RRB PRACTICE QUESTION PAPER

1. An emulsion is a colloid of a—
(A) Gas in a liquid
(B) Liquid in a liquid
(C) Liquid in a gas
(D) Gas in a solid

2. Percentage of carbon in steel ranges from—
(A) 0.1 to 1.5
(B) 1.5 to 3.0
(C) 3.0 to 4.0
(D) 4.0 to 6.0

3. Which of the following is not present in German-silver ?
(A) Copper
(B) Nickel
(C) Silver
(D) Zinc

4. According to the latest estimates, the literacy rate (% of population) in India is—
(A) 63%
(B) 65%
(C) 67%
(D) 68%

5. Who won the U.S. Open (Lawn Tennis) in September 2007 ?
(A) Novak Djokovic
(B) Roger Federer
(C) Rafael Nadal
(D) None of the above

6. Who propounded the theory of ‘Economic Drain of India’ during British imperialism ?
(A) W. C. Bannerji
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Gopalkrishna Gokhale
(D) Gandhiji

7. First Indian Commander-in-Chief was—
(A) Gen. K.S. Thimayya
(B) Gen. K. M. Kariappa
(C) S. H. F. J. Manekshaw
(D) None of the above

8. A computer virus is—
(A) A chemical that attacks silicon.
(B) A micro-organism that destroys integrated circuits
(C) Data that the computer fails to handle
(D) A special kind of computer programme

9. India has a coastline of—
(A) 5500 km
(B) 6500 km
(C) 7500 km
(D) 8400 km

10. Jawahar Tunnel, the largest in India is located in the State of—
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Karnataka
(D) Himachal Pradesh

11. The most literate union territory in India is—
(A) Delhi
(B) Lakshadweep
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Puducherry

12. Which of the following is the smallest Parliamentary Constituency in terms of area ?
(A) Chandni Chowk (Delhi)
(B) Sadar (Delhi)
(C) Kolkata North West
(D) Mumbai South

13. Who is the author of the book ‘Two Lives’ ?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) James Patterson
(C) Ved Mehta
(D) Khushwant Singh

14. Which of the following sets of countries are referred to as ‘The Golden Crescent’ the largest opium industry in the world ?
(A) Myanmar, Laos and Thailand
(B) Afghanistan, Iran and Iraq
(C) Afghanistan, Pakistan and Iran
(D) Myanmar, Malaysia and Thailand

15. Which is the anti-coagulant substance in blood ?
(A) Fibrinogen
(B) Heparin
(C) Thrombin
(D) Globin

16. Which group of the following countries participated in the ‘Malabar 07,’ a six days joint naval exercise (September 4-9) involving 25 warships, in the Bay of Bengal ?
(A) India, U. S., Japan, Australia and South Korea
(B) India, U.S., Australia, Singapore and South Korea
(C) India, U.S., Japan, Singapore and Australia
(D) India, U.S., Japan, Singapore and South Korea

17. Who coined the term ‘Hindu rate of growth’ for Indian economy ?
(A) A. K. Sen
(B) Kirit S. Parikh
(C) Raj Krishna
(D) Montek Singh Ahluwalia

18. Sri ARVIND KEJRIWAL has been selected for the RAMON MAGSAYSAY AWARD for 2006 for his important contribution in the field—
(A) Formation of Pani (water) Panchayats in Rajasthan helping rural people in facing their acute water problem
(B) Effective implementation of the ‘National Minimum Employment Guarantee Scheme’ in rural areas
(C) ‘Right to Information’ movement and empowering citizens to fight corruption
(D) Extending education to children of slum dwellers in Delhi

19. The three day VIII World Hindi Conference was held in July, 2007 at—
(A) New Delhi
(B) London
(C) Now York
(D) Kathmandu

20. In which country is the volcano Mount Gamkonora, the highest peak of Halmahera island, which erupted in July, 2007 located ?
(A) Japan
(B) Indonesia
(C) Russia
(D) France

21. Name the Vice-captain of the Indian Cricket Team which toured South Africa in T-20 tournament recently—
(A) Virender Sehwag
(B) Anil Kumble
(C) Irfan Pathan
(D) Yuvraj Singh

22. The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) consists of—
(A) China, Russia, Kazhakistan, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan
(B) China, Russia, Mongolia, Kazhakistan, Uzbekistan and Tajikistan
(C) China, Russia, Mongolia, Iran, Kazhakistan and Uzbekistan
(D) China, Russia, Iran, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan

23. Which one of the following companies announced sometime back the launch of India’s first personal computer with one terabyte hard drive capacity ?
(A) Infosys Technologies
(B) Wipro
(C) HCL Infosystems
(D) IBM

24. Which of the following companies has become the highest ranked Indian company in the Fortune Global 500 list (at 135th position) in terms of sales ?
(A) Wipro
(B) Reliance
(C) Indian Oil Corporation
(D) ONGC

25. Which one of the following has not been included in the list of new seven wonders ?
(A) Roman Colosseum (Italy)
(B) Machu Picchu (Peru)
(C) Eiffel Tower in Paris (France)
(D) Christ the Redeemer (Brazil)

26. The Chairman of the Indian Censor Board of Film is—
(A) Shri Anupam Kher
(B) Shri Gulzar
(C) Smt. Sharmila Tagore
(D) Shri Sanjeev Kumar

27. The major harmful gas emitted by automobile vehicles which causes air pollution is—
(A) Carbon Monoxide
(B) Methane
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Ozone gas

28. Who among the following is not a classical economist ?
(A) David Ricardo
(B) John Stuart Mill
(C) Thomas Malthus
(D) John Maynard Keynes

29. According to the Employment Outlook 2007 reports of the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), the number of new jobs created in India every year from 2000 to 2005 is—
(A) 5 million
(B) 8 million
(C) 11 million
(D) 13 million

30. ‘World Bank’ is also known as—
(A) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(B) International Bank for Rehabilitation and Development
(C) International Bank for Refinance and Development
(D) International Bank for Research and Development

31. By which Bill does the Government propose collection of revenues for a year ?
(A) Economic Bill
(B) Finance Bill
(C) Supplementary Bill
(D) None of the above

32. Which is the oldest trade union organization in India ?
(A) Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC)
(B) Centre of Indian Trade Unions (CITU)
(C) All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC)
(D) Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh (BMS)

33. Prof. Amartya Sen was awarded Nobel Prize for his contribution to the field of—
(A) Food and Famines
(B) Welfare economics
(C) Indian economy
(D) Poverty

34. Which of the following items is a major item of Indian export ?
(A) Computer chips
(B) Potato chips
(C) Textile garments
(D) Car engines

35. Indian agriculture is typically characterised as—
(A) Land surplus, labour scarce economy
(B) Land surplus, labour surplus economy
(C) Land scarce, labour surplus economy
(D) Land scarce, labour scarce economy

36. The process of curing inflation by reducing money supply is called—
(A) Cost-push inflation
(B) Demand-pull inflation
(C) Disinflation
(D) Reflation

37. Which of the following pair of goods are close substitutes ?
(A) Milk and Sugar
(B) Sugar and Tea
(C) Tea and Coffee
(D) Coffee and Biscuits

38. Long-term funds in the capital market can be raised either by borrowing from certain institutions or through—
(A) Issue of note
(B) Taking loan from Government
(C) Issue of securities
(D) Taking loan from foreign institutions

39. As required by the WTO agreement, the Indian Patent Act was amended in 1999. The Act first came into force in the year—
(A) 1965
(B) 1970
(C) 1975
(D) 1980

40. The Indian Parliament is competent to enact law on a State subject if—
(A) Emergency under Article 352 is in operation
(B) All the State Assemblies of the country make such a request
(C) The President sends such a message to Parliament
(D) None of the above

41. The President of India enjoys emergency powers of—
(A) Four types
(B) Two types
(C) Five types
(D) Three types

42. Sarvodaya stands for—
(A) Total revolution
(B) Non-cooperation
(C) Upliftment of all
(D) Non-violence

43. Right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights during the rule of—
(A) Indira Gandhi Government
(B) Morarji Desai Government
(C) Narasimha Rao Government
(D) Vajpayee Government

44. The chapter or Fundamental Duties includes—
(A) Duty to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our freedom movement
(B) Duty to vote in General Election
(C) Duty to promote the sense of fraternity among the people
(D) Duty to stick to the political party on whose ticket one contested election

45. In which city of South Africa was Gandhi beaten up and thrown off the pavement by the white people ?
(A) Cape Town
(B) Durban
(C) Johannesburg
(D) Pretoria

46. A national political party is one which receives 4% of the total votes polled in—
(A) Two or more States
(B) The capital city
(C) Four or more States
(D) In all the States

47. The basic features of the Indian Constitution which are not amendable under Article 368 are—
(A) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system and judicial review
(B) Sovereignty, territorial integrity and parliamentary system of government
(C) Judicial review and the federal system
(D) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system, judicial review and parliamentary system of government

48. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy ?
(A) Part I
(B) Part III
(C) Part IV
(D) Part V

49. How many types of writs can be issued by the Supreme Court ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 6

50. Which of the following countries is not a member of the SAARC ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Bhutan
(C) Maldives
(D) Myanmar

Answers :
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (C)
4. (B) As per population census 2001 the literacy rate in India is 64•8%.
5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (C)
10. (A) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (C)
15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (C)
20. (B) 21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (C)
25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (C)
30. (A) 31. (B)
32. (C) AITUC was established is 1920, which was the first national level trade union organisation in India to organise workers in the country.
33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (C) 36. (C) 37. (C)
38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (A) 41. (D) 42. (C)
43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (B) 46. (C) 47. (D)
48. (C) 49. (C) 50. (D)

SOUTHERN RAILWAY RAILWAY RECRUITMENT CELL RECRUITMENT

Name Of the Post :Cultural – Group ‘C’

Total Vacancies : 02
Qualification : Candidates should possess Degree / Diploma / Certificate in Music from Government
recognised Institute.
Pay Scale : Rs.5,200-20,200 + Rs.1,900/-
Age Limit : 18 to 30 years

Name Of The Post :Scouts & Guides – Group ‘C’
Total Vacancies : 02
Qualification ::Minimum 10th Pass or ITI or equivalent at the time of applying.
Pay Scale :Rs.5,200-20,200 + Rs.1,900/-
Age Limit : 18 to 33 years

Name Of the Post :Scouts & Guides – Group ‘D’ (erstwhile)
Total Vacancies : 12
Qualification : : Minimum 10th Pass or ITI or equivalent at the time of applying.
Pay Scale :Rs.5,200-20,200 + Rs.1,800/-
Age Limit : 18 to 33 years

Tentative date for Written Examination 18.09.2011

Application Fee :
The examination fee of  Rs.40/- (Rupees forty only) is payable either in the form of Demand Drafts (DD) / Indian Postal Orders (IPO), drawn in favour of ‘Assistant Personnel Officer / Recruitment’, payable at Chennai.

How To Apply :
Application in the prescribed format, complete in all respects along with all the enclosures should be sent to the following address, in a cover, duly superscribing “APPLICATION FOR RECRUITMENT AGAINST CULTURAL QUOTA” (or) “APPLICATION FOR RECRUITMENT AGAINST SCOUTS GUIDES QUOTA – GROUP ‘C’ ” (or) “APPLICATION FOR RECRUITMENT AGAINST SCOUTS & GUIDES QUOTA – GROUP ‘D’ (ERSTWHILE)”

ADDRESS
THE ASSISTANT PERSONNEL OFFICER / RECRUITMENT,
Railway Recruitment Cell, Southern Railway,
III Floor, No.5, Dr.P.V.Cherian Crescent Road,
Egmore, Chennai- 600 008.
Last Date : 31.08.2011.

Click Here To Download APPLICATION FORM

Click Here For NOTIFICATION

RRB PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. An emulsion is a colloid of a—
(A) Gas in a liquid
(B) Liquid in a liquid
(C) Liquid in a gas
(D) Gas in a solid

2. Percentage of carbon in steel ranges from—
(A) 0.1 to 1.5
(B) 1.5 to 3.0
(C) 3.0 to 4.0
(D) 4.0 to 6.0

3. Which of the following is not present in German-silver ?
(A) Copper
(B) Nickel
(C) Silver
(D) Zinc

4. According to the latest estimates, the literacy rate (% of population) in India is—
(A) 63%
(B) 65%
(C) 67%
(D) 68%

5. Who won the U.S. Open (Lawn Tennis) in September 2007 ?
(A) Novak Djokovic
(B) Roger Federer
(C) Rafael Nadal
(D) None of the above

6. Who propounded the theory of 'Economic Drain of India' during British imperialism ?
(A) W. C. Bannerji
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Gopalkrishna Gokhale
(D) Gandhiji

7. First Indian Commander-in-Chief was—
(A) Gen. K.S. Thimayya
(B) Gen. K. M. Kariappa
(C) S. H. F. J. Manekshaw
(D) None of the above

8. A computer virus is—
(A) A chemical that attacks silicon.
(B) A micro-organism that destroys integrated circuits
(C) Data that the computer fails to handle
(D) A special kind of computer programme

9. India has a coastline of—
(A) 5500 km
(B) 6500 km
(C) 7500 km
(D) 8400 km

10. Jawahar Tunnel, the largest in India is located in the State of—
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Karnataka
(D) Himachal Pradesh

11. The most literate union territory in India is—
(A) Delhi
(B) Lakshadweep
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Puducherry

12. Which of the following is the smallest Parliamentary Constituency in terms of area ?
(A) Chandni Chowk (Delhi)
(B) Sadar (Delhi)
(C) Kolkata North West
(D) Mumbai South

13. Who is the author of the book 'Two Lives' ?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) James Patterson
(C) Ved Mehta
(D) Khushwant Singh

14. Which of the following sets of countries are referred to as 'The Golden Crescent' the largest opium industry in the world ?
(A) Myanmar, Laos and Thailand
(B) Afghanistan, Iran and Iraq
(C) Afghanistan, Pakistan and Iran
(D) Myanmar, Malaysia and Thailand

15. Which is the anti-coagulant substance in blood ?
(A) Fibrinogen
(B) Heparin
(C) Thrombin
(D) Globin

16. Which group of the following countries participated in the 'Malabar 07,' a six days joint naval exercise (September 4-9) involving 25 warships, in the Bay of Bengal ?
(A) India, U. S., Japan, Australia and South Korea
(B) India, U.S., Australia, Singapore and South Korea
(C) India, U.S., Japan, Singapore and Australia
(D) India, U.S., Japan, Singapore and South Korea

17. Who coined the term 'Hindu rate of growth' for Indian economy ?
(A) A. K. Sen
(B) Kirit S. Parikh
(C) Raj Krishna
(D) Montek Singh Ahluwalia

18. Sri ARVIND KEJRIWAL has been selected for the RAMON MAGSAYSAY AWARD for 2006 for his important contribution in the field—
(A) Formation of Pani (water) Panchayats in Rajasthan helping rural people in facing their acute water problem
(B) Effective implementation of the 'National Minimum Employment Guarantee Scheme' in rural areas
(C) 'Right to Information' movement and empowering citizens to fight corruption
(D) Extending education to children of slum dwellers in Delhi

19. The three day VIII World Hindi Conference was held in July, 2007 at—
(A) New Delhi
(B) London
(C) Now York
(D) Kathmandu

20. In which country is the volcano Mount Gamkonora, the highest peak of Halmahera island, which erupted in July, 2007 located ?
(A) Japan
(B) Indonesia
(C) Russia
(D) France

21. Name the Vice-captain of the Indian Cricket Team which toured South Africa in T-20 tournament recently—
(A) Virender Sehwag
(B) Anil Kumble
(C) Irfan Pathan
(D) Yuvraj Singh

22. The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) consists of—
(A) China, Russia, Kazhakistan, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan
(B) China, Russia, Mongolia, Kazhakistan, Uzbekistan and Tajikistan
(C) China, Russia, Mongolia, Iran, Kazhakistan and Uzbekistan
(D) China, Russia, Iran, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan

23. Which one of the following companies announced sometime back the launch of India's first personal computer with one terabyte hard drive capacity ?
(A) Infosys Technologies
(B) Wipro
(C) HCL Infosystems
(D) IBM

24. Which of the following companies has become the highest ranked Indian company in the Fortune Global 500 list (at 135th position) in terms of sales ?
(A) Wipro
(B) Reliance
(C) Indian Oil Corporation
(D) ONGC

25. Which one of the following has not been included in the list of new seven wonders ?
(A) Roman Colosseum (Italy)
(B) Machu Picchu (Peru)
(C) Eiffel Tower in Paris (France)
(D) Christ the Redeemer (Brazil)

26. The Chairman of the Indian Censor Board of Film is—
(A) Shri Anupam Kher
(B) Shri Gulzar
(C) Smt. Sharmila Tagore
(D) Shri Sanjeev Kumar

27. The major harmful gas emitted by automobile vehicles which causes air pollution is—
(A) Carbon Monoxide
(B) Methane
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Ozone gas

28. Who among the following is not a classical economist ?
(A) David Ricardo
(B) John Stuart Mill
(C) Thomas Malthus
(D) John Maynard Keynes

29. According to the Employment Outlook 2007 reports of the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), the number of new jobs created in India every year from 2000 to 2005 is—
(A) 5 million
(B) 8 million
(C) 11 million
(D) 13 million

30. 'World Bank' is also known as—
(A) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(B) International Bank for Rehabilitation and Development
(C) International Bank for Refinance and Development
(D) International Bank for Research and Development

31. By which Bill does the Government propose collection of revenues for a year ?
(A) Economic Bill
(B) Finance Bill
(C) Supplementary Bill
(D) None of the above

32. Which is the oldest trade union organization in India ?
(A) Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC)
(B) Centre of Indian Trade Unions (CITU)
(C) All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC)
(D) Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh (BMS)

33. Prof. Amartya Sen was awarded Nobel Prize for his contribution to the field of—
(A) Food and Famines
(B) Welfare economics
(C) Indian economy
(D) Poverty

34. Which of the following items is a major item of Indian export ?
(A) Computer chips
(B) Potato chips
(C) Textile garments
(D) Car engines

35. Indian agriculture is typically characterised as—
(A) Land surplus, labour scarce economy
(B) Land surplus, labour surplus economy
(C) Land scarce, labour surplus economy
(D) Land scarce, labour scarce economy

36. The process of curing inflation by reducing money supply is called—
(A) Cost-push inflation
(B) Demand-pull inflation
(C) Disinflation
(D) Reflation

37. Which of the following pair of goods are close substitutes ?
(A) Milk and Sugar
(B) Sugar and Tea
(C) Tea and Coffee
(D) Coffee and Biscuits

38. Long-term funds in the capital market can be raised either by borrowing from certain institutions or through—
(A) Issue of note
(B) Taking loan from Government
(C) Issue of securities
(D) Taking loan from foreign institutions

39. As required by the WTO agreement, the Indian Patent Act was amended in 1999. The Act first came into force in the year—
(A) 1965
(B) 1970
(C) 1975
(D) 1980

40. The Indian Parliament is competent to enact law on a State subject if—
(A) Emergency under Article 352 is in operation
(B) All the State Assemblies of the country make such a request
(C) The President sends such a message to Parliament
(D) None of the above

41. The President of India enjoys emergency powers of—
(A) Four types
(B) Two types
(C) Five types
(D) Three types

42. Sarvodaya stands for—
(A) Total revolution
(B) Non-cooperation
(C) Upliftment of all
(D) Non-violence

43. Right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights during the rule of—
(A) Indira Gandhi Government
(B) Morarji Desai Government
(C) Narasimha Rao Government
(D) Vajpayee Government

44. The chapter or Fundamental Duties includes—
(A) Duty to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our freedom movement
(B) Duty to vote in General Election
(C) Duty to promote the sense of fraternity among the people
(D) Duty to stick to the political party on whose ticket one contested election

45. In which city of South Africa was Gandhi beaten up and thrown off the pavement by the white people ?
(A) Cape Town
(B) Durban
(C) Johannesburg
(D) Pretoria

46. A national political party is one which receives 4% of the total votes polled in—
(A) Two or more States
(B) The capital city
(C) Four or more States
(D) In all the States

47. The basic features of the Indian Constitution which are not amendable under Article 368 are—
(A) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system and judicial review
(B) Sovereignty, territorial integrity and parliamentary system of government
(C) Judicial review and the federal system
(D) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system, judicial review and parliamentary system of government

48. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy ?
(A) Part I
(B) Part III
(C) Part IV
(D) Part V

49. How many types of writs can be issued by the Supreme Court ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 6

50. Which of the following countries is not a member of the SAARC ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Bhutan
(C) Maldives
(D) Myanmar

51. The Supreme Court of India enjoys—
(A) Original jurisdictions
(B) Advisory jurisdictions
(C) Appellate and advisory jurisdictions
(D) Original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions

52. Who attended the Congress of Oppressed Nationalists at Brussels in 1927, on behalf of the National Congress ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Dr. Ansari
(D) Motilal Nehru

53. Who amongst the following made it possible for the Indians to enter the Indian Civil Service through an open competitive examination ?
(A) William Bentinck
(B) Dalhousie
(C) Mayo
(D) Ripon

54. In which year Lala Lajpat Rai was deported to Mandalay for organising the agrarian movement in Punjab ?
(A) 1905
(B) 1907
(C) 1909
(D) 1911

55. Which Governor General had entertained Ranjit Singh with great honour at Ropar ?
(A) Minto I
(B) William Bentinck
(C) Hastings
(D) Auckland

56. The Khajli Sultans of Delhi were—
(A) Mongols
(B) Afghans
(C) Turks
(D) A Jat tribe

57. The 'Arya Samaj' was founded by—
(A) Swami Dayananda Saraswati
(B) Swami Vivekananda
(C) Keshav Chandra Sen
(D) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

58. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad started an Urdu Weekly, The Al-Hilal in 1912, but, on its being banned by the Government, he founded the Al-Balagh in—
(A) 1913
(B) 1914
(C) 1915
(D) 1916

59. High Courts were established in Calcutta, Bombay and Madras in—
(A) 1935
(B) 1919
(C) 1892
(D) 1862

60. Who was the first Woman President of Indian National Congress ?
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Sucheta Kripalani
(C) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
(D) Annie Besant

61. Arabs were defeated in 738 A. D. by—
(A) Pratiharas
(B) Rashtrakutas
(C) Palas
(D) Chalukyas

62. Which of the following reform movements was the first to be started in the 19th century ?
(A) Prarthana Samaj
(B) Brahmo Samaj
(C) Arya Samaj
(D) Rama Krishna Mission

63. The rulers of Vijayanagar promoted—
(A) Hindi, Marathi and Sanskrit
(B) Malayalam, Tamil and Sanskrit
(C) Tamil, Telugu and Sanskrit
(D) Telugu, Urdu and Sanskrit

64. In India, the irrigation of agricultural land is carried out maximum by—
(A) Canals
(B) Wells
(C) Tubewells
(D) Tanks

65. The four largest planets of the Solar System in decreasing sizes are—
(A) Jupiter, Mercury, Saturn and Uranus
(B) Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn and Neptune
(C) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune
(D) Jupiter, Mercury, Saturn and Neptune

66. Which of the following produces maximum crude petroleum in India at present ?
(A) Assam
(B) Gujarat
(C) Off-shore Bombay High
(D) Coastal Tamil Nadu

67. India is one of the largest producers of manganese are in the world along with—
(A) China and Russia
(B) Brazil and Russia
(C) Australia and U.S.A.
(D) South Africa and U.S.A.

68. The 'Chipko Movement' is related to—
(A) Wildlife preservation
(B) Forest conservation
(C) Scientific agriculture
(D) Deforestation

69. Which of the following rivers makes an estuary ?
(A) Cauvery
(B) Krishna
(C) Narmada
(D) Ganga

70. Baltora glacier is located in—
(A) Karakoram ranges
(B) Pamir plateau
(C) Shivalik
(D) Alps

71. The largest producer of world's mica is—
(A) U.S.A.
(B) U.K.
(C) Canada
(D) India

72. The International Date Line is the—
(A) 180° Longitude
(B) 88½° East Longitude
(C) Equator
(D) 0° Longitude

73. Which of the following countries has highest percentage of land under cultivation ?
(A) China
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Canada
(D) India

74. Aryabhata was launched from—
(A) Sriharikota
(B) Mahe
(C) Chandipur
(D) Daman

75. How for does the Exclusive Economic Zone of a country extend from her coast ?
(A) 120 km
(B) 220 km
(C) 320 km
(D) 420 km

76. In which of the following groups, animals bear no teeth ?
(A) Peacock, Ostrich, Tortoise
(B) Owl, Loris, Crow
(C) Alligator, Turtle, Tortoise
(D) Turtle, Kiwi, Cow

77. Jaundice is a symptom of disease of—
(A) Kidney
(B) Liver
(C) Pancreas
(D) Thyroid

78. The vaccination against small pox involves the introduction of—
(A) Killed germs
(B) Weakened germs
(C) Live antibodies
(D) Activated germs

79. Deficiency of Vitamin B6 in man causes—
(A) Rickets
(B) Scurvy
(C) Beri-beri
(D) Anaemia

80. Which is the national flower of India ?
(A) Rose
(B) Lotus
(C) Lily
(D) Sunflower

81. First successful heart transplantation was done by—
(A) D. S. Paintal
(B) C. N. Barnard
(C) D. Shetty
(D) P. K. Sen

82. Yellow Fever is transmitted by—
(A) Aedes
(B) Anopheles
(C) House-fly
(D) Culex

83. Which one of the following is a major green house gas ?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Chloro fluorocarbon
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Freon

84. In atmosphere the lowermost layer is—
(A) Troposphere
(B) Exosphere
(C) Ionosphere
(D) Strato sphere

85. Washing of peeled vegetables removes the vitamin—
(A) A
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E

86. Pasteurisation is the process in which milk is heated to—
(A) 60° C for 10 minutes
(B) 63° C for 20 minutes
(C) 63° C for 30 minutes
(D) 72° C for 10 minutes

87. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer from the code given below :
List-I (Discoverer)
(a) Jenner
(b) Watson
(c) Landsteiner
(d) Flemming
List-II (Discoveries)
1. Blood grouping
2. Penicillin
3. Vaccination
4. Double helix
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 2 4 1

88. Which of the following is most elastic ?
(A) Rubber
(B) Wet clay
(C) Steel
(D) Plastic

89. The first ever robot spacecraft to probe planet Venus was named—
(A) Galileo
(B) Magellan
(C) Newton
(D) Challenger

90. A man with colour blindness will see red as—
(A) Yellow
(B) Blue
(C) Green
(D) Violet

91. Comets revolve around the—
(A) Earth
(B) Venus
(C) Sun
(D) Jupiter

92. When a person walking in bright Sunlight enters a dark room, he is not able to see clearly for a little while because—
(A) The eye muscles cannot immediately adjust the focal length of the eye lens
(B) The retina retains the bright images for sometime and becomes momentarily insensitive
(C) The iris is, unable to contract the pupil immediately
(D) The iris is unable to dilate the pupil immediately

93. The swing of a spinning cricket ball in air can be explained on the basis of—
(A) Sudden change in wind direction
(B) Buoyancy of air
(C) Turbulance caused by wind
(D) Bernoulli's theorem

94. The freezer in a refrigerator is fitted near the top—
(A) To keep it away from hot compressor which is nearer to the bottom
(B) Because of convenience
(C) It facilitates convection currents
(D) To minimise power consumption

95. The chemical name of 'Common salt' is—
(A) Sodium chloride
(B) Sodium nitrate
(C) Ammonium chloride
(D) Calcium chloride

96. Denatured spirit is ethanol mixed with—
(A) Petrol
(B) Kerosene
(C) Water
(D) Pyridine

97. The metal, which is a constituent of vitamin B12 is—
(A) Iron
(B) Magnesium
(C) Zinc
(D) Cobalt

98. The most abundant inert gas in the atmosphere is—
(A) Helium
(B) Neon
(C) Argon
(D) Krypton

99. Which metal is extracted from sea water ?
(A) Potassium
(B) Magnesium
(C) Aluminium
(D) Beryllium

100. Precentage of lead in lead pencils is—
(A) 0
(B) 31 – 66
(C) 40
(D) 80

Answers :
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (C)
4. (B) As per population census 2001 the literacy rate in India is 64•8%.
5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (C)
10. (A) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (C)
15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (C)
20. (B) 21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (C)
25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (C)
30. (A) 31. (B)
32. (C) AITUC was established is 1920, which was the first national level trade union organisation in India to organise workers in the country.
33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (C) 36. (C) 37. (C)
38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (A) 41. (D) 42. (C)
43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (B) 46. (C) 47. (D)
48. (C) 49. (C) 50. (D) 51. (D) 52. (A)
53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (B) 56. (C) 57. (A)
58. (C) 59. (D) 60. (D) 61. (A) 62. (B)
63. (C) 64. (A) 65. (C) 66. (A) 67. (A)
68. (B) 69. (D) 70. (A) 71. (D) 72. (A)
73. (D) In India cultivated land is nearly 55% while in USA it is only 44%.
74. First Indian satellite Aryabhata was launched on April 19, 1975 by the Soviet rocket, Cosmodrome (Soviet Union).
75. (C) 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (D)
80. (B) 81. (B) 82. (A) 83. (A) 84. (A)
85. (B) 86. (C) 87. (C) 88. (C) 89. (B)
90. (C) 91. (C) 92. (B) 93. (D) 94. (C)
95. (A) 96. (C) 97. (D) 98. (C) 99. (B)
100. (A)

RRC RECRUITMENT AGAINST SCOUTS AND GUIDES QUOTA

Railway Recruitment Cell Eastern  Railway 56, C. R. Avenue, Kolkata – 700 012.
RECRUITMENT AGAINST SCOUTS AND GUIDES QUOTA  FOR THE YEAR 2011-2012  Employment Notice No. 0111/S&G         Closing Date and Time for receipt of applications : 30th June, 2011 upto 17.00 hrs. Closing Date & Time of Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura, Sikkim, Jammu & Kashmir, Lahaul & Spiti Districts and Pangi sub-division of Chamba district of Himachal Predesh, Andaman & Nicobar and Lakshadweep Island and candidates residing abroad : 15th July, 2011.
Download Notification for Employment Notice No. 0111/S&G Download Application Form for Employment Notice No. 0111/S&G Download Annexure for Employment Notice No. 0111/S&G

RRB MUMBAI ECRC & GOODS GUARD RESULT ( EXAM HELD ON 26-09-2010)

2/2010

03 & 04

WRITTEN TEST RESULT: Appr. ECRC & Goods Guards

RRB BHUBANESWAR JUNIOR ENGINEERS RESULT

RRB CHENNAI WRITTEN/ EXAMINATIONS RESULTS

Notice No.	Category No.	NAME OF THE POST
CEN.No. 02/2010	Cat No. 05	Junior Accounts Assistant (Click here for results)
CEN.No. 02/2010	Cat No. 03 & 04	Enquiry Cum Reservation Clerk & Goods Guard (Click here for results)
JEN No. 01/2009 & CEN.No. 03/2010	Cat No. 21 & 01	Assistant Station Master (Click here for results)
JEN No. 01/2009 & CEN.No. 01/2010	Cat No. 22 & 01	Assistant Loco Pilot (Click here for results)

RRB SECUNDERABAD SECTION ENGINEERS AND JUNIOR ENGINEERS CATEGORY NOs 01 TO 88 ( EXAM HELD ON 19-12-2010)

WRITTEN EXAMINATION RESULTS DECLARED FOR THE POSTS OF SECTION ENGINEERS AND JUNIOR ENGINEERS CATEGORY NOs 01 TO 88 OF EN NO 05/2010(CEN)

RRB SECUNDERABAD SR.CLERK CUM TYPIST CAT.NO. 06

RESULTS DECLARED FOR THE POST OF SR.CLERK CUM TYPIST CAT.NO. 06 OF E.N.NO. 02/2010 

RRB SECUNDERABAD COMMERCIAL APPRENTICE CAT.NO. 01

RESULTS DECLARED FOR THE POST OF COMMERCIAL APPRENTICE CAT.NO. 01 OF E.N.NO. 02/2010  

RRB PARAMEDICAL EXAM HEALTH INSPECTOR QUESTION PAPER

1. For education of measles, immunization coverage should be at least
(a) 80%  
(b) 85%  
(c) 96%  
(d) 100%
2. Period of maximum infectivity in mumps is during
(a) incubation period  
(b) onset of swelling  
(c) after swelling appears  
(d) prodromal period
3. Major epidemics of influenza A occur at intervals of
(a) 1 year  
(b) 2-3 years  
(c) 10-15 years  
(d) 20-25 years
5. The most common source of infection for diphtheria is a
(a) case  
(b) sub clinical case  
(c) carrier  
(d) all of the above
5. Shick test is done in
(a) meningitis
(b) diphtheria  
(c) pertussis  
(d) polimyelitis
6. Adjuvant present in DPT vaccine is
(a) aluminium phosphate  
(b) aluminium hydroxide  
(c) zinc phosphate
(d) magnesium phosphate
7. Recommended site of administration of DPT in infants is
(a) gluteal
(b) deltoid  
(c) lateral aspect of thigh  
(d) forearm
8. The most severe complications following DPT are due to …….. component
(a) diphtheria  
(b) pertussis  
(c) tetanus
(d) adjuvant
9. The vaccine usually given to pilgrims to the Middle East is
(a) DPT
(b) influenza  
(c) yellow fever  
(d) meningitis
10. Best index to estimate case load of T.B. in a community is
(a) incidence of infection
(b) prevalence of infection  
(c) incidence of disease
(d) prevalence of disease
11. Prevalence of T.B. infection in a community is estimated by
(a) tuberculin test
(b) sputum microscopy  
(c) culture  
(d) chest X-ray
12. The amount of PPD used in mantoux test in India is
(a) 1 TU  
(b) 5 TU  
(c) 25 TU
(d) 250 TU
13. Result of mantoux test is read after
(a) 6 hours  
(b) 24 hours  
(c) 48 hours  
(d) 72 hours
14. Present day BCG vaccine is supplied as
(a) liquid vaccine
(b) freeze dried vaccine  
(c) both  
(d) none of the above
15. The diluent used for reconstituting BCG vaccine is
(a) normal saline  
(b) distilled water  
(c) dextrose
(d) none of the above
16. Reconstituted BCG vaccine should be used with in
(a) 3 hours
(b) 6 hours  
(c) 18 hours  
(d) 24 hours
17. The age for BCG vaccination is recommended at
(a) birth or at 6th week
(b) only 6th week  
(c) 6-8 weeks  
(d) within 1 year
18. At the village level sputum for AFB is collected and fixed by
(a) anganwadi worker  
(b) village health guide  
(c) health worker male  
(d) health worker female
19. Source of most polio infections are
(a) clinical cases  
(b) sub clinical cases  
(c) carrier  
(d) both (b)&(c)
20. Risk factors for development of paralytic polio include
(a) 1/M injections  
(b) Tonsillectomy
(c) DPT  
(d) all of the above
21. Major route of transmission of Hepatitis A is
(a) Facco oral route  
(b) parentral route  
(c) sexual transmission  
(d) perinatal transmission
22. Vaccine vial monitor is present on which of these vaccines
(a) BCG  
(b) DPT
(c) OPV  
(d) Measles
23. Immunity after Hepatitis A lasts for
(a) 6 months  
(b) 1 year  
(c) 6 years  
(d) life long
24. Following methods destroy vibrio cholerae except
(a) boiling
(b) drying
(c) bleaching powder 1 mg/L  
(d) cresol
25. Best method of collecting choleric stools for diagnosis is by
(a) rectal catheter  
(b) rectal swab  
(c) disinfected stool  
(d) all of the above
26. All are vaccines included under the Universal Immunization Programme except
(a) diphtheria
(b) pertussis  
(c) measles  
(d) MMR
27. The MTP act was passed in the year
(a) 1975
(b) 1971
(c) 1986  
(d) 2000
28. All are Anti Rabies vaccine currently used in Kerala except
(a) chick embryo cell vaccine  
(b) human diploid cell vaccine
(c) vero cell vaccine  
(d) neural tissue vaccine
29. Annual Parasitic incidence is used to measure the problem of
(a) Filariasis  
(b) Dengue fever  
(c) Malaria
(d) Japanese encephalitis
30. The causative organism of plague is
(a) Y pestis
(b) R. Prowazeki  
(c) Coryne bacterium  
(d) Arbovirus
31. Which of these is a Conventional Contraceptive
(a) Combined pill  
(b) IUD
(c) Condom  
(d) Mini pill
32. Which of these insecticides is used as a space spray
(a) paris green  
(b) abate
(c) pyrethrum  
(d) mineral oil
33. Chemical ideally used for disinfecting sputum is
(a) cresol  
(b) dettol  
(c) savlon  
(d) phenol
34. Census is carried out at regular intervals of
(a) 5 years  
(b) 10 years
(c) 7 years  
(d) 15 years
35. Vaccine carrier should ideally have number of ice packs
(a) 1  
(b) 2  
(c) 3  
(d) 4
36. The dose of elemental iron in Folifer tablet given to pregnant women under the RCH programme is
(a) 60 mg  
(b) 80 mg  
(c) 50 mg
(d) 100 mg
37. Sanitary latrine should be located at least …. feet from source of contamination
(a) 15  
(b) 25  
(c) 50  
(d) 75
38. For calculating Bacterial index in Leprosy a minimum of ….. sites should be examined
(a) 4  
(b) 6  
(c) 7  
(d) 9
39. Number of Tetanus toxoid doses to be given to an antenatal mother with last child birth 2 years back is
(a) 2  
(b) 1  
(c) 3  
(d) none
40. As per the Birth and Deaths Registration Act all births are to be registered with in a period of
(a) 7 days  
(b) 14 days
(c) 21 days  
(d) 1 month
41. Dengue fever is transmitted by the bite of ……. mosquito
(a) anopheles  
(b) aedes  
(c) mansonia  
(d) culex
42. Route of administration of BCG vaccine is
(a) intramuscular  
(b) intradermal
(c) subcutaneous  
(d) intrathecal
43. Pasteurisation of milk kills all organisms except
(a) Anthrax  
(b) M. Tuberculosis  
(c) Streptococcus  
(d) Brucella
44. Prevalence of hook worm infection in a community is assessed by
(a) pearl index  
(b) breteaux index  
(c) chandler index  
(d) none of the above
45. The level of iodisation of iodised salt at the consumer level asspecified under the IDD control programme is
(a) 40 ppm  
(b) 30 ppm  
(c) 15 ppm  
(d) 50 ppm
46. All are steps in Primary Prevention of diseases except
(a) promotion of healthy life styles  
(b) good nutrition  
(c) immunization  
(d) treatment
47. Communicability of measles declines
(a) after onset of fever  
(b) during prodromal period  
(c) at the time of eruption  
(d) after appearance of rash
48. After effective chlorination of water free residual chlorine should not be less than
(a) 0.5 mg/L  
(b) 1 mg/L  
(c) 50 mg/L  
(d) 200 mg/L
49. All are side effects of oral contraceptives except
(a) hypertension  
(b) cervical cancer risk  
(c) gall bladder disease
(d) iron deficiency anameia
50. World AIDS day is observed on
(a) December 1st  
(b) January 31st  
(c) May 1st  
(d) October 1st
51. Highest source of vitamin A is seen in
(a) Cod liver oil  
(b) green leafy vegetables  
(c) papaya  
(d) carrot
52. Which is a live vaccine
(a) Hepatitis B vaccine  
(b) Hepatitis A vaccine  
(c) Oral polio vaccine  
(d) DPT vaccine
53.Scurvy is a deficiency disease due to
(a) Vitamin A  
(b) Vitamin D  
(c) Vitamin C  
(d) Vitamin B12
54. Number of sputum smears to be taken for confirmation of tuberculosis under the Revised National Tuberculosis control programme is
(a) 1  
(b) 2  
(c) 3  
(d) 4
55. The target population under the Universal Immunization Programme is
(a) infants and antenatal mothers  
(b) infants  
(c) under fives  
(d) under fives and antenatal mothers
56. RCH programme was launched in the year
(a) 1997
(b) 1992  
(c) 1990  
(d) 1998
57. Additional energy requirement to be supplemented for a lactatingmother is
(a) 200 calories  
(b) 550 calories
(c) 350 calories  
(d) 100 calories
58. Dental caries is caused due to deficiency of
(a) Iodine  
(b) Iron  
(c) Fluorine  
(d) Copper
59. Most ideal equipment for vaccine storage in a PHC is
(a) domestic refrigerator
(b) ice lined refrigerator  
(c) cold box  
(d) vaccinecarrier
60. Village Health Guide is present in all these states except
(a) Uttar Pradesh  
(b) Bihar  
(c) Orissa  
(d) Kerala
61. Route of transmission of pneumonic plague is
(a) Vector
(b) Droplet
(c) Formite  
(d) Food
62. Most simple way of data presentation to a common man is
(a) Bar chart  
(b) Line diagram  
(c) Pictogram  
(d) Histogram
63. The best method for operation theatre disinfection is
(a) dettol  
(b) phenol  
(c) lysol  
(d) fromaldehyde
64. Primary schedule of hepatitis B immunization is
(a) 0,1,6 months
(b) 1,3,6 months  
(c) 1,2,12 months
(d) 0,1,5 years
65. The control of ….. has led to the eradication of guinea worm disease
(a) mosquito
(b) rat flea  
(c) sand fly  
(d) cyclops
66. The confirmatory test for paralytic poliomyelitis is a
(a) stool examination  
(b) CSF examination  
(c) blood examination  
(d) nerve examination
67. The drug given to peripheral health worker under the Actute Respiratory infection Control Programme is
(a) Tetracycline  
(b) Cotrimoxazole  
(c) Doxy cycline  
(d) Chloroquine
68. The fitration technique in modern water treatment plant is
(a) slow sand filter  
(b) rapid sand filter  
(c) activated sludge process  
(d) double pot method
69. World Health Day is observed every year on
(a) May 9th  
(b) July 11th  
(c) April 7th  
(d) July 1st
70. Health education technique most suited for introducing the correct useof O.R.S. among Rural mothers is
(a) group discussion  
(b) flash card  
(c) demonstration  
(d) flannel graph
71. All are anti scabies preparations except
(a) BHC  
(b) permethrin  
(c) benzyl benzoate  
(d) malathion
72. All are tests used for bacteriological quality testing of drinking water except
(a) multiple tube method  
(b) membrane filtration technique  
(c) colony count  
(d) biological oxygen demand
73. During an epidemic of cholera, wells should be disinfected ideally
(a) Every day  
(b) 2 days  
(c) 3 days  
(d) 1 week
74. All are components of under five clinic except
(a) immunization
(b) growth monitoring  
(c) oral rehydration
(d) referral treatment
75. All are true of prevention of Food Adulteration Act except
(a) prescribes minimum standards  
(b) is not mandatory
(c) punishment includes imprisonment  
(d) latest amendment was in the year 1986
76. Physical quality of life index includes all except
(a) infant mortality  
(b) life expectancy at age one  
(c) per capita GNP
(d) literacy
77. Incubation period is less than 3 days in all the following except
(a) influenza  
(b) cholera  
(c) mumps  
(d) staphylococcal food poisoning
78. The type of influenza virus causing epidemics every year is
(a) A
(b) B  
(c) C
(d) Any one of the above
79. The incubation period of Rabies in men is determined by
(a) Site of bite  
(b) Severity of bite  
(c) Number of wounds
(d) All of the above
80. Noso comial infection means
(a) infection of nose  
(b) hospital acquired infection  
(c) notifiable disease  
(d)new disease
81. All of the following are mosquito borne diseases except
(a) Malaria  
(b) Filaria
(c) Kysanur forest disease
(d) Dengue fever
82. Which is not true of small pox
(a) No animal reservoir  
(b) No carrier stage  
(c) No sub-clinical infection  
(d) No air borne transmission
83. ORS contains all except
(a) sodium chloride  
(b) potassium sulphate  
(c) trisodium citrate  
(d) glucose
84. The danger zone for bacterial growth in food is
(a) 10-49 degree C  
(b) 20-49 degree C
(c) 10-60 degree C  
(d) 20-60 degree C
85. Aldehyde test is used for the diagnosis of
(a) Malaria  
(b) Kala Azar  
(c) Japanese encephalitis  
(d) Typhus fever
86. The period from disease initiation to disease detection in chronic disease is called
(a) incubation period  
(b) serial interval  
(c) latent period  
(d) median period
87. Herd immunity does not protect an individual in
(a) Diphtheria  
(b) Poliomyelitis  
(c) Small pox  
(d) Tetanus
88. Vaccines which should not be frozen include
(a) Typhoid  
(b) DPT  
(c) TT  
(d) All of the above
89. ILR stands for
(a) Income Literacy Ratio  
(b) Illiteracy- Literacy Ratio
(c) Ice Lined Refrigerator  
(d) Infant Living Rate
90. Cold chain equipment used at out reach sites is
(a) cold box  
(b) vaccine carrier  
(c) ice pack
(d) freezer
91. Most heat sensitive vaccine is
(a) BCG  
(b) Polio  
(c) Measles  
(d) DPT
92. Zero dose of polio vaccine means
(a) no vaccination  
(b) dose before first dose
(c) no antibody response
(d) vaccination at mobile camps
93. Pasteurisation of milk is an example disinfection
(a) Pre current  
(b) Con current  
(c) Terminal  
(d) Absolute
94. Boiling for 5-10 minutes kills
(a) bacteria  
(b) spores  
(c) virus  
(d) none of the above
95. All of the following can be sterilized by Auto claving except
(a) gloves
(b) culture media
(c) plastics  
(d) linen
96. All are suitable for disinfection of faces and urine except
(a) 8% bleaching powder  
(b) 1% crude phenol  
(c) 5% cresol  
(d) 1-2% formalin
97. Ideally bed pans and urinals are sterilized using
(a) 1% cresol  
(b) bleaching powder  
(c) steam  
(d) all of the above
98. Sputum is best disposed by
(a) burning  
(b) boiling  
(c) 5% cresol  
(d) any of the above
99. Immunity conferred by an attack of small pox is for
(a) 10 years  
(b) 15 years  
(c) 20 years  
(d) life long
100. Which is not true regarding measles
(a) source of infection is a case  
(b) secondary attack rate is 80%
(c) carries do not occur  
(d) sub clinical measles not known

Answers:
1. B 11 .A 21. A 31. C 41. B 51. A 61. B 71. D 81. C 91. B
2 .A 12. A 22. B 32. C 42. A 52. C 62. C 72. D 82. C 92. B
3. D 13. C 23. A 33. A 43. B 53. C 63. D 73. A 83. B 93. A
4. B 14. B 24. D 34. B 44. C 54. C 64. A 74. D 84. C 94. D
5. A 15. A 25. A 35. D 45 .C 55. C 65. D 75. B 85. B 95. C
6. C 16. B 26. C 36. C 46. D 56. B 66. A 76. D 86. A 96. D
7. C 17. A 27. B 37. D 47. D 57. B 67. B 77. C 87. B 97. B
8. D 18. A 28. C 38. C 48. A 58. C 68. A 78. B 88. D 98. C
9. C 19. C 29. A 39. C 49. A 59. B 69. C 79. D 89. C 99. D
10.C 20. D 30. A 40. C 50. A 60. C 70. C 80. D 90. B 100.B

RRC GROUP-D MODEL QUESTIONS

1. The number of ways of expressing 175 as the product of two whole number is-
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

2. A man first sold 2/3 rd of his total quantity of rice and 100 kg. again he sold ½ of the remaining quantity and 100kg. if the total remaining quantity of the stock is 150kg. then what was the original stock of rice?
A. 2100 kg
B. 1800kg
C. 2400kg
D. 2000kg
3. In a box the number of rupees, half rupees and quarter rupees are in the ratio 3:4:5 and the total value of coins is Rs 100. Find the nimber of each kind of coin respectively-
A. 48,64,80
B. 48,60,70
C. 55,78,90
D. 44,68,80
4. In a series of equally increasing number the 1st one is 51 and the 7th one is 81. Find the intermediate numbers-
A. 56,61,66,71,76
B. 58,63,68,73,78
C. 54,59,63,67,71
D. 59,65,69,75,77
5. If 80 persons can finish the work within 16 days by working 6 hours a day then how many hours per day should 64 persons work to complete that very job within 15 days?
A. 7 hrs
B. 8 hrs
C. 6 hrs
D. 5 hrs
6. 0.1% of Rs 5000 is Rs………….
A. 50
B. 500
C. 5
D. 10
7. There is a rebate of 15% if electric bills are paid in time. A man got a rebate of Rs 54 by paying the bills in time. What was his electric bill in rupees?
A. 300
B. 350
C. 360.
D. 380
8. A train travels at a speed of 30 km per hr for 12 minutes and then for the next 8 minutes at a speed of 45 km per hour. What is the average speed of the journey?
A. 40km/hr
B. 36km/hr
C. 43km/hr
D. 46km/hr
9. Of six consecutive numbers the sum of first three is 27. What is the sum of next three?
A. 30
B. 40
C. 36
D. 45
10. Find the value of  (9+3)/3*2-(7-3*2)
A. 1
B. 7
C. 4
D. 0

11. Find the greatest number of 5 digits which is divisible by 7, 11, 13-
A. 99900
B. 99099
C. 99909
D. 99990

12. The present age of father is 34 years more than that of his son. Twelve years ago father’s age was 18 times the age of his son. What is the present age of the son in years?
A. 16
B. 14
C. 12
D. 18
13. On a certain day temperature and pressure of air increase. The the speed of sound in air-
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains same
D. At first increases and then decreases
14. What is rectified spirits?
A. A 1:2 mixture of water and ethyl alcohol
B. A mixture of 90% ethyl alcohol and 10% water
C. A mixture of 95% ethyl alcohol and 5 % water
D. A 2:1 mixture of water and ethyl alcohol
15. ‘Bihu’ is the festival of-
A. Manipur
B. Mizoram
C. Asom
D. Nagaland
16. NACO is an organisation dealing with-
A. Cancer
B. Child health care
C. AIDS
D. None of the above
17. With which game is the ‘double fault’ associated?
A. Lawn tennis
B. Football
C. Cricket
D. Hockey
18. The capital of Uttarpradesh is-
A. Allahabad
B. Benaras
C. Patna
D. Lucknow
19. The director of the film ‘ Netaji the forgotten Hero ‘ is-
A. Rituparna ghosh
B. Shyam Bengal
C. Mani ratnam
D. Aprna sen
20. By ‘Jhum’ is meant-
A. A folk dance
B. A type of farming
C. A tribe
D. A river basin

Answers :

1.B
2.B
3.A
4.A
5.B
6.C
7.C
8.B
9.C
10.B
11.B
12.B
13.A
14.C
15.C
16.C
17.A
18.D
19.B
20.B

RPF SUB INSPECTOR DATE EXTENSION

RRB GOODS GUARD EXAM 2011 SOLVED PAPER

GENERAL INTELLIGENCE / REASONING

1. Which of the following is the same as Count, List, Weigh?
(a) Compare
(b) Sequence
(c) Number
(d) Measure
Ans : ( c ) Number
2. Which of the following is the same as Steel, Bronze, Brass ?
(a) Calcite
(b) Methane
(c) Zinc
(d) Coal
Ans : ( c ) Zinc
3. Which of the following is the same as Flood, Fire,Cyclone ?
(a) Damage
(b) Earthquake
(c) Rain
(d) Accident
Ans : ( b ) Earthquake
4. Which of the following is the same as Jute, Cotton,Wool ?
(a) Terylene
(b) Rayon
(c) Silk
(d) Nylon
Ans : ( c ) Silk
5. Which of the following is the same as Liver, Heart,Kidney ?
(a) Lung
(b) Blood
(c) Nose
(d) Urine
Ans : ( a ) Lung
Directions (Qs. 6-10) : Find the odd one out in the following questions :
6. (a) Physics
(b) Chemistry
(c) Biology
(d) Geography
Ans : ( d ) Geography
7. (a) Haldighati
(b) Sarnath
(c) Panipat
(d) Kurukshetra
Ans : ( b ) Sarnath
8. (a) December
(b) July
(c) September
(d) March
Ans : ( c ) September
9. (a) Park
(b) Bus-stand
(c) Dock
(d) Platform
Ans : ( a ) Park
10. (a) Needle
(b) Stick
(c) Thorn
(d) Pin
Ans : ( b ) Stick
11. A man is performing yoga with his head down and legs up. His face is towards the west. In which direction will his left hand be?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
Ans : ( a ) North
12. At 12:30, the hour hand of a clock faces North and the minute-hand faces South. At 1:45, the hour hand will be in which direction?
(a) South-East
(b) South-West
(c) North-East
(d) North-West
Ans : ( c ) North-East
13. In a certain code, MAN is written as SANM and WORD is written as SORDW. In that code, how would SALE be written?
(a) LESAS
(b) SALES
(c) SEALS
(d) LEASS
Ans : ( b ) SALES
14. If in a certain code language, ?123? means ?bright little boy?, ?145?  means ?tall big boy? AND ?637?  means ?beautiful little FLOWER?, then which digit in that language  means ?bright??
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 2
Ans : ( d ) 2
15. Arrange the following in a meaningful sequence :
1. Shoulder 2. Wrist 3. Elbow
4. Palm 5. Finger
(a) 5, 4, 2, 3, 1
(b) 3, 4, 5, 2, 1
(c) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
(d) 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
Ans : ( a ) 5, 4, 2, 3, 1
16. If the 25th of August in a year is Thursday, then the number of Mondays in that month is
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 3
Ans : ( b ) 5
17. ?E? is the son of ?A?. ?D? is the son of ?B?. ?E? is married to ?C? and ?C? is B?s daughter. How is ?D? related to ?E? ?
(a) Brother
(b) Uncle
(c) Father-in-law
(d) Brother-in-law
Ans : ( d ) Brother-in-law
18. A cube, painted yellow on all faces, is cut into 27 small cubes of equal size. How many small cubes are painted on one face only?
(a) 1
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 12
Ans : ( b ) 6
Directions (Qs. 19 & 20) : In Each of these questions, there are two statements followed by two
conclusion numbered I and II. Take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts:
19. Statements :
All poets are readers.
No reader is wise.
Conclusions :
I. No poet is wise.
II. All readers are poets.
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Both the conclusions I and II follows
(d) None of the conclusions follows
Ans : ( a ) Only conclusion I follows
20. Statements :
All stones are diamonds.
Some diamonds are pearls.
Conclusions :
I. Some pearls are stones.
II. All diamonds are pearls.
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Both the conclusions I and II follows
(d) None of the conclusions follows
Ans : ( d ) None of the conclusions follows
Directions (Qs. 21-23) : These questions are based on the following statements :
Raja and Baldev are good in Hockey and Volleyball. Deepak and Raja are good in Hockey and
Baseball. Gurnam and Baldev are good in Cricket and Volleyball. Deepak, Gurnam and Joseph are Good in
Football and Baseball.
21. Who is good in Baseball, Cricket, Volleyball and Football?
(a) Raja
(b) Gurnam
(c) Baldev
(d) Deepak
Ans : ( b ) Gurnam
22. Who is good in Baseball, Volleyball and Hockey?
(a) Raja
(b) Gurnam
(c) Baldev
(d) Deepak
Ans : ( a ) Raja
23. Who is good in Hockey, Cricket and Volleyball?
(a) Raja
(b) Gurnam
(c) Baldev
(d) Deepak
Ans : ( c ) Baldev

RRB GOODS GUARD EXAM 2011 SOLVED PAPER

NUMERICAL ABILITY

1. The difference between the square of any two consecutive integers is equal to
(a) An even number
(b) Difference of two numbers
(c) Product of two numbers
(d) Sum of two numbers
Ans: ( d ) Sum of two numbers
2 What is the greatest possible length of a scale that can be used to measure exactly the following three lengths?
3m; 5m-10 cm; 12m-90 cm
(a) 30 cm
(b) 20 cm
(c) 25 cm
(d) 10 cm
Ans: ( a ) 30 cm
3 The HCF of two numbers is 96 and their LCM is 1296. If one number is 864, then what is the other number?
(a) 72
(b) 64
(c) 144
(d) 11664
Ans: ( c ) 144
4 A drum of water is 3/5 full. When 38 litres are drawn from it, it is just 1/8 full. What is the total capacity of the drum in litres?
(a) 100 litres
(b) 80 litres
(c) 85 litres
(d) 90 litres
Ans: ( b ) 80 litres
5 If the cost of telephone calls in a town is 30 paise per call for the first 100 calls, 25 paise per call for the next 100 calls and 20 paise per call for calls exceeding 200, then how many calls can be made in Rs. 50 ?
(a) 180
(b) 200
(c) 225
(d) 175
Ans: ( a ) 180
6 A reduction of Rs. 2 per kg in the price of sugar enables a man to purchase 4 kg more sugar now in Rs. 16. What was the original price of sugar?
(a) Rs. 16 per kg
(b) Rs. 8 per kg
(c) Rs. 4 per kg
(d) Rs. 2 per kg
Ans: ( c ) Rs. 4 per kg
7 33% marks are required to pass an examination. A candidate who gets 210 marks, fails by 21 marks. What are the total marks for the examination ?
(a) 700
(b) 650
(c) 600
(d) 550
Ans: ( a ) 700
8 The ticket for admission to an exhibition was Rs. 5 and it was later reduced by 20%. As a result, the sale proceeds of tickets increased by 44%. What was the percentage increase in number of visitors?
(a) 50%
(b) 25%
(c) 75%
(d) 80%
Ans: ( d ) 80%
9 The average weight of 8 men is increased by 2 kg when one man of 50 kg is replaced by a new man. What is the weight of the new man?
(a) 58 kg
(b) 68 kg
(c) 60 kg
(d) 66 kg
Ans: ( d ) 66 kg
10. Nine men went to a hotel 8 of them spent Rs. 3 each over their meals and the ninth person spent Rs. 2 more than the average expenditure of all the nine. The total money spent by all of them was
(a) Rs. 26
(b) Rs. 40
(c) Rs. 29.25
(d) Rs. 27.50
Ans: ( c ) Rs. 29.25
11. The sum of the present ages of A, B and C is 90 years. Six years ago, their ages were in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3. What is the present age of C?
(a) 36 years
(b) 42 years
(c) 40 years
(d) 45 years
Ans: ( b ) 42 years
12. The sum of the salaries of A and B is Rs. 2,100. A spends 80% of his salary and B spends 70% of his salary. If their savings are in the proportion of 4 : 3, then what is the salary of A
(a) Rs. 1400
(b) Rs. 1200
(c) Rs. 900
(d) Rs. 700
Ans: ( a ) Rs. 1400
13 Rs. 1,290 are divided between A, B and C such that As share is 1 ½ times that of B and Bs share is 1 ¾ times that of C. What is Cs hsare?
(a) Rs. 240
(b) Rs. 420
(c) Rs. 630
(d) Rs. 350
Ans: ( a ) Rs. 240
14. Five litres of water is added to a certain quantity of pure milk, which costs Rs. 3 per litre. If the mixture is sold at the same price of Rs. 3 per litre, a profit of 20% is made (ignore the cost of water). What is the amount of pure milk in the mixture?
(a) 20 litres
(b) 28 litres
(c) 25 litres
(d) 30 litres
Ans: ( c ) 25 litres
15. Fifteen men working 8 hours a day take 21 days to complete a work. How many days will be taken by 21 women to complete the same work, working 6 hours a day? ( 3 women do as much work as 2 men).
(a) 25 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 33 days
(d) 28 days
Ans: ( b ) 30 days
16. A can knit a pair of socks in 3 days. B can knit the same pair in 9 days. If they are knitting together, then in how many days will they knit two pairs of socks?
(a) 4 days
(b) 5 days
(c) 4 ½ days
(d) 3 days
Ans: ( c ) 4 ½ days
17. Two electronic music systems are bought for Rs. 8,000. One was sold at 40% profit and the other was sold at 40$ loss. If the S.P. of both be same, then what was the C.P. of both the systems ?
(a) Rs. 3000, Rs. 5000
(b) Rs. 4000, Rs. 4000
(c) Rs. 3500, Rs. 4500
(d) Rs. 2400, Rs. 5600
Ans: ( d ) Rs. 2400, Rs. 5600
18. If the marked price is 30% more than the C.P. and 10% discount is allowed on the marked price, then what will be the gain %?
(a) 20%
(b) 15 ½%
(c) 17%
(d) 18 ½%
Ans: ( c ) 17%
19. A man has Rs. 2,000. Some portion of this amount, he lends @ 5% p.a. S.I. and the remaining portion of the same is lent at 4% p.a. S.I. He earns Rs. 96 in a year. What amount was lent by him at 4%.
(a) Rs. 1200
(b) Rs. 600
(c) Rs. 400
(d) Rs. 1600
Ans: ( c ) Rs. 400
20. What sum will become Rs. 496 in 6 years @ 4% p.a. ?
(a) Rs. 500
(b) Rs. 400
(c) Rs. 460
(d) Rs. 456
Ans: ( b ) Rs. 400
21. A car covers a distance of 420 km at its normal speed. If the speed of the car would have been 10 km/hr
more htan the normal speed, then it would have taken one hour less to cover the same distance. What was the speed
of the car?
(a) 50 km/hr
(b) 40 km/hr
(c) 55 km/hr
(d) 60 km/hr
Ans: ( d ) 60 km/hr
22. A 110 m long train is running @ 60 km/hr. How much time will it take to cover the 240 m long platform?
(a) 5 5/6 seconds
(b) 14 2/5 seconds
(c) 4 seconds
(d) 21 seconds
Ans: ( d ) 21 seconds
23. In a river, a man takes 3 hours in rowing 3 km upstream or 15 km downstream. What is the speed of the
current?
(a) 2 km/hr
(b) 4 km/hr
(c) 6 km/hr
(d) 9 km/hr
Ans: ( a ) 2 km/hr
24. A and B can cover a 200 m race in 22 seconds and 25 seconds respectively. When a finished the race, then B is at what distance from the finishing line?
(a) 30 m
(b) 48 m
(c) 24 m
(d) 54 m
Ans: ( c ) 24 m
25. The difference between the circumference of a circle and its radius is 37 metres. What is the radius of
the circle?
(a) 5 m
(b) 7 m
(c) 12 m
(d) 14 m
Ans: ( b ) 7 m

RITES RECRUITMENT

RITES DGM/ Manager Recruitment Notification 2011

Name Of The Post: DGM (Legal)
No of Vacancies: 01 (One)
Age Limit :01.03.2011: 38 Years
Qualification:
1st Class Graduate with LLB.Minimum 8 years post qualification experience in legal issues pertaining to contract/commercial/service matters.
Pay Scale: 29100-54500

Name Of The Post: Manager (Legal)
No OF Vacancies: 01 (One)
Age Limit : 01.03.2011: 36 Years
Qualification:
1st Class Graduate with LLB.Minimum 6 years post qualification experience in legal issues pertaining to contract/commercial/service matters.
Pay Scale: 24900-50500

How To Apply
Interested candidates fulfilling the above criteria may send their applications in the format on RITES website to Manager (P)/Rectt.RITES LTD,RITES Bhawan,Plot No.1,Sector 29,Gurgaon-122001 (Haryana) by 4.07.2011.The applicants should enclose two recent passport size photographs,attested copies of certificates and qualifications, experience.

ADDRESS
RITES LTD,RITES Bhawan,
Plot No.1,Sector 29,
Gurgaon-122001 (Haryana)
Last Date : 4th July,2011

RRB SECUNDERABAD RESULTS FOR THE POST OF ASSISTANT STATION MASTER

                                                                   

                                 RRB SECUNDERABAD

No.RRB/SC/607/01/03/2010 (CEN)                        Date: 23-05-2011.

APTITUDE TEST RESULTS

            Based on the performance in the written examination held on 13-06-2010 and  Aptitude Test conducted from 12-01-2011 to 17-01-2011 candidates with the following roll numbers have provisionally qualified for the verification of original certificates for the post of Asst. Station Master Category No.01 of E.N.No.03/2010 (CEN). 

RESULTS DECLARED FOR THE POST OF ASSISTANT STATION MASTER CATEGORY NO 01 OF EN NO 03/2010