RRB CHANDIGARH ASM SOLVED PAPER

1. A trader told his servant Shambhu that he left for his home from the shop after every 2 : 40 hours. I left for home 55 minutes earlier and for the next time I will leave for home from my shop at 8 : 15 p.m. At which time did I inform my servant?

(A) 6 : 30

(B) 6 : 00

(C) 6 : 15

(D) 4 : 20

2. If the numbers divisible by 3 between 14 and 55 (both inclusive) and the numbers with 3 at unit’s place of them are removed then how may numbers will remain?

(A) 24

(B) 23

(C) 22

(D) 25

3. If x means -, ÷ means +, + means ÷, – means x then find the value of 13 – 12 ÷ 400 + 20 x 100

(A) 1/760

(B) 76

(C) 176

(D) 186

4. Nivedita stops to walk after covering a distance of 10 km to the west. She then turns to the right and walks 8 km. Again she walks 4 km to the right. How far is she from her office?

(A) 18 km

(B) 8 km

(C) 16 km

(D) 10 km

5. Karishma is taller than Kajal. Kajal is taller than Vimal. Ankita is taller than Kajan and Vimal. Which is the tallest?

(A) Karishma

(B) Kajal

(C) Ankita

(D) None of these

6. Radha and Saroj are ranked 10th and 16th respectively in a class of 37 students. What will be their ranks from the bottom in the class?

(A) 28th, 22nd

(B) 27th, 21st

(C) 28th, 20th

(D) 27th, 22nd

7. If ‘A’=26, and SUN = 27, then CAT?

(A) 24

(B) 57

(C) 58

(D) 27

8. A number when divided by three consecutive numbers 9, 11, 13 leaves the remainders 8, 9 and 8 respectively. If the order of divisors is reversed, the remainders will be—

(A) 8, 9, 8

(B) 9, 8, 8

(C) 10, 1, 6

(D) 10, 8, 9

9. Find the multiple of 11 in the following numbers?

(A) 978626

(B) 112144

(C) 447355

(D) 869756

10. Four prime numbers are arranged in ascending order. The product of first three is 385 and that of last three is 1001. The largest prime number is—

(A) 11

(B) 13

(C) 17

(D) 9

11. On dividing a number by 19, the difference between quotient and remainder is 9. The number is—

(A) 370

(B) 352

(C) 361

(D) 371

12. Mohan engaged a servant on the condition that he would pay him Rs. 200 and a uniform after 10 days. The servant served only for 5 days and got Rs. 20 and a uniform. Find the price of the uniform.

(A) Rs. 80

(B) Rs. 120

(C) Rs. 140

(D) Rs. 160

13. If you subtract – 1 from + 1, what will be the result?

(A) 2

(B) –2

(C) 0

(D) 1

14. Find the value of 50 × 8.

(A) 40

(B) 200

(C) 8

(D) 0

15. One litre of water is evaporated from a 6 litre solution containing 4% sugar. The percentage of sugar in the remaining solution is—

(A) 24/5 %

(B) 4 %

(C) 3 %

(D) 10/3 %

16. When water is changed into ice, its volume increases by 9%. If ice changes into water, the percentage decrease in volume is—

(A) 9%

(B) 10%

(C) 18%

(D) 900/109 %

17. A watch becomes fast by 5 minutes every day. By what per cent does it become fast?

(A) 50/144 %

(B) 5%

(C) 1/12 %

(D) 5/24 %

18. A bag contains 25 paise. 10 paise and 5 paise coins in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. If their total value is Rs. 30, the number of 5 paise coins is—

(A) 50

(B) 100

(C) 150

(D) 200

19. The temperature of a place increases uniformly from 210°C to 380°C from 9 am to 2 pm. What was the temperature at noon?

(A) 28.50°C

(B) 270°C

(C) 300°C

(D) 320°C

20. If 5 men or 9 women can do a piece of work in 19 days; 3 men and 6 women will do the same work in—

(A) 10 days

(B) 15 days

(C) 12 days

(D) 7 days

21. Total area of 64 small squares of a chess board is 400cm. There is 3 cm wide border around the chess board. What is the length of the side of the chess board?

(A) 17 cm

(B) 20 cm

(C) 26 cm

(D) 23 cm

22. If the radius of a circle is increased to 3 times. Then how many times will its circumference be increased?

(A) 2 times

(B) 1/3 times

(C) 9 times

(D) 3 times

23. A passenger train runs at the rate of 80 kmph. It starts from the station at some time. After 6 hours a goods trains leaves the station. The passenger train overtakes the goods train after 4 hours. The speed of goods train is—

(A) 32 km/h

(B) 50 km/h

(C) 45 km/h

(D) 64 km/h

24. A boat takes half time in moving a certain distance downstream than upstream. What is ratio between rate in still water and rate of current?

(A) 1 : 2

(B) 3 : 1

(C) 2 : 1

(D) 1 : 3

25. Two pipes can fill a cistern in 6 minutes and 7 minutes respectively. Both the pipes are opened alternately for 1 minute each. In what time will they fill the cistern?

(A) 5 minutes

(B) 17/3 times

(C) 45/7 minutes

(D) 5/4 minutes

26. Find the value of 0.0016—

(A) 0.4

(B) 0.04

(C) 0.8

(D) 4

27. By what number must 32 be multiplied to make it a perfect square?

(A) 4

(B) 3

(C) 5

(D) 2

Answers:

1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (B) 11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (B) 21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (C)

28. Mr. Jagdish is confident __________ his success.

(A) about

(B) of

(C) for

(D) regarding

29. He persisted __________doing things in a manner in which he had been doing them.

(A) on

(B) at

(C) about

(D) in

30. An exhibition__________ the new trends in computer education was held in Delhi.

(A) into

(B) for

(C) of

(D) on

Directions (31-35): In the following questions choose the word that can be substituted for the given words.

31. A disease which spreads by contact

(A) infection

(B) contagious

(C) contiguous

(D) uxoring

32. A science which studies insects

(A) Entomology

(B) Epistemology

(C) Entymology

(D) Biology

Placement Papers and Model Papers

33. That which cann’t be corrected

(A) Ineligible

(B) Ineluctable

(C) Insortable

(D) Incorrigible

34. One who believes easily

(A) sedulous

(B) credible

(C) assiduous

(D) credulous

35. A speech made for first time

(A) simultaneous

(B) drawn

(C) extempore

(D) maiden

Direction (36-39): Write word which is most opposite in meaning of the given word.

36. Obstinate

(A) Hoary

(B) Amenable

(C) Tenable

(D) Tender

37. Pernicious

(A) Salutary

(B) Recondite

(C) Innocuous

(D) Disastrous

38. Radical

(A) Singular

(B) Unusual

(C) Normal

(D) Conservative

Placement Papers and Model Papers

39. Mention

(A) Impart

(B) Observe

(C) Attend

(D) Conceal

Direction (40-42): Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the word.

40. Sedentary

(A) Material

(B) Sluggish

(C) Slash

(D) Mischief

41. Pertinacious

(A) Stubborn

(B) Tremulous

(C) Stupid

(D) Stingy

42. Gregarious

(A) Clumsy

(B) Pugnacious

(C) Turbulent

(D) Saciable

43. In Rajasthan, Mount Abu, famous for Jain temples is known for—

(A) Abu temple

(B) Ranakpura temple

(C) Dilwara temple

(D) Marble temple

44. The United Nations Organisation was formed on—

(A) October 20, 1945

(B) November 11, 1944

(C) October 24, 1945

(D) June 26, 1946

45. In Vedic literature the meaning of the word ‘Nishk’ was ornament. It was used in Artharva Veda as—

(A) Weapon

(B) Agricultural implements

(C) Script

(D) Coin

46. The executive in India is directly responsible to the—

(A) President

(B) Judiciary

(C) People

(D) Legislature

47. The major producer of copper is—

(A) Kerala

(B) Rajasthan

(C) Orissa

(D) Madhya Pradesh

48. Boys scout and Girls Guide movements were formed by—

(A) Charles Andies

(B) General Ramphel

(C) John Quat

(D) Weden Powel

49. In history the Chola rulers are famous for which type of administration?

(A) Central

(B) Urban

(C) State

(D) Village administration

50. Chanakya was known by the name—

(A) Samudragupta

(B) Vishnugupta

(C) Shrigupta

(D) None of these

51. The largest reserve of crude oil is in the country—

(A) Iran

(B) Iraq

(C) Saudi Arab

(D) Kuwait

52. The Jainism propounded the complete knowledge as—

(A) Jin

(B) Ratna

(C) Kaivalya

(D) Nirvana

53. The rotational motion of earth is maximum at the—

(A) North pole

(B) Tropic of Capricorn

(C) Equator

(D) Tropic of cancer

54. Silicon dioxide is used in—

(A) Cement production

(B) Cutting hard precious metals

(C) Glass manufacture

(D) None of these

55. In which of the following chemical energy is converted into electrical energy?

(A) Dynamo

(B) Thermopile

(C) Battery

(D) Atom bomb

56. If the atmosphere is removed from the earth—

(A) Day will lengthen

(B) Night will lengthen

(C) Both will remain same

(D) Both will be equal

57. In Kushana period the maximum development was observed in the field of—

(A) Religion

(B) Art

(C) Literature

(D) Architecture

58. In rice production Indic is ranked in the world—

(A) First

(B) Second

(C) Third

(D) Fourth

59. The brightest star in the sky is—

(A) Proxima Centauri

(B) Bernard

(C) Nebula

(D) Cirius

60. The number of permanent member nations in the UN Security Council is—

(A) 10

(B) 5

(C) 7

(D) 15

Answers

28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (C) 31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (D) 36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (D) 40. (B) 41. (A) 42. (D) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (D) 46. (D) 47. (B) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (B) 51. (C) 52. (C) 53. (A) 54. (C) 55. (C) 56. (C) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (A) 60. (B)

61. From which mine diamond is extracted?

(A) Panna

(B) Golkunda

(C) Jaipur

(D) None of these

62. Like Poland in Europe which state in India is large?

(A) Bihar

(B) Orissa

(C) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Maharashtra

63. The capital of Vijayanager empire. Hampi was situated on the bank of the river—

(A) Krishna

(B) Pennar

(C) Tungbhadra

(D) Godavari

64. The land shape formed at the drainage site of the Chanbal river is—

(A) Ramp

(B) Rift

(C) Delta

(D) None of these

65. Which of the following rivers passes through Himachal Pradesh?

(A) Sutlej

(B) Jhelum

(C) Ravi

(D) Chenab

66. Rigmies are related to—

(A) Asia

(B) Europe

(C) Africa

(D) America

67. Mettur dam is situated on the river—

(A) Krishna

(B) Cauvery

(C) Narmada

(D) Mahanadi

68. Most abundant element in maximum rocks is—

(A) Silicon

(B) Carbon

(C) Iron

(D) None of these

69. The old name of African country Ghana is—

(A) Abisinia

(B) Congo

(C) Gold Coast

(D) Tanganika

70. Who first deciphered the Ashokan inscriptions?

(A) James Princep

(B) James Williams

(C) John Munro

(D) None of these

71. The foundation of Indian Vedanta philosophy is—

(A) Ram Charit Manas

(B) Mahabharat

(C) Puranas

(D) Upanishad

72. In which Satyagraha movement of Mahatma Gandhi women participated most?

(A) Quit India

(B) Non-cooperation

(C) Salt

(D) Bardoli

73. The noble gas is—

(A) Helium

(B) Oxygen

(C) Nitrogen

(D) Hydrogen

74. In which part of the Constitution, the separation of executive and judiciary has been described?

(A) Preamble

(B) Fundamental rights

(C) Directive principles of state policy

(D) Seventh schedule

75. Who administers the Union Territory?

(A) Council of Ministers

(B) Governor

(C) Former Governor

(D) President

76. The spherical shape of rain drops is due to—

(A) Surface tension

(B) Viscosity

(C) Gravity

(D) Atmospheric pressure

77. Which is not an electric resistant?

(A) Lac

(B) Glass

(C) Charcoal

(D) Ebonite

78. The first black Nobel prize winner of literature in the world is—

(A) Tom Morrison

(B) Luther King

(C) John King

(D) None of these

79. Which of the following planets has the highest period of revolution around the sun?

(A) Mercury

(B) Earth

(C) Mars

(D) None of these

80. The headquarter of Asian Development Bank is in—

(A) Geneva

(B) Manila

(C) Bangkok

(D) Jakarta

81. Which of the following elements is found in free state?

(A) Iodine

(B) Magnesium

(C) Sulphur

(D) Phosphorus

82. In which disease blood does not clot?

(A) Thrombosis

(B) Haemophilia

(C) Pneumonia

(D) None of these

83. The Ajanta caves are situated in—

(A) Maharashtra

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(C) Tamil Nadu

(D) None of these

84. National Codet Corps was established in—

(A) 1948

(B) 1946

(C) 1947

(D) 1950

Placement Papers and Model Papers

85. The first Yoga University was established at—

(A) Bodh Gaya

(B) Mumbai

(C) Monghyr

(D) Kolkata

86. The biggest glacier of India is—

(A) Siachin

(B) Yamanotri

(C) Chunhari

(D) Gangotri

87. The number of schedules in Indian Constitution is—

(A) 11

(B) 12

(C) 13

(D) None of these

88. The Commonwealth games were recently held in—

(A) Britain

(B) Canada

(C) Australia

(D) India

89. Which of the following did not come to India?

(A) Megasthanese

(B) Columbus

(C) Vasco De Gama

(D) Fahein

90. Double fault is related to—

(A) Footbal

(B) Rugby

(C) Tennis

(D) None of these

91. Which of these is the largest railway zone?

(A) Central Railway

(B) Southern Railway

(C) Eastern Railway

(D) Northern Railway

Placement Papers and Model Papers

92. Who is the Indian Mass Universe 2006 in india?

(A) Neha Kapoor

(B) Neha Dhupia

(C) Priyanka Sud

(D) None of these

93. CTPN : DSQM : : MUSK?

(A) NUTL

(B) NTTJ

(C) NTTL

(D) LTRS

94. LO : PK : : IT : ?

(A) GT

(B) SH

(C) MN

(D) FU

95.Which of the following countries is the biggest producer of milk?

(A) Pakistan

(B) Australia

(C) America

(D) India

Answers

61. (A) 62. (C) 63. (C) 64. (A) 65. (D) 66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (A) 69. (C) 70. (A) 71. (D) 72. (A) 73. (A) 74. (D) 75. (D) 76. (A) 77. (C) 78. (A) 79. (D) 80. (B) 81. (C) 82. (B) 83. (A) 84. (A) 85. (C) 86. (A) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (B) 90. (C) 91. (D) 92. (A) 93. (B) 94. (C) 95 (D)

DMRC RECRUITMENT

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation (DMRC)
(A Joint Venture Of Govt. Of India & Govt. Of Delhi)

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation is Inviting Applications from Indian Citizens for recruiting following posts:

Vacancy Details:
Executive Trainee- 20

Age: Candidates not less than 21 years and not more than 28 years as on 01/01/2011, (Reservation for SC/ST/OBC and other category as per Govt rules).

Qualification: Candidates pass minimum in B. Tech/B.E examination with 70% marks and Minimum of 60% marks in B. Arch, from AICTE Recognized universities.

Application Lastdate: 25-04-11

Examination Date: 22-05-11

Click Here for More Details

BMRCL RECRUITMENT

Bangalore Metro Rail Corporation Ltd (BMRCL)
(A Joint Venture of Govt. of India & Govt. of Karnataka)

Bangalore Metro Rail Corporation Ltd is Inviting Applications from Indian Citizens for recruiting following posts:

Vacancy Details:

1.Section Engineer: 15
2.Junior Engineer: 36
3.Maintainers: 87
4.Customer Relationship Manager: 32
5.Station Controller & Train Operator: 53
6.Assistants (Finance, Stores): 4
7.Assistant (HR): 1

Age: 23-28 Yrs

Qualification: Four years Engineering Degree in Electrical & Electronics Engineering/Electronics andb Communication Engineering/ Instrumentation & Control Engineering/ Telecommunication / Applied Electronics & Instrumentation/ Computer Science and Engineering or equivalent qualification.

Appliocation Last date: 30-04-2011

Examination Date: 29-05-2011

Click Here for More Details

Western Railway Para Medical Posts Recruitment

Western Railway
www.wr.indianrailways.gov.in

Western Railway is Inviting Applications from Indian Citizens for recruiting following posts:

Vacancy Details : Total no. of posts: 19

Assistant Chemist: 01
Pharmacist: 06
Health & Malaria Inspectors: 12

Educational Qualification : 10+2/B.Sc/Diploma in Pharmacy

Age : 18-33 Yrs

Application Lastdate : Interested candidates can Walk-in-interview on 19-04-2011, 20-04-2011 and 26-04-2011


Click Here for More Details

RRC NORTH EASTERN RAILWAY GROUP 'C' POSTS AGAINST SCOUTS & GUIDES QUOTA

RPF CONSTABLES RECRUITMENT

Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation Limited Recruitment

Job Position:Executive Chef, Chef de Partie, Assistant Manager
Pay Scale:30000-75000
Eligibility :Degree in Hospitality, Hotel Management, BE/B.tech
Job Location:New Delhi
Last Date:31/3/2011

Job Details

Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation Limited, a leading Mini Ratna Public Sector Undertaking under Ministry of Railways, invites applications for the following to be filled on contractual basis, for its forthcoming Food Factory in Noida:

1. Executive Chef

• Number of vacancies : 01
• Pay : Rs 75,000 & 10% annual increment (Consolidated)
• Age Limit : 45 Years
• Qualification:3 years Diploma/ Degree in Hospitality or Hotel Management from the institute.

2. Chef de Partie

• Number of vacancies : 03
• Pay : Rs 30,000 & 10% annual increment (Consolidated)
• Age Limit : 35 Years
• Qualification:3 years Diploma/ Degree in Hospitality or Hotel Management from a recognized institute.

3. Assistant Manager (Maintenance)

• Number of vacancies : 01
• Pay : Rs 50,000 & 10% annual increment (Consolidated)
• Age Limit : 40 Years
• Qualification:Diploma in Electrical Engineering from a recognized
  institute/ University as a regular course.

Type of appointment:On Contract Basis for 3 years.

SELECTION PROCEDURE: The selection for the post of Executive Chef/ Chef de parties/ Assistant Manager (Maintenance) will be on the basis of qualification, experience & performance of the candidate in the interview. Merely satisfying the eligibility norms do not entitle the candidate to be called for interview. IRCTC reserves the right to call only the requisite number of candidates for interview after preliminary screening/short listing with reference to the candidate’s qualification, suitability etc.

INTERVIEW : The interview of the short listed candidates will be held at Corporate office/IRCTC/New Delhi which would be intimated in due course.

LAST DATE : Application complete in all respects should reach the above address on or before 18:00hrs by 31.03.2011. The Application received after the last date will not be entertained.

INTIMATION FOR INTERVIEW : List of short listed candidates called for interview will be published in IRCTC website and will also be intimated on their e-mail/ by post.

HOW TO APPLY: The eligible candidates are required to submit their application in the prescribed format as per the specimen provided in this advertisement. Applications not as per the prescribed format will be summarily rejected. There is no objection for using printed application form as long as the format is exactly the same as published. Application duly complete in all respects should be sent by ordinary post in a cover super scribed “Application to the post of Executive Chef/ Chef De Parties/Asstt. Manager(Maintenance) (Post Code No. 001/002/003).

Northeast Frontier Railway Apprentices Recruitment

Northeast Frontier Railway
Job Position: Apprentices
Eligibility : Certificate Course (ITI)
Job Location: Assam
Last Date: 28 March 2011
Hiring Process: Face to Face Interview

Jobs Details:-

North frontier Railway, engagement of Apprentices

SI.No. 1
Name of trades: Fitter
No of posts: 16 (UR-9, SC-2, ST-1, OBC-4)

SI.No. 2
Name of trades: Turner
No of posts: 01 (UR)

SI.No. 3
Name of trades: Machinist
No of posts: 01 (UR)

SI.No. 4
Name of trades: Mech. Machine Tool Maintenance.
No of posts: 03 (UR-2, OBC-1)

SI.No. 5
Name of trades: Welder
No of posts: 06 (UR-3, SC-1, OBC-2)

SI.No. 6
Name of trades: Carpenter
No of posts: 03 (UR_2, OBC-1)

SI.No. 7
Name of trades: Painter General
No of posts: 03 (UR_2, OBC-1)

SI.No. 8
Name of trades: Electrician
No of posts: 02 (UR_1, OBC-1)

SI.No. 9
Name of trades: Tools & Die Maker
No of posts: 01 (UR)

SI.No. 10
Name of trades: Refrigerator & Air Conditioning Mechanic
No of posts: 01 (UR)

Qualification: Matriculation (Matriculate or 10th Class in 10+2 examination system) with minimum 50% marks and having I.T.I. certificate affiliated to NCVT compulsory in relevant trade.

Age Limit: 15-24 Yrs as on 01.01.2011 i.e. should not have been born earlier than 02.01.1987 and not later than 01.01.1996.

Processing Fee: (i) A Crossed Postal Order in favour of F.A. & C.A.O., N.F. Railway, Maligaon payable to GPO/ Guwahati for Rs. 40 as a processing fee which is not refundable/ transferable under any circumstances . The Postal Order purchased before the date of publication of this notice will not be valid or Demand Draft to be enclosed OR the examination fee shall be paid in the form of Account Payee Demand draft drawn from any Nationalized Bank in favour of FA &CAO, N.F.Railway and payable at Maligaon, SBI Branch. No Postal Order is required for SC/ ST/ PH candidates.

Selection Process: Engagement of Act Apprentices will be done only on the basis of marks obtained in the Matriculation Examination or 10^th Class in the 10+2 Examination system and minimum marks of eligibility shall be kept at 50% in aggregate and having I.T.I. Certificate is compulsory. No extra weightage shall be granted to candidates having higher education. Candidates equal to 1.25 times of the number of slots for Act Apprentices shall be called for verification of original testimonials and their physical fitness.

How to apply:

The Application form (in duplicate ) & Call Letter as per format must be submitted in foolscap paper duly filled in all respect by the candidate in his own hand writing with ball point pen to be addressed to Assistant Personnel Officer(Workshop), N.F. Railway, New Bongaigaon C&W Workshop, Assam, PIN: 783 381 381 in close envelope enclosing 2 Self-addressed envelope of 11” X 5” with Postal Stamp of Rs. 5 (Exemption for SC/ST/PH Candidates). Last date is on 28th March 2011.

For More Information click www.nfr.railnet.gov.in

RRB GUWAHATI GOODS GUARD EXAM 2010 SOLVED PAPER

1. Which of the following is the largest producer of raw silk?

(1) Assam (2) Karnataka (3) Andhra Pradesh(4) Jammu & Kashmir

Ans:-2

2. The Gandhara School of Sculpture was a blend of:

(1) Indian and Greek styles (2) Indian and Persian styles

(3) Purely Indian in origin (4) Indian and South East Asian style.

Ans:-1

3. Which one of the following languages is used in Tripura?

(I) Hindi (2) Mizo (3) Khasi (4) Bengali

Ans:-4

4. How many schedules are there in the Constitution of India?

(1) Eight (2)Ten

(3) Twelve (4) Fourteen

Ans:-2

5. In which year was the Capital of Assam shifted to Dispur from Shillong ?

(1) 1974 (2)1978

(3) 1985 (4) 1960

Ans:-1

6. Identify the man-made element:

(1) Carbon (2) Gold

(3) Californium (4) Calcium

Ans:-3

7. A man- borrows Rs. 200 at 5% compound interest. At the end of each year he pays back Rs. 50. At the end of 4 years he owes:

(1) Rs. 27.59 (2) Rs. 28.10.

(3) Rs. 27.81 (4) Rs. 28.14.

Ans:-1

8. The three temples, the Shivadol, the Vishnudol and the Devldol are situated at which place of Assam?

(1) Silghat (2) Sibsagar (3)Sadiya (4)Sarthebari

Ans:-2

9. Which of the following has the jurisdiction to hear about Fundamental Rights ?

(1) Supreme Court (2) High court

(3) Subordinate Court

(4) None of these

Ans:-1

10. Solar eclipse, occurs when

(1) Moon comes between the Sun and the Earth.

(2) The Sun comes between the Earth and moon.

(3) The Earth comes between the Sun and moon,

(4) None of these.

Ans:-1

11. What was the main occupation of the early Aryans in Rig Vedic period?

(1 ) Sculpture

(2) Animal husbandry

(3) Agriculture (4) Trade

Ans:-2

12. Which of the following is correctly matched?

(1) Goitre is caused due to deficiency. of— Vitamin D.

(2) Diabetes Is caused due to deficiency of — insulin

(3) Rickets is caused due to deficiency of – Vitamin A

(4) Night blindness is caused due to deficiency of— Iodine

Ans:-3

13. Six coins of gold and silver of equal weights are melted and new coins are cast. The ratio of gold and silver in one of the coins is 2: 1, in another two coins 3 : 5 and 7:5 In the remaining corns. What will be the ratio between gold and silver respectively in the new coins?’

(1) l2:11 (2)1:1 (3) 19: 17 (4) 42 : 25

Ans:-3

14. Which of the following does not contain carbohydrate?

(1) Potato (2) Maize (3) Banana (4) Pea

Ans:-4

15, Where is Namdafa Wild life Sanctuary located which is full of flora, fauna and avian with surprising dangers?

(1) Meghalaya (2) Mizoram (3) Nagaland

(4) Arunachal Pradesh

Ans:-4

16. The largest river island in the world. Majuli is located, in which of the following districts of Assam?

(1) Jorht (2) Dibrugarh

(3) Dhemaji (4) Tinsukia

Ans:-1

17. A person cannot see an object placed at a distance’ of less than

25 cm. The person suffers from.

(1) Astigmatism

(2) Myopia

(3) Longsighted ness

(4) None of these

Ans:-3

18. In photosynthesis light

(1) Is converted into kinetic energy

(2) Is converted into chemical energy

(3) Does not react with CO2 add water directly

(4) Acts as a catalyst -.

Ans:-2

19. Gandhiji gave the call “Do or Die” during

(1) Non-Cooperation Movement

(2) Civil Disobedience Movement

(3) Quit India Movement

(4) Industrial Satyagraha

Ans:-3

20. A black body emits

(1) Radiations of all wavelengths.

(2) No radiation.

(3) Radiation of one wavelength.

(4) Radiation of long wavelength .

Ans:-2

21. The depth of seals measured in:

(1) Feet (2) fathom (3) nautical (4) mile

Ans:-2

22. Erie silk is produced by Philosemia Resina silk worm.The worm is cultured in the plant of:

(1) castor (2)oak

(3) papaya (4) silk cotton.

Ans:-1

23. Which of the following rights is a political right?

(1)the right to be elected

(2) The right to life

(3) The right to have education

(4) The right to form association

Ans:-1

24. Which of the following two places are connected by the road in India, which is constructed on the highest altitude in the world?

(1) Leh and Manali (2) Jammu and Srinagar (3) Sikkim and Darjeeling (4) Srinagar and Leh

Ans:-1

25. Which part of the camera is equivalent to the retina of human eye?

(1) Lens, (2) Film

(3) Aperture (4) Shutter

Ans:-2

26. The largest island of the Asian Continent is:

(1) Indonesia (2) Borneo

(3) Sri Lanka (4) Myanmar

Ans:-3

27. When one ascends in the atmosphere the air becomes—-gradually.

(1) Rarer (2) dense

(3) Hot (4) obvious’

Ans:-1

28. During respiration carbohydrate is disintegrated into:

(1) Glycogen

(2) Carbon dioxide and water

(3) Oxygen and Carbon dioxide

(4) Glucose

Ans:-1

29. When the door of refrigerator is opened in a closed room, then:

(1) Room turns to be cooler

(2) The temperature of room falls

(3) The temperature of room is not affected

(4) The room becomes hotter gradually

Ans:-4

30. Who is called the First Citizen of India?

(1) President of India

(2) Prime Minister of India

(3) Mahatma Gandhi (4) Dr. BR Ambedkar

Ans:-1

31. Panini was a famous scholar of:

(1) Language and grammar

(2) Ayurveda

(3) Astronomy (4) Biology

Ans:-1

32. Which of the following is not a mineral?

(1) Slate (2) Limestone

(3) Coal (4) Calcite

Ans:-4

33.The state -of rising prices due to an enhancement in the quantity of money in circulation, termed as:

(1) Inflation

(2) Deflation -

(3) Demonetization

(4) Devaluation

Ans:-1

34. Name the minerals that are essential for hone and teeth formation in human:

(1) Calcium-and Phosphorus (2) Magnesium and Potassium

(3) Sodium and Iron (4) Iodine and Sulphur

Ans:-1

35. Ripe mangoes contains:

(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B (3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin E

Ans:-3

36. In which one of the following places, the boiling point of water is the highest?

(1) Dead Sea (2) Mt. Everest (3) Nile Delta (4) Sunder ban Delta

Ans:-2

37. The primary colours used in a colour TV are: -

(I) Green, Yellow, Violet

(2) Violet, Red, Orange

(3) Blue, Green, Red

(4) Blue, Green, Violet

Ans:-3

38. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right guaranteed by the Indian Constitution?

(1) Freedom to manage religious- affairs.

(2) Free and compulsory education up to primary stage.

(3) Prohibition of employment of children in factories.

(4) freedom to propagate religion.

Ans:-2

39. The chief merit of a federal government is that It:

(1) Ensures a strong government at the centre

(2) Integrates national unity with regional autonomy

(3) Keeps a check on the multiparty Systems

(4) Is very less expensive

Ans:-2

40. The First Assamese to become the President of India was-:

(1) Satyeda Anowara Talmur.

(2) Gopinath Bordoloi .

(3) Fakaruddln Ali Ahmed.

(4) Syed Abdul Malik .

Ans:-3

41. Match List – I with List — II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List—I

a. Amjad Ali Khan

b.Ali Hussain

c.Hari Prasad Chaurasia

d. Alla Rakha

List—II

1. Flute

2. Sarod

3. Tabla

4. Shehnai

Codes

A b e d

(1)2 1 3 4

(2)4 2 1 3

(3)2 4 1 3

(4)1 2 3. 4

Ans:-3

42. A dentist’s mirror is a:

(1) Cylindrical mirror (2) plane mirror

(3) Convex mirror (4) concave mirror

Ans:-4

RRB ASM EXAM 2010 SOLVED PAPER

1. Destination India&conference on commerce and trade was
organised at:

(a) Zurich (b) Bangalore (c) Singapore (d) Tokyo

2. According to a survey by Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry
which of the following countries tops the list on labour productivity:

(a) India (b) Luxembourg (c) Belgium (d) France

3. India s first Asset Reconstruction Company s road map was prepared by

( a) SBI (b) IDBI (c) ICICI (d) HDFC

4. Which of the following country is the new member of International Coffee
Organisation?

(a) India (b) Sri Lanka (c) Kenya (d) Vietnam

5. Who among the following headed the Indo-UK Round Table conference held at
London to strengthen bilateral ties between the two countries?

(a) Swaraj Paul (b) Jaswant Singh(c) K.C. Pant (d) Yashwant Sinha

6. Diva a specially ! ! designed women s international credit
card has been launched by:

(a) Federal Bank (b) Standard Chartered Bank(c) Dresdner Bank (d) ABN-Amro Bank

7. Richard Grasso is the head of:

(a) NASDAQ(b) London Stock Exchange(c) New York Stock Exchange(d) Dubai Stock
Exchange

8. Indiva is the multipurpose vehicle, launched by____at the
international motorshow in Geneva.

(a) TELCO (b) BAJAJ and SIL (c) LML (d) HONDA


9. Match the following Company/organisation Chief Executive Officer

I. General Electricals A. Harvey Pitt

II. Star Alliance B. S. Devarajah

III.Securities and C. Jeff Immelt Exchange Commission D. Cheong Choong Kong

IV.Manufacturer s Association of Information Technology

Code:I II III IV

(a) A B C D(b) B A C D(c) C D B A(d) D C A B

10. Nokia Corporation, the leading mobile phone makers is a___based company.

(a) USA (b) Japan (c) Philippines (d) Finland! !

11. ICENET is the network connecting the offices of the:

(a) Central Board of Excise and Customs(b) State Bank of India(c) Human Resource
Ministry(d) External Affairs Ministry

12. Geographical Information System Software known as Gram Chitra
was unveiled by:

(a) C-DAC (b) Media Labs Asia(c) Satyam Infoway (d) Honda

13. The Kofi Annan Institute for IT Excellence, has been set by India at____:

(a) Kenya (b) Guatemala (c) Ghana (d) Durban

14. India s first Defence Intelligence Agency became operational in___2002.

(a) June (b) March (c) April (d) May

15. The first hydel project in Andaman and Nicobar islands has been
commissioned by:

(a) NHPC (b) Dabhol Power Corporation(c) BHEL (d) NTPC

16. First Indian Laboratory (and India to be the 26th country) to be
accredited by the College of American Pathology is:

(a) Cipla lab (b) Speciality Ranbaxy Ltd(c) Zydu! ! s Cadila Ltd (d) Sun Pharma
lab

17. Smart Kid Insurance policy has been launched for students by:

(a) Tata-AIG (b) SBI-Cardif(c) ICICI Prudential (d) LICI

18. Who among the following has been appointed as the chairman of Central
Electricity Authority:

(a) J.L. Bajaj (b) H.L. Bajaj(c) Y.N. Prasad (d) J.L. Raina

19. Chilka Development Authority, the first organisation in the Asian
subcontinent to receive Ramsar Wetland Conservation Award for the year 2002 is
in:

(a) Kerala (b) Orissa (c) Assam (d) Uttaranchal

20. The chief architect of Ganga Action Plan, an environmentalist and
recipient of various awards died recently. Name him.

(a) Md. Bazzi (b) Arshad-uz-Zaman(c) Dr T.N. Khoshro (d) George Soros

21. CBE-2002 a NATO exercise by Canada, Greece, Hungary, Turkey, UK and US
was launched in____, for NATO peace programme.

(a) Georgia (b) Angola (c) Durban (d) Ireland

22. 2002 MN is the name of:

(a) Supercomputer (b) Asteroid(c) Spacecraft (d) Star

23. Orange Prize is given in the field of:

(a) literature (b) sports (c) medicine (d) acting

24. In the global tea production, India accounts for____per cent of tea
production.

(a) 27 (b) 26.7 (c) 24.3 (d) 27.7

25. USA has signed a legislation to protect the country from biological
terrorist attack worth:

(a) $ 4.6 billion (b) $ 6 billion(c) $ 7 billion (d) $ 8 billion

26. World day to combat desertification and drought is observed on:

(a) June 17 (b) June 20 (c) April 17 (d) July 20

27. Name the robot spacecraft, launched by NASA to observe frozen core of
comets.

(a) Contour (b) Odyssey (c) Dumar (d) Columbia

28. Blue Ocean, the World s most powerful Supercomputer, is specifically
designed for:

(a) NASA(b) US Naval Oceanographic office(c) US Federal Reserve Bank(d) US
Intelligence Agency

29. To review the disclosure and investor protection guidelines, a committee
was constituted by SEBI under:

(a) T.N. Chaturvedi (b) A.K. Basu(c) N.J. Reddy (d) Y.H. Malegam

30. First State to introduce a life insurance scheme covering 1.2 crore
students and three lakh teachers is:

(a) Karnataka (b) Madhya Pradesh(c) Maharashtra (d) Rajasthan

31. Hrithik Roshan has turned down an offer to act in the Warner Brother s
film,____due to unavailability of dates.

(a) Escape from Taliban(b) Hamlet(c) Three Wall(d) Hey Ram! Genocide in the land
of Gandhi

32. The Shade of Swords” is a book written by:

(a) M.J. Akbar (b) Manil Suri(c) Urmila Lanba! ! (d) Vasant Potdar

33. India s first Jan Shatabdi Express between Mumbai-Goa was commenced on:

(a) April 16, 2002 (b) April 20, 2002(c) June 20, 2002 (d) June 16, 2002

34. Who among the following has been appointed as the chairman of IIM
Ahmedabad:

(a) Y.C. Deveshwar (b) N.R. Narayana Murthy(c) Sanjiv Gupta (d) M. Damodaran

35. Automobile Industry s man of the year 2002 is:

(a) Carlos Ghoshn (Japan) (b) Dr Mark Faber(c) Dr Doom (d) Lious Haochuang

36. Who among the following has been named as the White Lightning in the
cricket?

(a) Adam Parore (New Zealand)(b) Allan Donald (South Africa)(c) Ben Hollioake (Australia)(d)
Dion Nash (New Zealand)

37. Which Indian cricketer has bagged a deal with ESPN?

(a) Md Kaif (b) Yuvraj(c) Sachin Tendulkar (d) Anil Kumble

38. Who among the following is the official sponsors of the Indian team at
the Asian Games to be held ! ! in Busan, South Korea?

(a) Phillips (b) Sahara (c) LG (d) Samsung

39. 24 Brand Mantras is a book written by:

(a) Bimal Chowdhary (b) Shiv Khera(c) Arindam R. Chowdhary (d) Jagdeep Kapoor

40. Ist developing country in the world to make use of fire optics technology
is:

(a) China (b) Japan (c) India (d) Vietnam

41. Defence Research and Development Organisation was formed in the year:

(a) 1980 (b) 1958 (c) 1956 (d) 1975

42. Who among the following has been appointed as the President of the
flagship channel Zee TV:

(a) Apurva Purohit (b) Pritish Nandi(c) Jitendra K. Singh (d) Raghu Rai

43. India s first commercially manufactured sports car is:

(a) Reeva (b) Indigo (c) Sedan (d) Fibro

44. How many new railway zones have been notified by the Railway Ministry in
July 2002:

(a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 14 (d) 5

45. Name the quarterly magazine, launched by The Time Grou! ! p.

(a) Bindia (b) b-drive(c) businessdrive.com (d) none of these

46. According to Economic Intelligence Unit, maximum amount of FDI is
received by:

(a) India (b) China (c) South Korea (d) Brazil

47. European Union Summit was held in Slovenia at:

(a) Bled (b) Geory (c) Repti (d) Ottowom

48. Transport Research and Injury Prevention Programme was awarded the
Stockholm award and is unveiled by:

(a) IIT, Kanpur (b) IIT, Delhi(c) IIT, Kharagpur (d) IIT, Chennai

49. Alvaro Silva Calderon was appointed as the Secretary General of:

(a) OPEC (b) FIEO (c) NACO (d) AIMPLB

50. ASEAN was set up in the year:

(a) 1985 (b) 1975 (c) 1967 (d) 1958

ANSWERS

1. (a)2. (b)3. (c)4. (d)5. (c)6. (b)7. (c)8. (a)9. (c)10. (d)11. (a)12. (b)13.
(c)14. (c)15. (a)16. (b)17. (a)18. (b)19. (b)20. (c)21. (a)22. (b)23. (a)24.
(d)25. (a)26. (a)27. (a)28. (b)29. (d)30. (a)31. (b)32. (a)33. (a)34. (b)35.
(a)36. (b)37. (c)38. (d)39. (d)40. (c)41. (c)42. (a)43. (a)44. (d)45. (b)46.
(c)47. (a)48. (b)49. (a)50. (c)

RRB PATNA ESM Gr-III EXAM (Exam Held On 30-01-2011) SOLVED PAPER

FOR RRB PATNA ESM Gr-III EXAM (Exam Held On 30-01-2011) SOLVED PAPER CLICK HERE

Railway Protection Force / Railway Protection Special Force (RPF / RPSF) Recruitment

Government of India
Ministry of Railways
Railway Protection Force / Railway Protection Special Force (RPF / RPSF)

Advertisement No. 1/2011

Recruitment of Constables (Male/Female) in RPF/RPSF


Applications are invited from eligible male / female candidates for filling up the following posts of Constables in Railway Protection Force / Railway Protection Special Force.

• Constable : 11952 posts (UR-6901, SC-1317, ST-1363, OBC-2371), Pay Scale : Rs.5200-2000/- Grade Pay Rs.2000/, Qualification : Matriculation or equivalent from recognised board., Age : 18-25 years

Application Fee : Rs.40/- in the form of Indian Postal Order/ Bank Draft in favour of The Financial Advisor and Chief Accounts Officer ........ Railway at (Gorakhpur/ Kolkata/ Bhubaneshwar/ Chennai). No fee for Women/ SC/ ST/ Economic Backwards and Minorities.

How to apply : The applications in the prescribed format should be sent to the Nodal Chief Security Commissioner of North Eastern Railway/ Eastern Railway/ East Coast Railway/ Southern Railway as the full address is provided in the detailed advertisement within 30 days i.e. upto 28/03/2011.

For more information and application form, please visit http://indianrailways.gov.in or please click on the image to view/ download the details.

RRB Engineering Solved Questions

1. A parabolic curve introduced between straight and a circular curve or between two branches of a compound curve for ease, comfort and safety of movement of trains on curve is called:
(a) Spur curve (b) Transition curve
(c) Summit curve (d) Valley curve
Ans : B

2. The staggered rails joints are usually provided on:
(a) Bridge (b) Curves (c) Branching (d) Tangents
Ans : B

3. The track capacity can be increased by:
(a) Faster movement of trains on the track
(b) By using more powerful engines
(c) All the above
(d) None of the above
Ans : C

4. The railway station at which a track line meets a main line is called:
(a) terminal station (b) flag station
(c) way side station (d) junction station
Ans : D

5. The limiting value of super elevation of board gauge in Indian Railways is:
(a) 16.50 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 10 cm
Ans : A

6. The chart used for recording the condition of track is known as:
(a) Rolling chart (b) Track chart
(c) Hallade chart (d) Vibro chart
Ans: C

7. The most common system of signaling in India is the …… system.
(a) automatic block (b) section clear system
(c) absolute block (d) pilot guard system
Ans : C

8. The feeder gauge …. is commonly used for feeding raw materials to big Government manufacturing concerns as well as to private factories such as steel plants, oil refineries, sugar factories etc.
(a) 0.6096 m (b) 0.792 m (c) 1m (d) 1.676 m
Ans : A

9. Which one of the following bolts is not used in rail track:
(a) Fang bolt (b) Eye bolt (c) Rag bolt (d) Fish bolt
Ans : B

10. The gradient which requires one or more additional locomotive for hauling the load over the gradient is called:
(a) Up-gradient (b) Pusher gradient
(c) Steep gradient (d) Momentum gradient
Ans : B

11. Points and crossings are provided for change of ….on permanent ways.
(a) gauge (b) direction and gradient
(c) direction (d) gradient
Ans : C

12. In locomotive ‘hunting’ is:
(a) Movement of locomotive in vertical plane perpendicular to its movement along the track
(b) Sinuous path taken by engine as against the alignment of the track
(c) Motion after brakes have been applied
(d) Combination of A and B above
Ans : D

13. The rails which get battered due to action of wheels over the end of the rails are called:
(a) Hogged rails (b) Roaring rails
(c) Creep rails (d) Bucking rails
Ans : A

14. In broad gauge, the clear horizontal distance between the inner faces of two parallel rails forming the track is:
(a) 1 m (b) 1.676 m (c) 0.6096 m (d) 0.792 m
Ans : B

15. As per Indian standard, the recommended width of ballast section at foot level of rails for broad gauge tracks should be:
(a) 4.38 m (b) 3.35 m (c) 1.83 m (d) 2.25 m
Ans : B

16. The minimum length of a passenger platform for broad gauge railway should not be less than:
(a) 305 m (b) 183 m (c) 495 m (d) 250 m
Ans : A

17. Generally the shape of fish plate is:
(a) elliptical (b) bone shaped (c) circular (d) rectangular
Ans : B

18. For wooden sleepers, size of the ballast should be:
(a) 2.54 cm (b) 10.16 cm (c) 3.8 cm (d) 5.1 cm
Ans : C

69. The length of track under the control of a Ganger is:
(a) 10 to 15 Km (b) 5 to 6 KM
(c) 3 to 5 KM (d) 1 to 2 KM
Ans : B

20. The maximum rising gradient which is provided keeping the power of locomotive in view, is called
(a) Momentum gradient (b) Pusher gradient
(c) Down gradient (d) Ruling gradient
Ans : D

21. The latest system of signaling introduced is:
(a) C.T.C. system (b) pilot guard system
(c) section clear system (d) automatic block system
Ans : A

22. Detonating signals are used:
(a) for noisy engines
(b) during foggy and cloudy weather
(c) for deaf drivers
(d) not now, were in use in nineteenth century only
Ans : B

23. The number of fish bolts used for joining the rails with the help of fish plates, is generally:
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 6
Ans : A

24. The Railways provided underground at a depth of about 18 m or more are called:
(a) Mono railway (b) Underground railway
(c) Railway (d) Tube railway
Ans : D

25. The art of providing an outward slope of …. to the treads of wheels of rolling stock is known as coning of wheels.
(a) 1 in 30 (b) 1 in 10 (c) 1 in 4 (d) 1 in 20
Ans : D

26. The process of connecting a track length by an electric circuit is known as track circuiting and the sleepers which are suitable for it are:
(a) cast iron sleepers (b) steel sleepers
(c) wooden sleepers (d) all above are suitable
Ans : C

27. The movable tapered end of the tongue rail is known as:
(a) heel of switch (b) toe of switch
(c) stretcher bar (d) throw of switch
Ans : B

28. The yard where trains and other loads are received, sorted out, trains formed and dispatched onwards are known as:
(a) locomotive yard (b) goods yard
(c) marshalling yard (d) station yard
Ans : C

29. Wider gauge permits:
(a) sleeper gradients (b) low axle load
(c) higher operating speeds (d) sharp curves
Ans : C

30. Which one of the following is expected to have shorter life?
(a) Steam engine (b) Diesel engine
(c) Electric engine (d) Shunting engine
And : B

31. The movable end of the tapered rail, by means of which the flanged wheels of the train are diverted from one track to another is known as:
(a) Toe (b) Stud (c) Heel (d) Flare
Ans : A

32. The creep in rails is measured in:
(a) cm/kg (b) cm (c) Kg/cm (d) kg cm
Ans : B

33. When a rail loses its weight by 5%, it should be renewed and the old one can be used on unimportant tracks, but the rails which have lost their weight by more than …., should not be used on any track under any circumstances.
(a) 8% (b) 33.3% (c) 10% (d) 20%
Ans : C

34. In railways, super elevation is provided to:
(a) facilitate drainage
(b) counteract the centrifugal push
(c) counteract the centripetal pull
(d) have all the effects mentioned above
Ans : B

35. The additional track connected to main line at both of its ends is called:
(a) running line (b) loop line
(c) main line (d) none are correct
Ans : B

36. The rails which help in channelising the wheels in their proper routes are known as:
(a) Guard rails (b) Wing rails? (c) Check rails (d) Lead rails
Ans : B

37. The shape of wheels of rolling stock is:
(a) Tapered with flange on outside
(b) Parallel with flange on inside
(c) Tapered with flange on inside
(d) Parallel with flange on outside
Ans : C

38. The maximum gradient for broad gauge in station yards in Indian Railways is:
(a) 1 in 100 (b) 1 in 1000 (c) 1in 200 (d) 1 in 400
Ans : D

39. The force which resists the forward movement and speed of train is called:
(a) Track modulus (b) Hauling resistance
(c) friction (d) Tractive resistance
Ans : D

4. The tractive resistance of the route in railways as compared to roadways will be:
(a) same (b) more (c) low (d) not comparable
Ans : C

41. Sand is used as ballast incase of:
(a) steel sleepers
(b) wooden sleepers
(c) reinforced concrete sleepers
(d) cast iron sleepers
Ans : D

42. Arm type fixed signals, fitted on a vertical post fixed at the side of a track, are called:
(a) Warner signals (b) Starter signals
(c) Semaphore signals (d) Cab signals
Ans : C

43. The Railway provided just below the ground level are called:
(a) Tube railway (b) Underground railway
(c) Mono railway (d) Railway
Ans : B

44. When a railway line crosses a valley, a ridge like structure consisting of a series of piers, piles or trestles on which steel girders are placed and which is constructed usually for small spans is known as:
(a) Bridge (b) Tunnel (c) Viaduct (d) Aqueduct
Ans : C

45. Creeping of rails will be reduced by using:
(a) Bearing plates (b) Spikes (c) Chairs (d) Anchors
Ans : D

46. The railway track from which a train is to be diverted is called:
(a) branch track (b) points and crossing
(c) main or through track (d) all above
Ans : C

47. An expansion gap of …. is usually kept between the adjoining rail ends to allow for expansion of rail, due to variation in temperature.
(a) 1 to 3 mm (b) 10 to 15 mm
(c) 6 to 8 mm (d) 3 to 5 mm
Ans : C

48. Generally the weight/metre of the rails used in broad gauge is:
(a) 55 kg (b) 45 kg (c) 35 kg (d) 65 kg
Ans : A

49. A dynamometer car is used for:
(a) Tourists (b) Dinning facilities
(c) Inspection of administrative officers
(d) Recording the condition of track
Ans : D

50. Which of the following is not a part of rail engine?
(a) Tender (b) Stream turbine (c) Boiler (d) Fire box
Ans : B

USEFUL BOOKS FOR RRB EXAMS

• Quicker Reasoning Test by Upkar Publication
• English Grammar by Wren and Martin
• R.S.Agarwal [Arithmetic]
• Ramesh Railway Recruitment Board (Tech.Engg. Cadre) Exam Guide – by RPH Editorial Board
• Oswaal Chapter Wise Solutions R.R.B. General English Railway Recruitment Board 10 Years Solved Papers
• Upkars Railway Psychological Test – by P. K. Mishra&lt
• Upkars Railway Recruitment Board Examination – by Dr. LalJain
• Upkars Railway Recruitment Board Examination – by Khanna & Verma
• Upkars Railway Recruitment Board Exam. TRAFFIC APPRENTICE – by Editorial Board Pratiyogita Darpan
• Upkars RRB Commercial Apprentice Exam – by Editorial Board Pratiyogita Darpan
• Upkars Railway Recruitment Board Ticket Collector Commercial Clerk – by Editorial Board Pratiyogita Darpan
• Upkars Railway Recruitment Exam. Group D – by Dr. LalJain
• Upkars RRB Supervisor P. way ELECTRICAL SIGNAL MAINTAINER Grade-II – by Dr. LalJain
• Upkars Railway Recruitment Board Examination Technical Cadre – by Dr. LalJain
• Ramesh Rly Non-Technical Guide – by RPH Editorial Board
• Ramesh Rly (Non-Tech) Prev. Solved Papers – by RPH Editorial Board
• Ramesh Rly Tech. Exam Pre. Solved Papers – by RPH Editorial Board
• Ramesh Rly Psychological Tests & Interviews – by Sanjay Kumar
• Ramesh Rly Group D Exam Guide – by RPH Editorial Board
• Ramesh Rly Group D 20 Practice Test Papers – by Sanjay Kumar
• Ramesh Rly Goods Guard Exam Guide – by RPH Editorial Board
• Ramesh Popular Master Guide Railway Recruitment Board Examination Asst. Loco Pilot Technician III – by RPH Editorial Board
• Ramesh Rly Asst/Diesel Driver Previous Paper(Solved) – by RPH Editorial Board
• Sree Media Communications RRB Technical, Non-Technical Books
  

RRB JUNIOR ENGINEERS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Railway Engineering Exam Solved Questions:

1. The limiting value of super elevation of board gauge in Indian Railways is:
(a) 16.50 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 10 cm
Ans : A

2. Which of the following is not a part of rail engine?
(a) Tender (b) Stream turbine (c) Boiler (d) Fire box
Ans : B

3. The staggered rails joints are usually provided on:
(a) Bridge (b) Curves (c) Branching (d) Tangents
Ans : B

4. In broad gauge, the clear horizontal distance between the inner faces of two parallel rails forming the track is:
(a) 1 m (b) 1.676 m (c) 0.6096 m (d) 0.792 m
Ans : B

5. Generally the shape of fish plate is:
(a) elliptical (b) bone shaped (c) circular (d) rectangular
Ans : B

6. The track capacity can be increased by:
(a) Faster movement of trains on the track
(b) By using more powerful engines
(c) All the above
(d) None of the above
Ans : C

7. Detonating signals are used:
(a) for noisy engines
(b) during foggy and cloudy weather
(c) for deaf drivers
(d) not now, were in use in nineteenth century only
Ans : B

8. Wider gauge permits:
(a) sleeper gradients (b) low axle load
(c) higher operating speeds (d) sharp curves
Ans : C

9. The railway station at which a track line meets a main line is called:
(a) terminal station (b) flag station
(c) way side station (d) junction station
Ans : D

10. Points and crossings are provided for change of ….on permanent ways.
(a) gauge (b) direction and gradient
(c) direction (d) gradient
Ans : C

11. The chart used for recording the condition of track is known as:
(a) Rolling chart (b) Track chart
(c) Hallade chart (d) Vibro chart
Ans: C

12. The most common system of signaling in India is the …… system.
(a) automatic block (b) section clear system
(c) absolute block (d) pilot guard system
Ans : C

13. The feeder gauge …. is commonly used for feeding raw materials to big Government manufacturing concerns as well as to private factories such as steel plants, oil refineries, sugar factories etc.
(a) 0.6096 m (b) 0.792 m (c) 1m (d) 1.676 m
Ans : A

14. A parabolic curve introduced between straight and a circular curve or between two branches of a compound curve for ease, comfort and safety of movement of trains on curve is called:
(a) Spur curve (b) Transition curve
(c) Summit curve (d) Valley curve
Ans : B

15. The railway track from which a train is to be diverted is called:
(a) branch track (b) points and crossing
(c) main or through track (d) all above
Ans : C

16. An expansion gap of …. is usually kept between the adjoining rail ends to allow for expansion of rail, due to variation in temperature.
(a) 1 to 3 mm (b) 10 to 15 mm
(c) 6 to 8 mm (d) 3 to 5 mm
Ans : C

17. Which one of the following bolts is not used in rail track:
(a) Fang bolt (b) Eye bolt (c) Rag bolt (d) Fish bolt
Ans : B

18. The gradient which requires one or more additional locomotive for hauling the load over the gradient is called:
(a) Up-gradient (b) Pusher gradient
(c) Steep gradient (d) Momentum gradient
Ans : B

19. In locomotive ‘hunting’ is:
(a) Movement of locomotive in vertical plane perpendicular to its movement along the track
(b) Sinuous path taken by engine as against the alignment of the track
(c) Motion after brakes have been applied
(d) Combination of A and B above
Ans : D

20. The rails which get battered due to action of wheels over the end of the rails are called:
(a) Hogged rails (b) Roaring rails
(c) Creep rails (d) Bucking rails
Ans : A

21. As per Indian standard, the recommended width of ballast section at foot level of rails for broad gauge tracks should be:
(a) 4.38 m (b) 3.35 m (c) 1.83 m (d) 2.25 m
Ans : B

22. The minimum length of a passenger platform for broad gauge railway should not be less than:
(a) 305 m (b) 183 m (c) 495 m (d) 250 m
Ans : A

23. For wooden sleepers, size of the ballast should be:
(a) 2.54 cm (b) 10.16 cm (c) 3.8 cm (d) 5.1 cm
Ans : C

24. The length of track under the control of a Ganger is:
(a) 10 to 15 Km (b) 5 to 6 KM
(c) 3 to 5 KM (d) 1 to 2 KM
Ans : B

5. The maximum rising gradient which is provided keeping the power of locomotive in view, is called
(a) Momentum gradient (b) Pusher gradient
(c) Down gradient (d) Ruling gradient
Ans : D

26. The latest system of signaling introduced is:
(a) C.T.C. system (b) pilot guard system
(c) section clear system (d) automatic block system
Ans : A

27. The maximum gradient for broad gauge in station yards in Indian Railways is:
(a) 1 in 100 (b) 1 in 1000 (c) 1in 200 (d) 1 in 400
Ans : D

28. The force which resists the forward movement and speed of train is called:
(a) Track modulus (b) Hauling resistance
(c) friction (d) Tractive resistance
Ans : D

29. The number of fish bolts used for joining the rails with the help of fish plates, is generally:
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 6
Ans : A

30. The Railways provided underground at a depth of about 18 m or more are called:
(a) Mono railway (b) Underground railway
(c) Railway (d) Tube railway
Ans : D

31. The creep in rails is measured in:
(a) cm/kg (b) cm (c) Kg/cm (d) kg cm
Ans : B

32. The art of providing an outward slope of …. to the treads of wheels of rolling stock is known as coning of wheels.
(a) 1 in 30 (b) 1 in 10 (c) 1 in 4 (d) 1 in 20
Ans : D

33. The process of connecting a track length by an electric circuit is known as track circuiting and the sleepers which are suitable for it are:
(a) cast iron sleepers (b) steel sleepers
(c) wooden sleepers (d) all above are suitable
Ans : C

34. The yard where trains and other loads are received, sorted out, trains formed and dispatched onwards are known as:
(a) locomotive yard (b) goods yard
(c) marshalling yard (d) station yard
Ans : C

35. Which one of the following is expected to have shorter life?
(a) Steam engine (b) Diesel engine
(c) Electric engine (d) Shunting engine
And : B

36. The movable end of the tapered rail, by means of which the flanged wheels of the train are diverted from one track to another is known as:
(a) Toe (b) Stud (c) Heel (d) Flare
Ans : A

37. When a rail loses its weight by 5%, it should be renewed and the old one can be used on unimportant tracks, but the rails which have lost their weight by more than …., should not be used on any track under any circumstances.
(a) 8% (b) 33.3% (c) 10% (d) 20%
Ans : C

38. A dynamometer car is used for:
(a) Tourists (b) Dinning facilities
(c) Inspection of administrative officers
(d) Recording the condition of track
Ans : D

39. When a railway line crosses a valley, a ridge like structure consisting of a series of piers, piles or trestles on which steel girders are placed and which is constructed usually for small spans is known as:
(a) Bridge (b) Tunnel (c) Viaduct (d) Aqueduct
Ans : C

40. The movable tapered end of the tongue rail is known as:
(a) heel of switch (b) toe of switch
(c) stretcher bar (d) throw of switch
Ans : B

41. In railways, super elevation is provided to:
(a) facilitate drainage
(b) counteract the centrifugal push
(c) counteract the centripetal pull
(d) have all the effects mentioned above
Ans : B

42. The rails which help in channelising the wheels in their proper routes are known as:
(a) Guard rails (b) Wing rails? (c) Check rails (d) Lead rails
Ans : B

43. The shape of wheels of rolling stock is:
(a) Tapered with flange on outside
(b) Parallel with flange on inside
(c) Tapered with flange on inside
(d) Parallel with flange on outside
Ans : C

44. The tractive resistance of the route in railways as compared to roadways will be:
(a) same (b) more (c) low (d) not comparable
Ans : C

45. Sand is used as ballast incase of:
(a) steel sleepers
(b) wooden sleepers
(c) reinforced concrete sleepers
(d) cast iron sleepers
Ans : D

46. Arm type fixed signals, fitted on a vertical post fixed at the side of a track, are called:
(a) Warner signals (b) Starter signals
(c) Semaphore signals (d) Cab signals
Ans : C

47. The Railway provided just below the ground level are called:
(a) Tube railway (b) Underground railway
(c) Mono railway (d) Railway
Ans : B

48. Creeping of rails will be reduced by using:
(a) Bearing plates (b) Spikes (c) Chairs (d) Anchors
Ans : D

49. Generally the weight/metre of the rails used in broad gauge is:
(a) 55 kg (b) 45 kg (c) 35 kg (d) 65 kg
Ans : A

50. The additional track connected to main line at both of its ends is called:
(a) running line (b) loop line
(c) main line (d) none are correct
Ans : B

RRB ASM MODEL PAPER

1. The bent-up length of rail used in front of nose of crossing which help in channelising the train wheels in their proper routes are known as:
(a) lead rail
(b) point rail
(c) wing rail
(d) splice rail
Ans:- C

2. The point up to which the new railway track laid, at any time is called:
(a) terminal
(b) Station
(c) rail-head
(d) Base
Ans:- C

3. The good quality wood for sleeper is:
(a) Deodar
(b) Sheesham
(c) Teak
(d) Sal
Ans:- C

4. Generally the life of wooden sleepers is taken as:
(a) 2 to 3 years
(b) 12 to 15 years
(c) 35 to 50 years
(d) 5 to 8 years
Ans:- B

5. The gradual or tapered widening of the flange way which is formed by bending and splaying the end of check rail or wing rail away from the gauge line is known as:
(a) Flare
(b) Toe
(c) Heel
(d) Loop
Ans:- A

6. The minimum height of embankment above the highest flood mark in the area should be:
(a) zero cm
(b) 30 cm
(c) 100 cm
(d) 60 cm
Ans:- D

7. The recommended depth of ballast cushion on a curved portion of a track is provided under the …….. edge of the sleeper.
(a) upper
(b) middle
(c) inner
(d) outer
Ans:- C

8. An outward slope provided on the tread of the wheel is:
(a) 1 in 5
(b) 1 in 10
(c) 1 in 20
(d) 1 in 25
Ans:- C

9. The granular material spread on the formation of a railway track for the sleepers to rest upon is known as:
(a) anchors
(b) ballast
(c) subgrade
(d) chairs
Ans:- B

10. Bone shaped section of fish plate is commonly used for connecting:
(a) double headed rails
(b) flat footed rails
(c) bull headed rails
(d) all above are correct
Ans:- B

11. The members laid transversely under the rails for supporting and fixing them at the gauge distance apart are known as:
(a) fastenings
(b) sleepers
(c) ballast
(d) fish plate
Ans:- B

12. The bottom width of foot in a flat footed rail is:
(a) 78.6 mm
(b) 136.5 mm
(c) 66.7 mm
(d) 70 mm
Ans:- B

13. The rectangular pits in which wheels of the locomotives are taken out for repairs, are known as:
(a) Track pits
(b) Inspection pits
(c) Drop pits
(d) Siding pits
Ans:- C

14. The wheels are coned to prevent from rubbing the inside face of the rail head and to prevent lateral movement of the axle with its wheels. The slope of cone is:
(a) 1 in 5
(b) 1 in 20
(c) 1 in 10
(d) 1 in 15
Ans:- B

15. Gauge is the distance measured in place of the between which faces of two parallel rails in a track.
(a) inner faces
(b) centre line of one rail to inner face of other rail
(c) centre lines
(d) outer faces
Ans:- A

16. Most significant which imposes limitations in raising the high speeds is:
(a) adhesion of wheels
(b) resistance due to oscillations
(c) flange resistance
(d) air or wind resistance
Ans:- A

17. The rails are welded by:
(a) Thermit welding
(b) Gas welding
(c) Arc welding
(d) MIG welding
Ans:- A

18. Steel sleepers are ….. shaped in section.
(a) oval
(b) rectangular
(c) trough
(d) semi-spherical
Ans:- C

19. In India generally the sleeper density of sleepers per rail length used is:
(a) 18
(b) 30
(c) 12
(d) 24
Ans:- A

20. The extra rails provided over bridge to prevent damage and danger in case of derailment on the bridge are known as:
(a) Stock rails
(b) Guard rails
(c) Check rails
(d) Wing rails
Ans:- B

21. The phenomenon of misalignment of rails due to temperature change is known as:
(a) cropping
(b) creeping
(c) bulging
(d) buckling
Ans:- D

22. Creep is the ….. movement of rails.
(a) longitudinal
(b) diagonal
(c) horizontal
(d) vertical
Ans:- A

23. Ballast best suited to steel sleepers is:
(a) sand
(b) Gravel
(c) Quartzite
(d) All the above
Ans:- C

24. The section of a rail is decided on the basis of:
(a) Type of rails
(b) Spacing of the sleepers
(c) Speed of trains
(d) All of the above
Ans:- D

25. While preparing sub-grade of a railway line, the grubbing operation means:
(a) checking of subgrade
(b) filling or cutting of earth work in railway subgrade
(c) compaction and consolidation of earth work
(d) removal and disposal of stumps and roots trees
Ans:- D

26. The sinuous path taken by an engine as against the alignment of the track is known as:
(a) Rolling motion
(b) Nosing motion
(c) Lurching motion
(d) Vibration
Ans:- B

27. The mechanical device which transfer chemical energy of fuel into mechanical energy in the form of motion is called:
(a) rolling stock
(b) railway
(c) wagon
(d) locomotive
Ans:- D

28. Integrated coach factory is located in:
(a) Chennai
(b) Bangalore
(c) Jamshedpur
(d) Mumbai
Ans:- A

29. C.T.C. stands for:
(a) Critical Track Control
(b) Critical Traffic Channeliser
(c) Centralised Traffic Control
(d) None of these
Ans:- C

30. To reduce the intensity of pressure particularly on soft variety of sleepers, a rectangular plate is introduced between the rails and the sleepers. This is known as:
(a) Fish plate
(b) Chair
(c) Saddle plate
(d) Bearing plate
Ans:- D

31. Generally the rail sections used in India is:
(a) flat footed
(b) double headed
(c) bull headed
(d) all above
Ans:- A

32. The arrangement consisting of three tracks used for changing the direction of engine is called:
(a) three ladder track
(b) turn table
(c) three throw switch
(d) triangle
Ans:- B

33. The length of a wooden sleeper for broad gauge track is:
(a) 1.83 m
(b) 1.52 m
(c) 2.74 m
(d) 1.676 m
Ans:- C

34. The technical officer of the rank of sectional officer in the maintenance organisation of Indian Railways is called:
(a) Permanent Way Inspector
(b) Gangmate
(c) Assistant Permanent Way Inspector
(d) None of these are correct
Ans:- C

35. The depth of ballast section under sleeper for broad gauge track as per Indian standard should be:
(a) 250 to 300 mm
(b) 200 to 250 mm
(c) 150 to 200 mm
(d) 150 mm
Ans:- B

36. The completed and finished railway line on which wheeled vehicles are drawn by locomotive is known as:
(a) steel way
(b) rails
(c) railway
(d) permanent way
Ans:- D

37. The horse power to weight ratio steam engine is generally of the order of:
(a) 10-15 kg/HP
(b) 60-80 kg/HP
(c) 20-30 kg/HP
(d) 100-150 kg/HP
Ans:- B

38. The cause of formation of kinks in a rail is:
(a) Loose packing at joints
(b) Defect in gauge and alignment
(c) Defect in cross level joints
(d) Any of the above
Ans:- D

39. The horizontal distance from the material depot to the rail head is called:
(a) lift
(b) site distance
(c) rail-head
(d) lead
Ans:- D

40. On curves, to counteract the effect of centrifugal force, the level of outer rail is raised above the inner rail by a certain amount. This is called:
(a) Track gradient
(b) Track slope
(c) Super elevation
(d) Horizontal gradient
Ans:- C

41. The measure of stiffness of track required to produce a unit depression in the track is known as:
(a) Tractive force
(b) Load capacity
(c) Gauge
(d) Track modulus
Ans:- D
42. The head of a gang in maintenance organisation of railway is called:
(a) P.W.I
(b) Keyman
(c) Ganger
(d) A.P.W.I
Ans:- C

43. The fixed rail in a railway track against which the tongue rail fits s known as:
(a) wing rail
(b) stock rail
(c) lead rail
(d) point rail
Ans:- B

44. The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge track in India is:
(a) 19.2 m
(b) 25.6 m
(c) 11.8 m
(d) 12.8 m
Ans:- D

45. The thickness of fish plate generally used in Indian Railway is:
(a) 16 mm
(b) 10 mm
(c) 25 mm
(d) 20 mm
Ans:- D

46. Thermal efficiency of a diesel engine may be expected to be in the range of:
(a) 50-65%
(b) 25-35%
(c) 15-20%
(d) 10-15%
Ans:- B

47. Wear on top or head of rail occurs due to:
(a) Abrasion of rolling wheels
(b) Heavy axle load
(c) Constant brake application
(d) Any or all of the above
Ans:- D

48. Any movement of the locomotive in different planes, e.g., vertical, longitudinal, transversal etc., is known as:
(a) Oscillating motion
(b) Lurching motion
(c) Shutting motion
(d) Vibration
Ans:- A

49. In rainy season the dust in the ballast becomes mud and comes up by suction from below the rail joint. Such joint is called:
(a) Wet joint
(b) Water joint
(c) Pumping joint
(d) Blowing joint
Ans:- C

50. Accidents can be avoided by adopting:
(a) interlocking
(b) C.T.C. system
(c) pilot guard system
(d) A.T.C. system
Ans:- A

51. When was the first underground railway (Metro Railway) started?
(a) 1982
(b) 1989
(c) 1984
(d) 1992
Ans: – C

52. Shatabdi Express train was started in
(a) 1984
(b) 1988
(c) 1990
(d) 1985
Ans: – B

53. At which of the following places Diesel Component Works is established?
(a) Jamshedpur
(b) Patiala
(c) Perambur
(d) Varanasi
Ans: – B

54. Which Zone is the largest in Indian Railways?
(a) Central Railway
(b) Northern Railway
(c) Eastern Railway
(d) Western Railway
Ans: – C

55. The railway station situated in the extreme south is
(a) Chennai
(b) Cochin
(c) Kanyakumari
(d) Trivandrum
Ans: – C

56. A platform surrounded by rail lines from all the four sides, is called
(a) Dock platform
(b) Passenger platform
(c) Island platform
(d) Goods platform
Ans: – C

57. When was the nationalization of Indian Railways done?
(a) 1952
(b) 1950
(c) 1951
(d) 1954
Ans: – B

58. In which year Research, Design and Standard organization was established?
(a) 1954
(b) 1957
(c) 1959
(d) 1967
Ans: – B

59. Railway Staff College is situated at
(a) Bangalore
(b) Secundrabad
(c) Chennai
(d) Vadodara
Ans: – D

60. Where is the Research, Design and Standard Organisation situated?
(a) Lucknow
(b) Bangalore
(c) Pune
(d) New Delhi
Ans:- A

61. Which is the following pairs of regional Railways and their headquarters not true?
(a) South-Central Railway – Secunderabad
(b) Central railway – Bhopal
(c) South Railway – Chennai
(d) North Railway – New Delhi
Ans:- B

62. Between which of the destinations the first Indian train was started?
(a) from Calcutta to Delhi
(b) From Mumbai to Thane
(c) From Mumbai to Surat
(d) From Mumbai to Madras
Ans:- B

63. When was the first train in Indian started?
(a) 1851
(b) 1852
(c) 1853
(d) 1854
Ans:- C
64. In which Governor-General’s reign railway lines in India was established?
(a) Lord William Bentick
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Kenning
(d) Lord Dalhousie
Ans:- D

65. A station where the rail lines end, is called
(a) junction station
(b) way-side-station
(c) block station
(d) terminal station
Ans:- D

66. How much distance was traveled by first train of India?
(a) 33 km
(b) 36 km
(c) 34 km
(d) 46 km
Ans:- C

67. What is the position of the Indian Railway in the world according to the length of rail lines?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Ans:- D

68. What is the length of North-Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR)?
(a) 4300 Km
(b) 3700 Km
(c) 4290 km
(d) 5298 km
Ans:- B

69. The headquarters of North-Eastern railway is situated at
(a) Mumbai (V.T)
(b) Guwahati
(c) Gorakhpur
(d) New Delhi
Ans:- C

70. When was the North-Eastern frontier Railway (NEFR) established?
(a) 15th Jan, 1958
(b) 15th Jan, 1955
(c) 2nd Jan, 1956
(d) 14th April, 1952
Ans:- A

71. The headquarters of North -Eastern Frontier Railway (NEFR) is
(a) Calcutta
(b) Maligaon (Guwahati)
(c) Chennai
(d) Gorakhpur
Ans:- B

72. In which of the following cities, the first sub-way train was started?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Delhi
(c) Calcutta
(d) Chennai
Ans:- C

73. General Manger is responsible for
(a) Railway Board
(b) Railway Ministry
(c) Both railway Board and Railway Ministry
(d) None of these
Ans:- A

74. The headquarters of South-Central Railways is situated at
(a) Mumbai (V.T)
(b) Chennai
(c) Secundrabad
(d) Mumbai (Central)
Ans:- C

75. The headquarters of Northern Railway is at
(a) New Delhi
(b) Guwahati
(c) Gorakhpur
(d) Mumbai (V.T)
Ans:- A

76. The headquarters of South Railways is situated at
(a) Calcutta
(b) Chennai
(c) Delhi
(d) Mumbai
Ans:- B

77. In which institution the training of electric work is being given?
(a) Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering
(b) Indian Railways Institute of Electrical Engineering
(c) Railway Staff College
(d) Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering
Ans:- B

78. Who invented the railway engine?
(a) Charles Babbage
(b) Isaac Newton
(c) James Watt
(d) George Stephenson
Ans:- D

79. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering Institution situated?
(a) Nasik
(b) Baroda
(c) Jamalpur
(d) Pune
Ans:- C

80. Metro Railway is functioning in which of the following Indian States?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
(c) West Bengal
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans:- C

81. The zone with the minimum length is
(a) North-Eastern Railway
(b) North-Eastern Frontier Railway
(c) South-East Railway
(d) South-Central Railway
Ans:- B

82. Where is the Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering Institute situated?
(a) Pune
(b) Chennai
(c) Nasik
(d) Sikandrabad
Ans:- A

83. How many training institutions of Railways are in India?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six
Ans:- C

84. What is the position of the Indian Railway under the zonal system?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Forth
Ans:- B

85. Which of the gauges is used in the hilly areas?
(a) Broad gauge
(b) Meter gauge
(c) Narrow gauge
(d) Special gauge
Ans:- C

86. Where is the extreme north of India a railway station?
(a) Jammutavi
(b) Amritsar
(c) Pathancoat
(d) Guwahat
Ans:- A

87. How many institutions do give suggestions for railways technology?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Ans:- B

88. Diesel Locomotive Works is situated at
(a) Perambur
(b) Varanasi
(c) Kapurthala
(d) Bangalore
Ans:- B

89. The manufacturing of steam engine in Chittranjan Locomotive Works was stopped in
(a) 1974
(b) 1961
(c) 1971
(d) 1973
Ans:- C

90. The passenger bogies of the Indian Railways are manufactured at which of the following places?
(a) Kapurthala
(b) Chittranjan
(c) Perambur
(d) Bangalore
Ans:- C

91. Indian Railways which is the largest of the Public Sector Enterprises, is divided into how many regions?
(a) 7
(b) 9
(c) 8
(d) 10
Ans:- B

92. Besides Mahrashtra, Karnataka and Goa, which of the following is the fourth State for Konakan Railway Project?
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Gujarat
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans:- A

93. Palace On Wheels train was inaugurated in
(a) 1988
(b) 1972
(c) 1982
(d) 1965
Ans:- C

94. When was the Central Railway established?
(a) 5th Nov 1951
(b) 14th Nov 1951
(c) 14th April 1951
(d) 16th August, 1951
Ans:- A

95. Rajasthan is under which of the following railway zones?
(a) Northern region
(b) Western region
(c) North-Western region
(d) Central Region
Ans:- B

96. The largest national enterprise of India is
(a) Indian Railway
(b) Indian Shipyard
(c) Airways
(d) None of these
Ans:- A

97. The first locomotive which was manufactured in Chittranjan on
(a) November 1950
(b) October 1950
(c) September 1949
(d) October 1954
Ans:- A

98. Where is the wheel and axle plant of Indian Railways situated?
(a) Chittranjan
(b) Kapurthala
(c) Bangalore
(d) Perambur
Ans:- C

99. When was the Jammu City appeared on the map of Indian Railway?
(a) 1965
(b) 1963
(c) 1967
(d) 1965
Ans:- D

100. Where is the headquarters of Central Railway situated?
(a) Mumbai (V.T)
(b) Mumbai (Church Gate)
(c) Gwalior
(d) Gorakhpur
Ans:- A

RRB Secunderabad Recruitment Procedure, Pattern And Exam Syllabus

RECRUITMENT PROCEDURE
1. All selections made by the Railway Recruitment Boards are purely based on merit position obtained by the candidates in the written examinations subject to reservations for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes. Viva-voce tests (interviews) have been done away except in the four categories indicated in para 5 below.

2. All written examinations are of multiple choice objective type.There will be negative marking, 1/3 mark will be deducted for every wrong answser.

3. The syllabus for the written examinations is generally commensurate with the qualifications prescribed for the post.

4. The questions will be in General Knowledge/General Intelligence and Reasoning and Analytical abilities and in the technical/professional subjects wherever technical/professional qualifications are prescribed. In addition in certain categories like Clerks, Probationary Station Masters, Commercial/Traffic Apprentices/Junior Accounts Assistants etc., questions in English/Hindi language can also be asked.

5. The type of selections for some of the categories is given below. The list is illustrative and not exhaustive.

1.	Safety category posts like Probationary Assistant Station Masters, Assistant Loco Pilot etc.	Single Stage written Examination followed by Aptitude test. Candidates have to qualify in both the tests.
2.	Non Technical Popular Categories like Clerks, Traffic and Commercial Apprentices, Enquiry-cum-Reservation Clerks, Junior Accounts Assistants etc.	Two Stage written examination. Final selection will be based on the merit position Obtaining in the second stage examination. Candidates competing for clerical categories have to pass a qualifying typewriting examination in Hindi or English.
3.	Technical categories like Section Engineers, Junior Engineers, Technicians, Para-medical categories etc.	Single stage written examination.
4.	Raj Bhasha Assistants	Single stage written examination followed by qualifying translation test.
5.	Junior Stenographers	Single stage written examination followed by shorthand test
6.	Teachers, Law Assistants, Physiotherapists and Telephone Operators	Single stage written examination followed by interview

Note: Even in categories where selection is through a single stage examination, the Railway Recruitment Board can prescribe a second stage examination depending upon the number of candidates, administrative exigencies etc. In such cases final selection will be on the basis of the merit position of the second stage examination.

After the final results are announced, the selected candidates have to report to the office of the Railway Recruitment Board on a nominated day for verification of their original certificates. If they are unable to attend the verification on the nominated day, they are given a second opportunity. If a candidate does not attend the verification even on the second occasion, his candidature is cancelled.

Candidature of candidates who cannot produce the necessary documentary proof in support of the minimum educational/technical qualifications, age, community etc. is also cancelled.

A final panel containing the list of selected candidates is thereafter prepared.