Railway Recruitment Cell Eastern Railway 56, C. R. Avenue, Kolkata – 700 012. | |
RECRUITMENT AGAINST SCOUTS AND GUIDES QUOTA FOR THE YEAR 2011-2012 Employment Notice No. 0111/S&G
| |
Monday, June 27, 2011
RRC RECRUITMENT AGAINST SCOUTS AND GUIDES QUOTA
RRB CHENNAI WRITTEN/ EXAMINATIONS RESULTS
| Notice No. | Category No. | NAME OF THE POST |
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Sunday, June 26, 2011
RRB PARAMEDICAL EXAM HEALTH INSPECTOR QUESTION PAPER
1. For education of measles, immunization coverage should be at least
(a) 80%
(b) 85%
(c) 96%
(d) 100%
2. Period of maximum infectivity in mumps is during
(a) incubation period
(b) onset of swelling
(c) after swelling appears
(d) prodromal period
3. Major epidemics of influenza A occur at intervals of
(a) 1 year
(b) 2-3 years
(c) 10-15 years
(d) 20-25 years
5. The most common source of infection for diphtheria is a
(a) case
(b) sub clinical case
(c) carrier
(d) all of the above
5. Shick test is done in
(a) meningitis
(b) diphtheria
(c) pertussis
(d) polimyelitis
6. Adjuvant present in DPT vaccine is
(a) aluminium phosphate
(b) aluminium hydroxide
(c) zinc phosphate
(d) magnesium phosphate
7. Recommended site of administration of DPT in infants is
(a) gluteal
(b) deltoid
(c) lateral aspect of thigh
(d) forearm
8. The most severe complications following DPT are due to …….. component
(a) diphtheria
(b) pertussis
(c) tetanus
(d) adjuvant
9. The vaccine usually given to pilgrims to the Middle East is
(a) DPT
(b) influenza
(c) yellow fever
(d) meningitis
10. Best index to estimate case load of T.B. in a community is
(a) incidence of infection
(b) prevalence of infection
(c) incidence of disease
(d) prevalence of disease
11. Prevalence of T.B. infection in a community is estimated by
(a) tuberculin test
(b) sputum microscopy
(c) culture
(d) chest X-ray
12. The amount of PPD used in mantoux test in India is
(a) 1 TU
(b) 5 TU
(c) 25 TU
(d) 250 TU
13. Result of mantoux test is read after
(a) 6 hours
(b) 24 hours
(c) 48 hours
(d) 72 hours
14. Present day BCG vaccine is supplied as
(a) liquid vaccine
(b) freeze dried vaccine
(c) both
(d) none of the above
15. The diluent used for reconstituting BCG vaccine is
(a) normal saline
(b) distilled water
(c) dextrose
(d) none of the above
16. Reconstituted BCG vaccine should be used with in
(a) 3 hours
(b) 6 hours
(c) 18 hours
(d) 24 hours
17. The age for BCG vaccination is recommended at
(a) birth or at 6th week
(b) only 6th week
(c) 6-8 weeks
(d) within 1 year
18. At the village level sputum for AFB is collected and fixed by
(a) anganwadi worker
(b) village health guide
(c) health worker male
(d) health worker female
19. Source of most polio infections are
(a) clinical cases
(b) sub clinical cases
(c) carrier
(d) both (b)&(c)
20. Risk factors for development of paralytic polio include
(a) 1/M injections
(b) Tonsillectomy
(c) DPT
(d) all of the above
21. Major route of transmission of Hepatitis A is
(a) Facco oral route
(b) parentral route
(c) sexual transmission
(d) perinatal transmission
22. Vaccine vial monitor is present on which of these vaccines
(a) BCG
(b) DPT
(c) OPV
(d) Measles
23. Immunity after Hepatitis A lasts for
(a) 6 months
(b) 1 year
(c) 6 years
(d) life long
24. Following methods destroy vibrio cholerae except
(a) boiling
(b) drying
(c) bleaching powder 1 mg/L
(d) cresol
25. Best method of collecting choleric stools for diagnosis is by
(a) rectal catheter
(b) rectal swab
(c) disinfected stool
(d) all of the above
26. All are vaccines included under the Universal Immunization Programme except
(a) diphtheria
(b) pertussis
(c) measles
(d) MMR
27. The MTP act was passed in the year
(a) 1975
(b) 1971
(c) 1986
(d) 2000
28. All are Anti Rabies vaccine currently used in Kerala except
(a) chick embryo cell vaccine
(b) human diploid cell vaccine
(c) vero cell vaccine
(d) neural tissue vaccine
29. Annual Parasitic incidence is used to measure the problem of
(a) Filariasis
(b) Dengue fever
(c) Malaria
(d) Japanese encephalitis
30. The causative organism of plague is
(a) Y pestis
(b) R. Prowazeki
(c) Coryne bacterium
(d) Arbovirus
31. Which of these is a Conventional Contraceptive
(a) Combined pill
(b) IUD
(c) Condom
(d) Mini pill
32. Which of these insecticides is used as a space spray
(a) paris green
(b) abate
(c) pyrethrum
(d) mineral oil
33. Chemical ideally used for disinfecting sputum is
(a) cresol
(b) dettol
(c) savlon
(d) phenol
34. Census is carried out at regular intervals of
(a) 5 years
(b) 10 years
(c) 7 years
(d) 15 years
35. Vaccine carrier should ideally have number of ice packs
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
36. The dose of elemental iron in Folifer tablet given to pregnant women under the RCH programme is
(a) 60 mg
(b) 80 mg
(c) 50 mg
(d) 100 mg
37. Sanitary latrine should be located at least …. feet from source of contamination
(a) 15
(b) 25
(c) 50
(d) 75
38. For calculating Bacterial index in Leprosy a minimum of ….. sites should be examined
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 9
39. Number of Tetanus toxoid doses to be given to an antenatal mother with last child birth 2 years back is
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) none
40. As per the Birth and Deaths Registration Act all births are to be registered with in a period of
(a) 7 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 21 days
(d) 1 month
41. Dengue fever is transmitted by the bite of ……. mosquito
(a) anopheles
(b) aedes
(c) mansonia
(d) culex
42. Route of administration of BCG vaccine is
(a) intramuscular
(b) intradermal
(c) subcutaneous
(d) intrathecal
43. Pasteurisation of milk kills all organisms except
(a) Anthrax
(b) M. Tuberculosis
(c) Streptococcus
(d) Brucella
44. Prevalence of hook worm infection in a community is assessed by
(a) pearl index
(b) breteaux index
(c) chandler index
(d) none of the above
45. The level of iodisation of iodised salt at the consumer level asspecified under the IDD control programme is
(a) 40 ppm
(b) 30 ppm
(c) 15 ppm
(d) 50 ppm
46. All are steps in Primary Prevention of diseases except
(a) promotion of healthy life styles
(b) good nutrition
(c) immunization
(d) treatment
47. Communicability of measles declines
(a) after onset of fever
(b) during prodromal period
(c) at the time of eruption
(d) after appearance of rash
48. After effective chlorination of water free residual chlorine should not be less than
(a) 0.5 mg/L
(b) 1 mg/L
(c) 50 mg/L
(d) 200 mg/L
49. All are side effects of oral contraceptives except
(a) hypertension
(b) cervical cancer risk
(c) gall bladder disease
(d) iron deficiency anameia
50. World AIDS day is observed on
(a) December 1st
(b) January 31st
(c) May 1st
(d) October 1st
51. Highest source of vitamin A is seen in
(a) Cod liver oil
(b) green leafy vegetables
(c) papaya
(d) carrot
52. Which is a live vaccine
(a) Hepatitis B vaccine
(b) Hepatitis A vaccine
(c) Oral polio vaccine
(d) DPT vaccine
53.Scurvy is a deficiency disease due to
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin B12
54. Number of sputum smears to be taken for confirmation of tuberculosis under the Revised National Tuberculosis control programme is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
55. The target population under the Universal Immunization Programme is
(a) infants and antenatal mothers
(b) infants
(c) under fives
(d) under fives and antenatal mothers
56. RCH programme was launched in the year
(a) 1997
(b) 1992
(c) 1990
(d) 1998
57. Additional energy requirement to be supplemented for a lactatingmother is
(a) 200 calories
(b) 550 calories
(c) 350 calories
(d) 100 calories
58. Dental caries is caused due to deficiency of
(a) Iodine
(b) Iron
(c) Fluorine
(d) Copper
59. Most ideal equipment for vaccine storage in a PHC is
(a) domestic refrigerator
(b) ice lined refrigerator
(c) cold box
(d) vaccinecarrier
60. Village Health Guide is present in all these states except
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Orissa
(d) Kerala
61. Route of transmission of pneumonic plague is
(a) Vector
(b) Droplet
(c) Formite
(d) Food
62. Most simple way of data presentation to a common man is
(a) Bar chart
(b) Line diagram
(c) Pictogram
(d) Histogram
63. The best method for operation theatre disinfection is
(a) dettol
(b) phenol
(c) lysol
(d) fromaldehyde
64. Primary schedule of hepatitis B immunization is
(a) 0,1,6 months
(b) 1,3,6 months
(c) 1,2,12 months
(d) 0,1,5 years
65. The control of ….. has led to the eradication of guinea worm disease
(a) mosquito
(b) rat flea
(c) sand fly
(d) cyclops
66. The confirmatory test for paralytic poliomyelitis is a
(a) stool examination
(b) CSF examination
(c) blood examination
(d) nerve examination
67. The drug given to peripheral health worker under the Actute Respiratory infection Control Programme is
(a) Tetracycline
(b) Cotrimoxazole
(c) Doxy cycline
(d) Chloroquine
68. The fitration technique in modern water treatment plant is
(a) slow sand filter
(b) rapid sand filter
(c) activated sludge process
(d) double pot method
69. World Health Day is observed every year on
(a) May 9th
(b) July 11th
(c) April 7th
(d) July 1st
70. Health education technique most suited for introducing the correct useof O.R.S. among Rural mothers is
(a) group discussion
(b) flash card
(c) demonstration
(d) flannel graph
71. All are anti scabies preparations except
(a) BHC
(b) permethrin
(c) benzyl benzoate
(d) malathion
72. All are tests used for bacteriological quality testing of drinking water except
(a) multiple tube method
(b) membrane filtration technique
(c) colony count
(d) biological oxygen demand
73. During an epidemic of cholera, wells should be disinfected ideally
(a) Every day
(b) 2 days
(c) 3 days
(d) 1 week
74. All are components of under five clinic except
(a) immunization
(b) growth monitoring
(c) oral rehydration
(d) referral treatment
75. All are true of prevention of Food Adulteration Act except
(a) prescribes minimum standards
(b) is not mandatory
(c) punishment includes imprisonment
(d) latest amendment was in the year 1986
76. Physical quality of life index includes all except
(a) infant mortality
(b) life expectancy at age one
(c) per capita GNP
(d) literacy
77. Incubation period is less than 3 days in all the following except
(a) influenza
(b) cholera
(c) mumps
(d) staphylococcal food poisoning
78. The type of influenza virus causing epidemics every year is
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) Any one of the above
79. The incubation period of Rabies in men is determined by
(a) Site of bite
(b) Severity of bite
(c) Number of wounds
(d) All of the above
80. Noso comial infection means
(a) infection of nose
(b) hospital acquired infection
(c) notifiable disease
(d)new disease
81. All of the following are mosquito borne diseases except
(a) Malaria
(b) Filaria
(c) Kysanur forest disease
(d) Dengue fever
82. Which is not true of small pox
(a) No animal reservoir
(b) No carrier stage
(c) No sub-clinical infection
(d) No air borne transmission
83. ORS contains all except
(a) sodium chloride
(b) potassium sulphate
(c) trisodium citrate
(d) glucose
84. The danger zone for bacterial growth in food is
(a) 10-49 degree C
(b) 20-49 degree C
(c) 10-60 degree C
(d) 20-60 degree C
85. Aldehyde test is used for the diagnosis of
(a) Malaria
(b) Kala Azar
(c) Japanese encephalitis
(d) Typhus fever
86. The period from disease initiation to disease detection in chronic disease is called
(a) incubation period
(b) serial interval
(c) latent period
(d) median period
87. Herd immunity does not protect an individual in
(a) Diphtheria
(b) Poliomyelitis
(c) Small pox
(d) Tetanus
88. Vaccines which should not be frozen include
(a) Typhoid
(b) DPT
(c) TT
(d) All of the above
89. ILR stands for
(a) Income Literacy Ratio
(b) Illiteracy- Literacy Ratio
(c) Ice Lined Refrigerator
(d) Infant Living Rate
90. Cold chain equipment used at out reach sites is
(a) cold box
(b) vaccine carrier
(c) ice pack
(d) freezer
91. Most heat sensitive vaccine is
(a) BCG
(b) Polio
(c) Measles
(d) DPT
92. Zero dose of polio vaccine means
(a) no vaccination
(b) dose before first dose
(c) no antibody response
(d) vaccination at mobile camps
93. Pasteurisation of milk is an example disinfection
(a) Pre current
(b) Con current
(c) Terminal
(d) Absolute
94. Boiling for 5-10 minutes kills
(a) bacteria
(b) spores
(c) virus
(d) none of the above
95. All of the following can be sterilized by Auto claving except
(a) gloves
(b) culture media
(c) plastics
(d) linen
96. All are suitable for disinfection of faces and urine except
(a) 8% bleaching powder
(b) 1% crude phenol
(c) 5% cresol
(d) 1-2% formalin
97. Ideally bed pans and urinals are sterilized using
(a) 1% cresol
(b) bleaching powder
(c) steam
(d) all of the above
98. Sputum is best disposed by
(a) burning
(b) boiling
(c) 5% cresol
(d) any of the above
99. Immunity conferred by an attack of small pox is for
(a) 10 years
(b) 15 years
(c) 20 years
(d) life long
100. Which is not true regarding measles
(a) source of infection is a case
(b) secondary attack rate is 80%
(c) carries do not occur
(d) sub clinical measles not known
Answers:
1. B 11 .A 21. A 31. C 41. B 51. A 61. B 71. D 81. C 91. B
2 .A 12. A 22. B 32. C 42. A 52. C 62. C 72. D 82. C 92. B
3. D 13. C 23. A 33. A 43. B 53. C 63. D 73. A 83. B 93. A
4. B 14. B 24. D 34. B 44. C 54. C 64. A 74. D 84. C 94. D
5. A 15. A 25. A 35. D 45 .C 55. C 65. D 75. B 85. B 95. C
6. C 16. B 26. C 36. C 46. D 56. B 66. A 76. D 86. A 96. D
7. C 17. A 27. B 37. D 47. D 57. B 67. B 77. C 87. B 97. B
8. D 18. A 28. C 38. C 48. A 58. C 68. A 78. B 88. D 98. C
9. C 19. C 29. A 39. C 49. A 59. B 69. C 79. D 89. C 99. D
10.C 20. D 30. A 40. C 50. A 60. C 70. C 80. D 90. B 100.B
(a) 80%
(b) 85%
(c) 96%
(d) 100%
2. Period of maximum infectivity in mumps is during
(a) incubation period
(b) onset of swelling
(c) after swelling appears
(d) prodromal period
3. Major epidemics of influenza A occur at intervals of
(a) 1 year
(b) 2-3 years
(c) 10-15 years
(d) 20-25 years
5. The most common source of infection for diphtheria is a
(a) case
(b) sub clinical case
(c) carrier
(d) all of the above
5. Shick test is done in
(a) meningitis
(b) diphtheria
(c) pertussis
(d) polimyelitis
6. Adjuvant present in DPT vaccine is
(a) aluminium phosphate
(b) aluminium hydroxide
(c) zinc phosphate
(d) magnesium phosphate
7. Recommended site of administration of DPT in infants is
(a) gluteal
(b) deltoid
(c) lateral aspect of thigh
(d) forearm
8. The most severe complications following DPT are due to …….. component
(a) diphtheria
(b) pertussis
(c) tetanus
(d) adjuvant
9. The vaccine usually given to pilgrims to the Middle East is
(a) DPT
(b) influenza
(c) yellow fever
(d) meningitis
10. Best index to estimate case load of T.B. in a community is
(a) incidence of infection
(b) prevalence of infection
(c) incidence of disease
(d) prevalence of disease
11. Prevalence of T.B. infection in a community is estimated by
(a) tuberculin test
(b) sputum microscopy
(c) culture
(d) chest X-ray
12. The amount of PPD used in mantoux test in India is
(a) 1 TU
(b) 5 TU
(c) 25 TU
(d) 250 TU
13. Result of mantoux test is read after
(a) 6 hours
(b) 24 hours
(c) 48 hours
(d) 72 hours
14. Present day BCG vaccine is supplied as
(a) liquid vaccine
(b) freeze dried vaccine
(c) both
(d) none of the above
15. The diluent used for reconstituting BCG vaccine is
(a) normal saline
(b) distilled water
(c) dextrose
(d) none of the above
16. Reconstituted BCG vaccine should be used with in
(a) 3 hours
(b) 6 hours
(c) 18 hours
(d) 24 hours
17. The age for BCG vaccination is recommended at
(a) birth or at 6th week
(b) only 6th week
(c) 6-8 weeks
(d) within 1 year
18. At the village level sputum for AFB is collected and fixed by
(a) anganwadi worker
(b) village health guide
(c) health worker male
(d) health worker female
19. Source of most polio infections are
(a) clinical cases
(b) sub clinical cases
(c) carrier
(d) both (b)&(c)
20. Risk factors for development of paralytic polio include
(a) 1/M injections
(b) Tonsillectomy
(c) DPT
(d) all of the above
21. Major route of transmission of Hepatitis A is
(a) Facco oral route
(b) parentral route
(c) sexual transmission
(d) perinatal transmission
22. Vaccine vial monitor is present on which of these vaccines
(a) BCG
(b) DPT
(c) OPV
(d) Measles
23. Immunity after Hepatitis A lasts for
(a) 6 months
(b) 1 year
(c) 6 years
(d) life long
24. Following methods destroy vibrio cholerae except
(a) boiling
(b) drying
(c) bleaching powder 1 mg/L
(d) cresol
25. Best method of collecting choleric stools for diagnosis is by
(a) rectal catheter
(b) rectal swab
(c) disinfected stool
(d) all of the above
26. All are vaccines included under the Universal Immunization Programme except
(a) diphtheria
(b) pertussis
(c) measles
(d) MMR
27. The MTP act was passed in the year
(a) 1975
(b) 1971
(c) 1986
(d) 2000
28. All are Anti Rabies vaccine currently used in Kerala except
(a) chick embryo cell vaccine
(b) human diploid cell vaccine
(c) vero cell vaccine
(d) neural tissue vaccine
29. Annual Parasitic incidence is used to measure the problem of
(a) Filariasis
(b) Dengue fever
(c) Malaria
(d) Japanese encephalitis
30. The causative organism of plague is
(a) Y pestis
(b) R. Prowazeki
(c) Coryne bacterium
(d) Arbovirus
31. Which of these is a Conventional Contraceptive
(a) Combined pill
(b) IUD
(c) Condom
(d) Mini pill
32. Which of these insecticides is used as a space spray
(a) paris green
(b) abate
(c) pyrethrum
(d) mineral oil
33. Chemical ideally used for disinfecting sputum is
(a) cresol
(b) dettol
(c) savlon
(d) phenol
34. Census is carried out at regular intervals of
(a) 5 years
(b) 10 years
(c) 7 years
(d) 15 years
35. Vaccine carrier should ideally have number of ice packs
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
36. The dose of elemental iron in Folifer tablet given to pregnant women under the RCH programme is
(a) 60 mg
(b) 80 mg
(c) 50 mg
(d) 100 mg
37. Sanitary latrine should be located at least …. feet from source of contamination
(a) 15
(b) 25
(c) 50
(d) 75
38. For calculating Bacterial index in Leprosy a minimum of ….. sites should be examined
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 9
39. Number of Tetanus toxoid doses to be given to an antenatal mother with last child birth 2 years back is
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) none
40. As per the Birth and Deaths Registration Act all births are to be registered with in a period of
(a) 7 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 21 days
(d) 1 month
41. Dengue fever is transmitted by the bite of ……. mosquito
(a) anopheles
(b) aedes
(c) mansonia
(d) culex
42. Route of administration of BCG vaccine is
(a) intramuscular
(b) intradermal
(c) subcutaneous
(d) intrathecal
43. Pasteurisation of milk kills all organisms except
(a) Anthrax
(b) M. Tuberculosis
(c) Streptococcus
(d) Brucella
44. Prevalence of hook worm infection in a community is assessed by
(a) pearl index
(b) breteaux index
(c) chandler index
(d) none of the above
45. The level of iodisation of iodised salt at the consumer level asspecified under the IDD control programme is
(a) 40 ppm
(b) 30 ppm
(c) 15 ppm
(d) 50 ppm
46. All are steps in Primary Prevention of diseases except
(a) promotion of healthy life styles
(b) good nutrition
(c) immunization
(d) treatment
47. Communicability of measles declines
(a) after onset of fever
(b) during prodromal period
(c) at the time of eruption
(d) after appearance of rash
48. After effective chlorination of water free residual chlorine should not be less than
(a) 0.5 mg/L
(b) 1 mg/L
(c) 50 mg/L
(d) 200 mg/L
49. All are side effects of oral contraceptives except
(a) hypertension
(b) cervical cancer risk
(c) gall bladder disease
(d) iron deficiency anameia
50. World AIDS day is observed on
(a) December 1st
(b) January 31st
(c) May 1st
(d) October 1st
51. Highest source of vitamin A is seen in
(a) Cod liver oil
(b) green leafy vegetables
(c) papaya
(d) carrot
52. Which is a live vaccine
(a) Hepatitis B vaccine
(b) Hepatitis A vaccine
(c) Oral polio vaccine
(d) DPT vaccine
53.Scurvy is a deficiency disease due to
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin B12
54. Number of sputum smears to be taken for confirmation of tuberculosis under the Revised National Tuberculosis control programme is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
55. The target population under the Universal Immunization Programme is
(a) infants and antenatal mothers
(b) infants
(c) under fives
(d) under fives and antenatal mothers
56. RCH programme was launched in the year
(a) 1997
(b) 1992
(c) 1990
(d) 1998
57. Additional energy requirement to be supplemented for a lactatingmother is
(a) 200 calories
(b) 550 calories
(c) 350 calories
(d) 100 calories
58. Dental caries is caused due to deficiency of
(a) Iodine
(b) Iron
(c) Fluorine
(d) Copper
59. Most ideal equipment for vaccine storage in a PHC is
(a) domestic refrigerator
(b) ice lined refrigerator
(c) cold box
(d) vaccinecarrier
60. Village Health Guide is present in all these states except
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Orissa
(d) Kerala
61. Route of transmission of pneumonic plague is
(a) Vector
(b) Droplet
(c) Formite
(d) Food
62. Most simple way of data presentation to a common man is
(a) Bar chart
(b) Line diagram
(c) Pictogram
(d) Histogram
63. The best method for operation theatre disinfection is
(a) dettol
(b) phenol
(c) lysol
(d) fromaldehyde
64. Primary schedule of hepatitis B immunization is
(a) 0,1,6 months
(b) 1,3,6 months
(c) 1,2,12 months
(d) 0,1,5 years
65. The control of ….. has led to the eradication of guinea worm disease
(a) mosquito
(b) rat flea
(c) sand fly
(d) cyclops
66. The confirmatory test for paralytic poliomyelitis is a
(a) stool examination
(b) CSF examination
(c) blood examination
(d) nerve examination
67. The drug given to peripheral health worker under the Actute Respiratory infection Control Programme is
(a) Tetracycline
(b) Cotrimoxazole
(c) Doxy cycline
(d) Chloroquine
68. The fitration technique in modern water treatment plant is
(a) slow sand filter
(b) rapid sand filter
(c) activated sludge process
(d) double pot method
69. World Health Day is observed every year on
(a) May 9th
(b) July 11th
(c) April 7th
(d) July 1st
70. Health education technique most suited for introducing the correct useof O.R.S. among Rural mothers is
(a) group discussion
(b) flash card
(c) demonstration
(d) flannel graph
71. All are anti scabies preparations except
(a) BHC
(b) permethrin
(c) benzyl benzoate
(d) malathion
72. All are tests used for bacteriological quality testing of drinking water except
(a) multiple tube method
(b) membrane filtration technique
(c) colony count
(d) biological oxygen demand
73. During an epidemic of cholera, wells should be disinfected ideally
(a) Every day
(b) 2 days
(c) 3 days
(d) 1 week
74. All are components of under five clinic except
(a) immunization
(b) growth monitoring
(c) oral rehydration
(d) referral treatment
75. All are true of prevention of Food Adulteration Act except
(a) prescribes minimum standards
(b) is not mandatory
(c) punishment includes imprisonment
(d) latest amendment was in the year 1986
76. Physical quality of life index includes all except
(a) infant mortality
(b) life expectancy at age one
(c) per capita GNP
(d) literacy
77. Incubation period is less than 3 days in all the following except
(a) influenza
(b) cholera
(c) mumps
(d) staphylococcal food poisoning
78. The type of influenza virus causing epidemics every year is
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) Any one of the above
79. The incubation period of Rabies in men is determined by
(a) Site of bite
(b) Severity of bite
(c) Number of wounds
(d) All of the above
80. Noso comial infection means
(a) infection of nose
(b) hospital acquired infection
(c) notifiable disease
(d)new disease
81. All of the following are mosquito borne diseases except
(a) Malaria
(b) Filaria
(c) Kysanur forest disease
(d) Dengue fever
82. Which is not true of small pox
(a) No animal reservoir
(b) No carrier stage
(c) No sub-clinical infection
(d) No air borne transmission
83. ORS contains all except
(a) sodium chloride
(b) potassium sulphate
(c) trisodium citrate
(d) glucose
84. The danger zone for bacterial growth in food is
(a) 10-49 degree C
(b) 20-49 degree C
(c) 10-60 degree C
(d) 20-60 degree C
85. Aldehyde test is used for the diagnosis of
(a) Malaria
(b) Kala Azar
(c) Japanese encephalitis
(d) Typhus fever
86. The period from disease initiation to disease detection in chronic disease is called
(a) incubation period
(b) serial interval
(c) latent period
(d) median period
87. Herd immunity does not protect an individual in
(a) Diphtheria
(b) Poliomyelitis
(c) Small pox
(d) Tetanus
88. Vaccines which should not be frozen include
(a) Typhoid
(b) DPT
(c) TT
(d) All of the above
89. ILR stands for
(a) Income Literacy Ratio
(b) Illiteracy- Literacy Ratio
(c) Ice Lined Refrigerator
(d) Infant Living Rate
90. Cold chain equipment used at out reach sites is
(a) cold box
(b) vaccine carrier
(c) ice pack
(d) freezer
91. Most heat sensitive vaccine is
(a) BCG
(b) Polio
(c) Measles
(d) DPT
92. Zero dose of polio vaccine means
(a) no vaccination
(b) dose before first dose
(c) no antibody response
(d) vaccination at mobile camps
93. Pasteurisation of milk is an example disinfection
(a) Pre current
(b) Con current
(c) Terminal
(d) Absolute
94. Boiling for 5-10 minutes kills
(a) bacteria
(b) spores
(c) virus
(d) none of the above
95. All of the following can be sterilized by Auto claving except
(a) gloves
(b) culture media
(c) plastics
(d) linen
96. All are suitable for disinfection of faces and urine except
(a) 8% bleaching powder
(b) 1% crude phenol
(c) 5% cresol
(d) 1-2% formalin
97. Ideally bed pans and urinals are sterilized using
(a) 1% cresol
(b) bleaching powder
(c) steam
(d) all of the above
98. Sputum is best disposed by
(a) burning
(b) boiling
(c) 5% cresol
(d) any of the above
99. Immunity conferred by an attack of small pox is for
(a) 10 years
(b) 15 years
(c) 20 years
(d) life long
100. Which is not true regarding measles
(a) source of infection is a case
(b) secondary attack rate is 80%
(c) carries do not occur
(d) sub clinical measles not known
Answers:
1. B 11 .A 21. A 31. C 41. B 51. A 61. B 71. D 81. C 91. B
2 .A 12. A 22. B 32. C 42. A 52. C 62. C 72. D 82. C 92. B
3. D 13. C 23. A 33. A 43. B 53. C 63. D 73. A 83. B 93. A
4. B 14. B 24. D 34. B 44. C 54. C 64. A 74. D 84. C 94. D
5. A 15. A 25. A 35. D 45 .C 55. C 65. D 75. B 85. B 95. C
6. C 16. B 26. C 36. C 46. D 56. B 66. A 76. D 86. A 96. D
7. C 17. A 27. B 37. D 47. D 57. B 67. B 77. C 87. B 97. B
8. D 18. A 28. C 38. C 48. A 58. C 68. A 78. B 88. D 98. C
9. C 19. C 29. A 39. C 49. A 59. B 69. C 79. D 89. C 99. D
10.C 20. D 30. A 40. C 50. A 60. C 70. C 80. D 90. B 100.B
Friday, June 24, 2011
RRC GROUP-D MODEL QUESTIONS
1. The number of ways of expressing 175 as the product of two whole number is-
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
2. A man first sold 2/3 rd of his total quantity of rice and 100 kg. again he sold ½ of the remaining quantity and 100kg. if the total remaining quantity of the stock is 150kg. then what was the original stock of rice?A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
A. 2100 kg
B. 1800kg
C. 2400kg
D. 2000kg
3. In a box the number of rupees, half rupees and quarter rupees are in the ratio 3:4:5 and the total value of coins is Rs 100. Find the nimber of each kind of coin respectively-
A. 48,64,80
B. 48,60,70
C. 55,78,90
D. 44,68,80
4. In a series of equally increasing number the 1st one is 51 and the 7th one is 81. Find the intermediate numbers-
A. 56,61,66,71,76
B. 58,63,68,73,78
C. 54,59,63,67,71
D. 59,65,69,75,77
5. If 80 persons can finish the work within 16 days by working 6 hours a day then how many hours per day should 64 persons work to complete that very job within 15 days?
A. 7 hrs
B. 8 hrs
C. 6 hrs
D. 5 hrs
6. 0.1% of Rs 5000 is Rs………….
A. 50
B. 500
C. 5
D. 10
7. There is a rebate of 15% if electric bills are paid in time. A man got a rebate of Rs 54 by paying the bills in time. What was his electric bill in rupees?
A. 300
B. 350
C. 360.
D. 380
8. A train travels at a speed of 30 km per hr for 12 minutes and then for the next 8 minutes at a speed of 45 km per hour. What is the average speed of the journey?
A. 40km/hr
B. 36km/hr
C. 43km/hr
D. 46km/hr
9. Of six consecutive numbers the sum of first three is 27. What is the sum of next three?
A. 30
B. 40
C. 36
D. 45
10. Find the value of (9+3)/3*2-(7-3*2)
A. 1
B. 7
C. 4
D. 0
11. Find the greatest number of 5 digits which is divisible by 7, 11, 13-
A. 99900
B. 99099
C. 99909
D. 99990
12. The present age of father is 34 years more than that of his son. Twelve years ago father’s age was 18 times the age of his son. What is the present age of the son in years?A. 99900
B. 99099
C. 99909
D. 99990
A. 16
B. 14
C. 12
D. 18
13. On a certain day temperature and pressure of air increase. The the speed of sound in air-
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains same
D. At first increases and then decreases
14. What is rectified spirits?
A. A 1:2 mixture of water and ethyl alcohol
B. A mixture of 90% ethyl alcohol and 10% water
C. A mixture of 95% ethyl alcohol and 5 % water
D. A 2:1 mixture of water and ethyl alcohol
15. ‘Bihu’ is the festival of-
A. Manipur
B. Mizoram
C. Asom
D. Nagaland
16. NACO is an organisation dealing with-
A. Cancer
B. Child health care
C. AIDS
D. None of the above
17. With which game is the ‘double fault’ associated?
A. Lawn tennis
B. Football
C. Cricket
D. Hockey
18. The capital of Uttarpradesh is-
A. Allahabad
B. Benaras
C. Patna
D. Lucknow
19. The director of the film ‘ Netaji the forgotten Hero ‘ is-
A. Rituparna ghosh
B. Shyam Bengal
C. Mani ratnam
D. Aprna sen
20. By ‘Jhum’ is meant-
A. A folk dance
B. A type of farming
C. A tribe
D. A river basin
Answers :
1.B
2.B
3.A
4.A
5.B
6.C
7.C
8.B
9.C
10.B
11.B
12.B
13.A
14.C
15.C
16.C
17.A
18.D
19.B
20.B
Thursday, June 16, 2011
Friday, June 10, 2011
RRB GOODS GUARD EXAM 2011 SOLVED PAPER
GENERAL INTELLIGENCE / REASONING
1. Which of the following is the same as Count, List, Weigh?
(a) Compare
(b) Sequence
(c) Number
(d) Measure
Ans : ( c ) Number
2. Which of the following is the same as Steel, Bronze, Brass ?
(a) Calcite
(b) Methane
(c) Zinc
(d) Coal
Ans : ( c ) Zinc
3. Which of the following is the same as Flood, Fire,Cyclone ?
(a) Damage
(b) Earthquake
(c) Rain
(d) Accident
Ans : ( b ) Earthquake
4. Which of the following is the same as Jute, Cotton,Wool ?
(a) Terylene
(b) Rayon
(c) Silk
(d) Nylon
Ans : ( c ) Silk
5. Which of the following is the same as Liver, Heart,Kidney ?
(a) Lung
(b) Blood
(c) Nose
(d) Urine
Ans : ( a ) Lung
Directions (Qs. 6-10) : Find the odd one out in the following questions :
6. (a) Physics
(b) Chemistry
(c) Biology
(d) Geography
Ans : ( d ) Geography
7. (a) Haldighati
(b) Sarnath
(c) Panipat
(d) Kurukshetra
Ans : ( b ) Sarnath
8. (a) December
(b) July
(c) September
(d) March
Ans : ( c ) September
9. (a) Park
(b) Bus-stand
(c) Dock
(d) Platform
Ans : ( a ) Park
10. (a) Needle
(b) Stick
(c) Thorn
(d) Pin
Ans : ( b ) Stick
11. A man is performing yoga with his head down and legs up. His face is towards the west. In which direction will his left hand be?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
Ans : ( a ) North
12. At 12:30, the hour hand of a clock faces North and the minute-hand faces South. At 1:45, the hour hand will be in which direction?
(a) South-East
(b) South-West
(c) North-East
(d) North-West
Ans : ( c ) North-East
13. In a certain code, MAN is written as SANM and WORD is written as SORDW. In that code, how would SALE be written?
(a) LESAS
(b) SALES
(c) SEALS
(d) LEASS
Ans : ( b ) SALES
14. If in a certain code language, ?123? means ?bright little boy?, ?145? means ?tall big boy? AND ?637? means ?beautiful little FLOWER?, then which digit in that language means ?bright??
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 2
Ans : ( d ) 2
15. Arrange the following in a meaningful sequence :
1. Shoulder 2. Wrist 3. Elbow
4. Palm 5. Finger
(a) 5, 4, 2, 3, 1
(b) 3, 4, 5, 2, 1
(c) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
(d) 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
Ans : ( a ) 5, 4, 2, 3, 1
16. If the 25th of August in a year is Thursday, then the number of Mondays in that month is
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 3
Ans : ( b ) 5
17. ?E? is the son of ?A?. ?D? is the son of ?B?. ?E? is married to ?C? and ?C? is B?s daughter. How is ?D? related to ?E? ?
(a) Brother
(b) Uncle
(c) Father-in-law
(d) Brother-in-law
Ans : ( d ) Brother-in-law
18. A cube, painted yellow on all faces, is cut into 27 small cubes of equal size. How many small cubes are painted on one face only?
(a) 1
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 12
Ans : ( b ) 6
Directions (Qs. 19 & 20) : In Each of these questions, there are two statements followed by two
conclusion numbered I and II. Take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts:
19. Statements :
All poets are readers.
No reader is wise.
Conclusions :
I. No poet is wise.
II. All readers are poets.
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Both the conclusions I and II follows
(d) None of the conclusions follows
Ans : ( a ) Only conclusion I follows
20. Statements :
All stones are diamonds.
Some diamonds are pearls.
Conclusions :
I. Some pearls are stones.
II. All diamonds are pearls.
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Both the conclusions I and II follows
(d) None of the conclusions follows
Ans : ( d ) None of the conclusions follows
Directions (Qs. 21-23) : These questions are based on the following statements :
Raja and Baldev are good in Hockey and Volleyball. Deepak and Raja are good in Hockey and
Baseball. Gurnam and Baldev are good in Cricket and Volleyball. Deepak, Gurnam and Joseph are Good in
Football and Baseball.
21. Who is good in Baseball, Cricket, Volleyball and Football?
(a) Raja
(b) Gurnam
(c) Baldev
(d) Deepak
Ans : ( b ) Gurnam
22. Who is good in Baseball, Volleyball and Hockey?
(a) Raja
(b) Gurnam
(c) Baldev
(d) Deepak
Ans : ( a ) Raja
23. Who is good in Hockey, Cricket and Volleyball?
(a) Raja
(b) Gurnam
(c) Baldev
(d) Deepak
Ans : ( c ) Baldev
RRB GOODS GUARD EXAM 2011 SOLVED PAPER
NUMERICAL ABILITY
1. The difference between the square of any two consecutive integers is equal to
(a) An even number
(b) Difference of two numbers
(c) Product of two numbers
(d) Sum of two numbers
Ans: ( d ) Sum of two numbers
2 What is the greatest possible length of a scale that can be used to measure exactly the following three lengths?
3m; 5m-10 cm; 12m-90 cm
(a) 30 cm
(b) 20 cm
(c) 25 cm
(d) 10 cm
Ans: ( a ) 30 cm
3 The HCF of two numbers is 96 and their LCM is 1296. If one number is 864, then what is the other number?
(a) 72
(b) 64
(c) 144
(d) 11664
Ans: ( c ) 144
4 A drum of water is 3/5 full. When 38 litres are drawn from it, it is just 1/8 full. What is the total capacity of the drum in litres?
(a) 100 litres
(b) 80 litres
(c) 85 litres
(d) 90 litres
Ans: ( b ) 80 litres
5 If the cost of telephone calls in a town is 30 paise per call for the first 100 calls, 25 paise per call for the next 100 calls and 20 paise per call for calls exceeding 200, then how many calls can be made in Rs. 50 ?
(a) 180
(b) 200
(c) 225
(d) 175
Ans: ( a ) 180
6 A reduction of Rs. 2 per kg in the price of sugar enables a man to purchase 4 kg more sugar now in Rs. 16. What was the original price of sugar?
(a) Rs. 16 per kg
(b) Rs. 8 per kg
(c) Rs. 4 per kg
(d) Rs. 2 per kg
Ans: ( c ) Rs. 4 per kg
7 33% marks are required to pass an examination. A candidate who gets 210 marks, fails by 21 marks. What are the total marks for the examination ?
(a) 700
(b) 650
(c) 600
(d) 550
Ans: ( a ) 700
8 The ticket for admission to an exhibition was Rs. 5 and it was later reduced by 20%. As a result, the sale proceeds of tickets increased by 44%. What was the percentage increase in number of visitors?
(a) 50%
(b) 25%
(c) 75%
(d) 80%
Ans: ( d ) 80%
9 The average weight of 8 men is increased by 2 kg when one man of 50 kg is replaced by a new man. What is the weight of the new man?
(a) 58 kg
(b) 68 kg
(c) 60 kg
(d) 66 kg
Ans: ( d ) 66 kg
10. Nine men went to a hotel 8 of them spent Rs. 3 each over their meals and the ninth person spent Rs. 2 more than the average expenditure of all the nine. The total money spent by all of them was
(a) Rs. 26
(b) Rs. 40
(c) Rs. 29.25
(d) Rs. 27.50
Ans: ( c ) Rs. 29.25
11. The sum of the present ages of A, B and C is 90 years. Six years ago, their ages were in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3. What is the present age of C?
(a) 36 years
(b) 42 years
(c) 40 years
(d) 45 years
Ans: ( b ) 42 years
12. The sum of the salaries of A and B is Rs. 2,100. A spends 80% of his salary and B spends 70% of his salary. If their savings are in the proportion of 4 : 3, then what is the salary of A
(a) Rs. 1400
(b) Rs. 1200
(c) Rs. 900
(d) Rs. 700
Ans: ( a ) Rs. 1400
13 Rs. 1,290 are divided between A, B and C such that As share is 1 ½ times that of B and Bs share is 1 ¾ times that of C. What is Cs hsare?
(a) Rs. 240
(b) Rs. 420
(c) Rs. 630
(d) Rs. 350
Ans: ( a ) Rs. 240
14. Five litres of water is added to a certain quantity of pure milk, which costs Rs. 3 per litre. If the mixture is sold at the same price of Rs. 3 per litre, a profit of 20% is made (ignore the cost of water). What is the amount of pure milk in the mixture?
(a) 20 litres
(b) 28 litres
(c) 25 litres
(d) 30 litres
Ans: ( c ) 25 litres
15. Fifteen men working 8 hours a day take 21 days to complete a work. How many days will be taken by 21 women to complete the same work, working 6 hours a day? ( 3 women do as much work as 2 men).
(a) 25 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 33 days
(d) 28 days
Ans: ( b ) 30 days
16. A can knit a pair of socks in 3 days. B can knit the same pair in 9 days. If they are knitting together, then in how many days will they knit two pairs of socks?
(a) 4 days
(b) 5 days
(c) 4 ½ days
(d) 3 days
Ans: ( c ) 4 ½ days
17. Two electronic music systems are bought for Rs. 8,000. One was sold at 40% profit and the other was sold at 40$ loss. If the S.P. of both be same, then what was the C.P. of both the systems ?
(a) Rs. 3000, Rs. 5000
(b) Rs. 4000, Rs. 4000
(c) Rs. 3500, Rs. 4500
(d) Rs. 2400, Rs. 5600
Ans: ( d ) Rs. 2400, Rs. 5600
18. If the marked price is 30% more than the C.P. and 10% discount is allowed on the marked price, then what will be the gain %?
(a) 20%
(b) 15 ½%
(c) 17%
(d) 18 ½%
Ans: ( c ) 17%
19. A man has Rs. 2,000. Some portion of this amount, he lends @ 5% p.a. S.I. and the remaining portion of the same is lent at 4% p.a. S.I. He earns Rs. 96 in a year. What amount was lent by him at 4%.
(a) Rs. 1200
(b) Rs. 600
(c) Rs. 400
(d) Rs. 1600
Ans: ( c ) Rs. 400
20. What sum will become Rs. 496 in 6 years @ 4% p.a. ?
(a) Rs. 500
(b) Rs. 400
(c) Rs. 460
(d) Rs. 456
Ans: ( b ) Rs. 400
21. A car covers a distance of 420 km at its normal speed. If the speed of the car would have been 10 km/hr
more htan the normal speed, then it would have taken one hour less to cover the same distance. What was the speed
of the car?
(a) 50 km/hr
(b) 40 km/hr
(c) 55 km/hr
(d) 60 km/hr
Ans: ( d ) 60 km/hr
22. A 110 m long train is running @ 60 km/hr. How much time will it take to cover the 240 m long platform?
(a) 5 5/6 seconds
(b) 14 2/5 seconds
(c) 4 seconds
(d) 21 seconds
Ans: ( d ) 21 seconds
23. In a river, a man takes 3 hours in rowing 3 km upstream or 15 km downstream. What is the speed of the
current?
(a) 2 km/hr
(b) 4 km/hr
(c) 6 km/hr
(d) 9 km/hr
Ans: ( a ) 2 km/hr
24. A and B can cover a 200 m race in 22 seconds and 25 seconds respectively. When a finished the race, then B is at what distance from the finishing line?
(a) 30 m
(b) 48 m
(c) 24 m
(d) 54 m
Ans: ( c ) 24 m
25. The difference between the circumference of a circle and its radius is 37 metres. What is the radius of
the circle?
(a) 5 m
(b) 7 m
(c) 12 m
(d) 14 m
Ans: ( b ) 7 m
Thursday, June 9, 2011
RITES RECRUITMENT
RITES DGM/ Manager Recruitment Notification 2011
Name Of The Post: DGM (Legal)
No of Vacancies: 01 (One)
Age Limit :01.03.2011: 38 Years
Qualification:
1st Class Graduate with LLB.Minimum 8 years post qualification experience in legal issues pertaining to contract/commercial/service matters.
Pay Scale: 29100-54500
Name Of The Post: Manager (Legal)
No OF Vacancies: 01 (One)
Age Limit : 01.03.2011: 36 Years
Qualification:
1st Class Graduate with LLB.Minimum 6 years post qualification experience in legal issues pertaining to contract/commercial/service matters.
Pay Scale: 24900-50500
How To Apply
Interested candidates fulfilling the above criteria may send their applications in the format on RITES website to Manager (P)/Rectt.RITES LTD,RITES Bhawan,Plot No.1,Sector 29,Gurgaon-122001 (Haryana) by 4.07.2011.The applicants should enclose two recent passport size photographs,attested copies of certificates and qualifications, experience.
ADDRESS
RITES LTD,RITES Bhawan,
Plot No.1,Sector 29,
Gurgaon-122001 (Haryana)
Last Date : 4th July,2011
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