of wording the bold part, choose your answer (1): otherwise select the best alternative from the other three choices.

“Parents and teachers are be coming increasingly concerned about protecting children and the drugs which are available to them, and several parent teacher organizations, dedicated to educating children about the dangers of drug addiction, have recently been formed.”

(1) protecting children and the drugs which are available to them

(2) protecting of children and the drugs which are available to them

(3) protecting children from the drugs available to them

(4) protecting children from the drugs availability to them

Ans. (3)

48. From the given four answer choices, select the answer that gives the clearest, most exact sentence, but do not change the meaning Of the bold part of original sentence.

Such people never have and never will be trusted.

(1) never have and never will be trusted

(2) never have and will be trust ed

(3) never have been trusted and never will be trusted

(4) never have and anyone trust them and never will have anyone

Ans. (3)

49. Which one of the following statements is untrue?

(1) The sea-floor is older than the land

(2) The first rocks were formed as a result of the cooling o. molten matter

(3) Sedimentary rocks are also called aqueous rocks because they were formed by

the agency of water

(4) Stalactites and stalagmites are deposits of lime found in caves

Ans. (3)

50. The main hydro electric power potential of the Indus river system lies in India and not in Pakistan because:

(1) the need for hydro-electric power is greater in India than in Pakistan

(2) India has superior technology to develop hydro—electric power

(3) India has a greater labour force to develop hydro electric power

(4) The mountain stages of these rivers lie in India

Ans. (4)

51. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List-I List-II

(a) Cotton 1. Madhya Pradesh

(b) Gram 2.Gujarat

(c) Black Pepper 3. West Bengal

(d) Pine apple 4. Kerala

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 2 1 3 4

(3) 1 2 4 3

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (1)

52. In the production of tidal energy the maximum potential exists at:

(1) Bhavnagar

(2) Digboi

(3) Cochin

(4) Ladakh

Ans. (1)

53. The National Highway system is the responsibility of

(1) State governments

(2) Central governments

(3) Central and State governments

(4) Local body governments

Ans. (3)

54. Supersonic jets cause pollution by thinning of

(1) Sulphur dioxide layer

(2) Carbon dioxide layer

(3) Ozone layer

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

55. Which one of the following is commonly called Edible sponge mushroom’?

(1) Sargassum

(2) Morchella

(3) Agaricus

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

56. Which of the following is not an essential function of the skin in the human body?

(1) protects the internal or of the body

(2) acts as a sensory organ

(3) regulates the temperature of the body

(4) gives shape to the body

Ans. (4)

57. The device used for converting alternating current to direct current is called

(1) Inverter

(2) Rectifier

(3) Transmitter

(4) Transformer

Ans. (2)

58. Water is used in hot water bottles because:

(1) it is easily obtained in pure form

(2) it has high specific heat

(3) it is cheaper and not harmful

(4) it is easy to heat water

Ans. (2)

59. Mention the ray which appears to originate outside the earth.

(1) cosmic ray

(2) the ultra-violet ray

(3) the alpha ray

(4) the beta ray

Ans. (1)

60. A person cannot see objects clearly which are nearer than 75 cms from his eyes. What disease is he suffering from?

(1) Astigmatism

(2) Colour-blindness

(3) Myopia

(4) Hypermetropia

Ans. (4)

61. Oil rises up to wick in a lamp because

(1) oil is volatile

(2) oil is very light

(3) of the surface tension phenomenon

(4) of the diffusion of oil through the wick

Ans. (3)

62. Following Railway Training Institutes have been indicated with the cities where they are located. Find out which is wrongly matched.

(1) Railway Staff College — Vadodara

(2) Indian Railway Institute of Civil Engineering — Pune

(3) Indian Railway Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering —Jamalpur

(4) Indian Railway Institute Signal and Tele Communication Engineering — Mumbai

Ans. (4)

63. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given four options:

List -I List-II

(Zonal Railway) (Head Quarter)

(a) North Central Railway 1. Bilaspur

(b) South-East Central Railway 2. Allahabad

(c) West Central Railway 3. Jabalpur

(d) East Coast Railway 4. Bhubaneshwar

Code.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 3 4

(2) 1 2 3 4

(3) 2 3 4 1

(4) 4 1 3 2

Ans. (1)

64. In Indian Railways Network, approximately how many passenger service vehicles (passenger coaches) are working?

(1) 44,100

(2) 33.000

(3) 49,000

(4) 54,000

Ans. (2)

65. Who is the principal head of the Department of a Station Master in Zonal Railway Head Quarter Office?

(1) Chief Commercial Manager

(2) Chief Safety Officer

(3) Chief Personnel Officer

(4) Chief Operations Manager

Ans. (4)

66. Two new zones named North Western Railway and East Central Railway become functional/ operational from?

(1) October 1, 2002

(2) April 1, 2002

(3) April 1, 2003

(4) October 1, 2003

Ans. (1)

67. In one of the following State, though the Konkan Railway line does not pass through it, yet it has capital share in the K.R. Corporation. Name the State.

(1) Karnataka

(2) Goa

(3) Tamil Nadu

(4) Kerala

Ans. (3)

68. All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the Vice- President of India are decided by the

(1) High Court of a State

(2) Chief Election Commissioner

(3) Supreme Court of India

(4) President of India

Ans. (3)

69. Consider the following functionaries

1. Union Cabinet Secretary

2. Chief Election Commissioner

3. Union Cabinet Ministers

4. Chief Justice of India

Their correct sequence, in the order of precedence is

(1) 3, 4, 2, 1

(2) 4, 3, 1, 2

(3) 4, 3, 2, 1

(4) 3. 4, 1, 2

Ans. (3)

70. The basic structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that

(1) Certain features of the Constitution are so essential to it that they cannot be abrogated

(2) Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged or taken away

(3) The Constitution cannot be amended except in accordance with the procedure prescribed in Article 368

(4) The Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended

Ans. (1)

71. Which of the following enjoys the constitutional status?

1. Finance Commission

2. Planning Commission

3. Zonal Council

4. National Development Council

5. Election Commission

6. University Grants Commission

(1) 1, 3 and 5

(2) l and 5

(3) 1, 2, 5 and 6

(4) 1, 3, 5 and 6

Ans. (2)

72. The ultimate responsibility of taking due action on the comments of the Comptroller and Auditor General vests with

(1) President of India

(2) Supreme Court of India

(3) Parliament of India

(4) National Development Council

Ans. (1)

73. Mohit said to Neelam, “Your only brother’s son is my wife’s brother.” How is Neelam related to the wife of Mohit?

(1) aunt

(2) mother-in-law

(3) sister

(4) cannot be determined

Ans. (1)

74. A tourist drives 10 km towards East and turns to right hand side and takes a drive of another 3 km. He then drives towards West (turning to his right) another 3 km. He then turns to his left and walks another 2 km. Afterwards, he turns to his right and travels 7 km. How far is he from his starting point and in which direction?

(1) 10 km—East

(2) 9 km— North

(3) 8 km— West

(4) 5 km—South

Ans. (4)

75. The question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. Decide the ‘Strong’ and ‘Weak’ arguments and give answer out of four given options ‘1’, ‘2’, ‘3’ and ‘4’

Question:

Should all the professional colleges in India be encouraged to run their own courses without affiliation to any university?

Arguments:

(I) Yes, this is the only way to create more opportunities for those who seek professional training.

(II) No, this will dilute the quality of professional training as all such colleges may not be equipped to conduct such courses.

(1) Only argument I is strong

(2) Only argument II is strong

(3) Both I and II are strong

(4) Neither I nor II is strong

Ans. (2)

76. Statement: “Please do not wait for me; I may be late, start taking lunch as soon as the guests arrive.” — a message from a director of a company to his office managers.-

Assumptions:

I. Keeping guests waiting is not desirable.

II. Lunch may not be ready in time.

Consider the above statement and two assumptions to decide as to which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Choose the correct answer from the given options 1, 2, 3 and 4.

(1) Only assumption I is implicit

(2) Only assumption II is implicit

(3) Both I and II are implicit

(4) Neither I nor II is implicit

Ans. (1)

77. How many Asian countries are there in Common wealth?

(1) 49

(2) 51

(3) 54

(4) 57

Ans. (3)

78. Khan Abdul Gaffer Khan’s which action; performed in favour of Indian independence, but was against the English men?

(1) Formation of Lal-Kurti sena

(2) Assassination of an Englishman

(3) Trade of red shirts

(4) Demand for Pakhtunistan

Ans. (1)

79. On selling an article for Rs. 270 there is a gain of 12.5%. What

is its cost price?

(1) Rs. 240

(2) Rs. 220

(3) Rs. 210

(4) Rs. 250

Ans. (1)

80. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1: 2: 3. The greatest angle will be

(1) 60°

(2) 30°

(3) 90°

(4) 75°

Ans. (3)

81. The compound interest on Rs. 2500 at the rate of 6% p.a. after 2 years will be

(1) Rs. 309

(2) Rs. 318

(3) Rs. 320

(4) None of these

Ans. (1)

82. (999)2 – (998)22=?

(1) 1995

(2) 1998

(3) 1997

(4) 1992

Ans. (3)

83. A man covers a distance of 6 km at the rate 4 kmph and other 4 km at 3 kmph. His average speed is

(1) 9&13/7 kmph

(2) 3&9/17 kmph

(3) 5&9/17 kmph

(4) 3 & 5/9 kmph

Ans. (2)

84. The cost price of an article is Rs. 7840. To gain 7%, the article should be sold at

(1) Rs. 8388.80

(2) Rs. 8000

(3) Rs. 8383.80

(4) Rs. 8833.80

Ans. (1)

85. Two pipes can fill a tank in 10 minutes and 30 minutes respectively and a third pipe can empty the full tank in 20 minutes. If all the three pipes are opened simultaneously, the tank will be

(1) 10 minutes

(2) 8 minutes

(3) 7 minutes

(4) None of these

Ans. (4)

86.(4*4*4+3*3*3)/13 =

(1) 7

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4

Ans. (1)

87. (6.25) 4÷ (6.25)3 =?

(1) 6.25

(2) 6.025

(3) 6.0025

(4) 6.002

Ans. (1)

88. The ratio between the ages of Ram and Mohan is 4:5 and that between Mohan and Anil is 5:6. If sum of the ages of three be 90 years, how old is Mohan?

(1) 24 years

(2) 20 years

(3) 30 years

(4) 25 years

Ans. (3)

89. The per cent of 2 /45 is?

(1) 3&4/9 %

(2) 4&4/9 %

(3) 4 %

(4) 9 %

Ans. (2)

90. If a x=b;b y=c and cz =a , then xyz =?

(1) 1

(2) -1

(3) 2

(4) 2

Ans. (1)

91. Match the name of countries in List-I with years of beginning of railways in List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List -I List—II

(Countries) (Year of beginning of railways)

(a) Britain 1. 1853

(b) America 2. 1829

(c) India 3. 1825

(d) France 4. 1830

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 4 1 3 2

(3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (3)

92. The length of Indian rails is

(1) More than 5000 km

(2) More than 5630 km

(3) More than 6000 km

(4) More than 6531 km

Ans. (4)

93. Match the items of List-I with List-II and select the-correct answer by using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Largest Population) (States)

(a) Jains 1. Nagaland

(b) Buddhas 2. Rajasthan

(c) Christians 3. Maharashtra

(d) Muslims 4. Lakshadwip

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 2 3 1 4

(3) 1 2 4 3

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (2)

94. The capital of the king of Punjab Ranjit Singh was

(1) Lahore

(2) Ludhiana

(3) Mathura

(4) Sri Nagar

Ans. (1)

95. Photosynthesis does not take place in

(1) plants

(2) fungi

(3) bacteria

(4) virus

Ans. (4)

96. In nucleuic protein, Uceriotic chromosomes are alike in

(1) prophase

(2) Metaphase

(3) Anaphase -

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

97. Which type of protein is found in virus?

(1) Lyco protein

(2) Secondary protein

(3) Primary protein

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

98. In ionic solid, the velocity of electricity is

(1) fast

(2) weak

(3) less than solid

(4) less than gas

Ans. (1)

99. The largest phase in cell division is

(1) Liptotin

(2) Zagotin

(3) Pacotin

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

Monday, November 1, 2010

Tentative Examination Schedule of CEN-2010

RRB SECUNDERABAD WRITTEN EXAM DATES



RRB SECUNDERABAD

THE EXAM FOR THE POSTS OF COMMERCIAL APPRENTICE AND SR.CLERK CUM TYPIST AGAINST CAT NO 1 & 6 OF CEN02/2010 IS SCHEDULED TO BE HELD ON 05/12/10.

CALL LETTERS FOR ALL ELIGIBLE CANDIDATES WILL BE SENT FOUR WEEK BEFORE THE DATE OF EXAM.

Railway Special Drive in a Centralised Employment Notice



Government of India

Ministry of Railways
Railway Recruitment Board (RRB)

Indian Railways Centralised Employment Notice No. 10/2010

Special Recruitment Drive for PWD and SC/ST/OBC candidates

Applications in the prescribed format are invited from eligibile Indian Nationals for filling up of various jobs in different Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs) and Zonal Railways and other Railway organisation. Application should be sent directly to the respective RRBs / Zonal Ofifces :

Part-I : for PWD only
  1. Technician Gr.II : 01 post, Pay Scale : Rs.5200-20200 grade pay Rs.2400
  2. Technician Gr.III : 482 posts in various trades, Pay Scale : Rs.5200-20200 grade pay Rs.1900
Part-II : for SC/ST/OBC only
  1. Technician Gr.III : 675 posts in various trades, Pay Scale : Rs.5200-20200 grade pay Rs.1900

Age : 18-30 years. Relaxation in age as per rules.

Application Fee : Rs.40/- for the OBC candidates only in the form of IPO / DD in favour of Assistant Secretary/Secretary/ Member Secretary/ Chairman of concerned RRB where candidate wants to apply.

How to Apply : Application in the prescribed format should be send to the Assistant Secretary/ Member Secretary of the concerned RRB where candidate want to apply on or before 29/11/2010. (For candidates of far-flung areas, the last date is 14/12/2010) Candidates can also apply online at respective RRB websites.

The detailed advt. is published in the Employment News dated 30/10/2010 and it is also available at the websites of all the Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs). The list of all RRB with their website is available at http://rrcb.gov.in/rrbs.html.