Integral Coach Factory (ICF) Recruitment

Integral Coach Factory (ICF)

Chennai 600038

Notification: – Recruitment against Sports Quota Applications in prescribed format are being invited by Integral Coach Factory (ICF) from eligible sports personality for the recruitment of Technician Grade III. The important announcement related to recruitment surfaced with Employment Notice No. 02/2011. On the basis of regular appointment the post of Technician Gr. III will be filled. Recruitment related others information can be seen below: -
Post Name: – Technician Grade III
No. of Posts: – 10
Events specialization wise vacancies can be seen below: -  Volleyball: – 02 Cricket: – 02 Football: – 01 Kabaddi: – 02 Power lifting: – 02 Hockey: – 01
Age Limit: - As on 01.01.2012 candidates should not exceed 25 years and below 18 years
Essential Qualification: - Act Apprenticeship / ITI in respective Trade or 10th Passed / ITI or equivalent
Pay Scale: – Rs. 5200-20200/- with Grade Pay of Rs. 1900/1800/-
Process of Selection: – Method of Selection will consist Trial Test related to Sporting events followed by Personal Interview. Only those candidates who declared fit in the Trial will be called for Interview. Candidates are required to present original certificates at the time of process of selection.
Exam Fee: – IPO of Rs. 40/- is required to send with applications as exam fee. The IPO should be drawn in favour of Assistant Personnel Officer / ICF, Payable at Chennai.
Fee Exemption: – SC/ST candidates need not to pay any exam fee
Enclosures: – Educational Qualification Certificate, Age Proof, Caste Certificate, NOC (in case of working employee), Sports Activity Certificates
How to apply: – Eligible sports persons may send their applications request only in prescribed format. The format of application can be downloaded from the link below. Candidates have to fill the applications in own handwriting enclose with attested enclosures and requisite amount of IPO as exam fee. Applications complete in all respect should be forwarded to “The Assistant Personnel Officer / G, Integral Coach Factory, Chennai 600038.
Last date of submission: – 31.10.2011
The format of application can be collected at Link: – “Download Application Form Link”
General Condition: -
1. Sports persons should have represented at International Level or At National Championship in respective trade are eligible to apply
2. Incomplete applications will be rejected without prior notice
3. Since all the events shown above are for Men; so only Men candidates are eligible
At recruitment link particular can be seen: – “Recruitment Link”
Jobs related more updates at Integral Coach Factory (ICF) can be searched on site given: – http://www.icf.indianrailways.gov.in/

RRB EXAMS GENERAL AWARENESS MCQs

1. Which of the following statements is not correct about sound waves?
(a) It is a straight line
(b) It has energy
(c) It is in wave form
(d) Sound travels faster in vacuum than in air
Ans. (d)
2. The drop of water is spherical in shape due to—
(a) Surface tension
(b) Viscosity
(c) Gravitation
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
3. The speed of sound wave is increased due to—
(a) Decrease in temperature
(b) Increase in temperature
(c) Increase then decrease in temperature
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
4. Railway earns mare in carrying—
(a) Passengers
(b) Goods
(c) Construction work
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
5. Which of the following generates highest income?
(a) Software
(b) NRI remittance
(c) RBI-interest rate
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
6. The Telugu-Ganga project is related to—
(a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
(b) Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (a)
7. The time required to reach the sunlight to the earth is—
(a) 6 minutes 40 seconds
(b) 8 minutes 20 seconds
(c) 7 minutes 20 seconds
(d) 9 minutes 10 seconds
Ans. (b)
8. The chlorine gas turns iodine—
(a) Blue
(b) Red
(c) Green
(d) Orange
Ans. (a)
9. The maximum intensity of earthquake on Richter Scale is
(a) l
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) l0
Ans. (d)
10. The non-metal which conducts both heat and electricity is—
(a) iodine
(b) chlorine
(c) phosphorus
(d) graphite
Ans. (d)
11. The cities Halebid and Belur were constructed by
(a) Cholas
(b) Hoyasalas
(c) Kakatiyas
(d) Pállavas
Ans. (b)
12. Covalent bond is formed by—
(a) sharing of electrons
(b) donation of electrons
(c) sharing of protons
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
13. Carbon forms more compounds because—
(a) carbon is easily available
(b) valency of carbon is more
(c) of covalent bond and ionic bonds
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
14. The language specially used for Database Management is—
(a) Visual-basic
(b) Standard Query Language
(c) Fortran
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
15. The principle of dynamo is—
(a) electromagnetic induction
(b) magnetic effect of current
(c) heating effect of current
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
16. Mohr Scale is used to measure—
(a) hardness of minerals
(b) hardness of water
(c) viscosity of gases
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
17. In ‘Skandpuran’ Garhwal is known by the name of—
(a) Kedarkhand
(b) Kurmachàl
(c) Jallandhar
(d) Gadhdesh
Ans. (a)
18. Who is the director of film 36 Chaurangi Lane’?
(a) Satyajeet Ray
(b) Shyam Benegal
(c) Prakash Jha
(d) Aparna Sen
Ans. (d)
19. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Tharu — Bihar
(b) Semang — Yeman
(c) Mesai — Mountain of East Africa
(d) Badu — Malaya
Ans. (a)
20. Author of ‘Post Office’ is—
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Mulkraj Anand
(c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(d) Vishnu Sharma
Ans. (b)
21. Which of the following metals is the worst conductor of electricity?
(a) Aluminum
(b) Copper
(c) Iron
(d) Carbon
Ans. (d)
22. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Sale Tax — State Government
(b Income Tax — State Government
(c) Excise Duty — Central Government
(d) Chungi — Municipal Corporation
Ans. (b)
23. Finance Commission is formulated by—
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Finance Ministry
(d) Planning Commission
Ans. (b)
24. Which of the following affects the Indian Administration?
(a) Unionism
(b) Parliamentary Democracy
(c) Planning
(d) All of these
Ans. (d)
25. World Health Day is celebrated on the date of—
(a) 7th April
(b) 15th March
(c) 9th April
(d) 10th April.
Ans. (a)
26. Which one of the following poets belongs to royal family?
(a) Kamban
(b) Bharati
(c) Ilangoadigal
(d) Chengundanar
Ans. (c)
27. Atomic Number is equal to the number of—
(a) electron
(b) proton
(c) neutron
(d) either electron or proton
Ans. (d)
28. Phosphorus can be preserved in -
(a) kerosene
(b) water
(c) petrol
(d) ether
Ans. (b)
29. Which of the following substances is obtained during the fractional distillation of petroleum at 260-350°C?
(a) Kerosene
(b) Petrol
(c) Naphtha
(d) Diesel
Ans. (d)
30. Which of the following does not contain chlorophyll?
(a) Fern
(b) Mosses
(c) Fungi
(d) Algae
Ans. (c)
31. Major difference between animal and plant cells is—
(a) cell membrane
(b) chloroplast
(c) nucleus
(d) cell wall
Ans. (d)
32 Fall of Bastille is related to
(a) Hundred Year War
(b) Napoleon War
(c) French Revolution
(d) England War
Ans. (c)
33. Rockfort passes between—
(a) Chennai and Trichinopoly
(b) Madurai and Tirunelveli
(c) Chennai and Bangalore
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
34. CERCL is located in—
(a) Chennai
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Bangalore
(d) Karaikudi
Ans. (d)
35. Birth place of Bharathiyar is—
(a) Ettayapuram
(b) Thiruchengode
(c) Madurai
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
36. Shiva Temple in Tanjore was built by—
(a) Pallava
(b) Chola
(c) Chalukyas
(d) Rashtrakuta
Ans. (b)
37. Numismatics is related to the study of—
(a) coins
(b) inscriptions
(c) epigraph
(d) sherds
Ans. (a)
38. Tamil version of Ramayana was written by—
(a) Kamban
(b) Valmiki
(c) Thiruvalluvar
(d) Ilango
Ans. (a)
39. Kautilya’s Arthashastra deals with—
(a) economy and politics
(b) inter-State relations
(c) ethics
(d) statecraft
Ans. (a)
40. Sarnath was an important place in the life of the Buddha where he—
(a) was born.
(b) gave his first sermon
(c) attained enlightenment
(d) died
Ans. (b)
41. Who was the political guru of Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(b) Ba1 Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Swami Vivekanand
(d) Rabindra Nath Tagore
Ans. (a)
42. Mirage is based on the principle of—
(a) double refraction
(b) total reflection
(c) scattering
(d) refraction
Ans. (b)
43. Set Top Box is related to—
(a) CAP
(b) CAS
(c) Cable Networking
(d) Internet
Ans. (b)
44. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right?
(a) Right to Exploitation
(b) Equal Pay for Equal Work
(c) Right o Freedom
(d) Equality before Law
Ans. (b)
45. Chennai Head Post Office is the name of—
(a) St. George Fort
(b) Rippon Building.
(c) Kuralagam
(d) Rajaji Hall
Ans. (b)
46. What is the share of India in global trade?
(a) 1.7%
(b) 1.4%
(c) 0.8%
(d) 10%
Ans. (c)
47. Transformer is used to-
(a) convert AC into DC
(b) convert DC into AC
(c) step up or step down D.C.
(d) step up or step down A.C.
Ans. (d)
48. The function of hemoglobin is
(a) transport oxygen
(b) release oxygen
(c) transport CO2
(d) release CO2
Ans. (a)
49. Which words were added to the Preamble to the Constitution of India by 42nd Amendment?
(a) Democratic and Socialist
(b) Secular and Sovereign
(c) Socialist and Secular
(d Democratic and Republic
Ans. (c)
50. Forty-Fourth Amendment to the Constitution of India is related to—
(a) Fundamental Rights are superior to the Directive Principles of State Policy.
(b) Right to Property ceased to be a Fundamental Right.
(c) Directive Principles were made at par with the Fundamental Rights.
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)

North Western Railway Recruitment 2011 under Sports Quota:

North western railway has announced the advertisement for the recruitment of sports persons against sports quota. Candidates who qualify matriculation / ITI / graduation & who participated in national / international level sports competition are eligible for various vacancies. The following are the details of age limit, educational qualifications, no of vacancies & other information regarding north western Railway Recruitment are mentioned below
North western Railway Recruitment sports person’s vacancies details:-
Total no of vacancies: 16
Name of the post
1. Athletics : 6
2. Basket ball : 3
3. Boxing : 2
4. Cycling: 2
5. wrestling: 2
6. tennis: 1
Age limit: Candidates should have an age between 18 to 25years as on 01-01-2012
Educational qualifications: Candidates who completed matriculation / ITI / from recognized university
Selection procedure: Candidates are selected on the basis of trial & medical fitness test & interview
How to apply: Eligible candidates have to fill the application form in A4 size paper. Send filled application form along with 2 passport size photos & relevant documents by ordinary post on or before 31-10-2011 to the following address “Assistant personnel officer (recruitment & training), Railway recruitment cell, North western railway, Durgapura Railway station, Jaipur – 302018”
Last date of receipt of application: 31-10-2011 up to 17:00 hrs (for remote areas: 15-11-2011)
for more details regarding age limit, educational qualifications, pay scale, how to apply, selection procedure, no of posts, application fee & other details of North Western Railway Recruitment is available at below link
Click Here For North western Railway Sport Persons Vacancies Advt & Application Form

Northern Railway Scout and Guide Quota Recruitment 2011

Recruitment against Scouts and Guides Quota For Group “C” Posts For The Year 2011 – 2012.
Closing Date and Time for receipt of Northern Railway Jobs Applications : 14th October, 2011 upto 17.00 hrs.
Closing Date & Time of Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura, Sikkim, Jammu & Kashmir, Lahaul & Spiti Districts and Pangi sub-division of Chamba district of Himachal Predesh, Andaman & Nicobar and Lakshadweep Island and candidates residing abroad 31st October, 2011.
Northern Railway Recruitment applications are invited from Indian nationals who are active members of Bharat Scouts & Guides for filling up three posts of Non Tech Popular Category ( posts will be decided later on ) in Pay Band 5200 – 20200 with Grade Pay 1900/- against Scouts & Guides quota in Northern Railway for the year 2011 – 12.
The application for Northern Railway 2011 Vacancies in prescribed format should be sent ( by ordinary post only ) to the following address or dropped in Drop Box available in the office ( during office hours ) before the last date as mentioned above. Courier Post / Registered Post / Speed Post will not be accepted.

Assistant Personnel Officer,
RRC, Room no 334,
Northern Railway Headquarter Office,
Baroda House, K.G.Marg,
New Delhi – 110 001.
Minimum Educational Qualification for Northern Railway Vacancies 2011 :
Matriculation or its equivalent with 50% marks in aggregate. For the candidates having higher qualification than 10th class, 50% marks in 10th class is not necessary.
Scouting and Guiding Qualification for Northern Railway 2011 Recruitment :

1. President’s Scout / Guide / Rover / Ranger OR Himalayan Wood Badge Holder OR A Pre – HWB trained Scout Leader / Advanced Trained Guide / Leader / Captain, and
2. Should have been active member of a Scout Organization for at least 3 years in the recent past and should continue to be active, and
3. Should have at least one event at National level and one or two events at State-level or ‘should have a good record of participation in Scouts / Guides activities at Unit / District level.

At least 3 years in the recent past i.e. during 2008 – 2009, 2009 – 10, 2010 – 11 and should continue to be active i.e. during 2011 – 2012 and there after.
* Each candidate will produce Certificates issued by Group Leader concern / District Authority as the case may be duly countersigned by respective District Commissioner of at least one event in each of the preceding three years from the date of publication of Notification.
Age limit for Northern Railway Scouts and Guides Quota Recruitment 2011 : (  Age as on 01.07.2011  ).

Post	Category	UR	OBC	SC / ST
Group 'C'	Age	18 to 30 years	18 to 33 years	18 to 35 years

Age Relaxation for Northern Railway Jobs 2011 :
1. Serving Railway Employees who have put in three years of continuous service and substitutes who have put in three years of continuous service or three years in broken spells in the Railways. Maximum Age UR – 40yrs., OBC – 43yrs, SC / ST – 45 yrs.
2. Widows / Divorced women and women judicially separated but not re – married. Maximum age UR – 35 yrs., OBC – 38 yrs., SC / ST – 40 yrs.
3. Person who ordinarily domicile in the Kashmir Division of the State of Jammu & Kashmir during the period from 1st January 1980 to 31st December 1989 : 5 years.
4. Staff of Quasi Administrative Officers of Railway Organization – by 5 years or service rendered by them in such organization. Whichever is less.
5. Ex-Serviceman Relaxation of age will be to the extent of service rendered by them in Defence Service plus 3 yrs. Provided they have put in a minimum of 6 months service after attestation and upto the age of 40 years for reservists not employed in the Governmental Service.
6. Persons with Disability : Maximum age UR – 40 years, OBC – 43 years, SC / ST – 45 years.
7. Age relaxation to OBC / SC / ST candidates is subject to final clarification to be received from Railway Board.
Conditions for Northern Railway Group C Recruitment 2011 :
1. Selection of candidates will be subjected to Medical Examination in the prescribed medical standard by Railway Medical Authority prior to their appointment.
2. Candidates will have to undergo prescribed training if applicable for the post.
3. The age will be reckoned as on 01.07.2011.
4. All the copies of Certificates in regards to age, educational qualifications, other qualifications, caste certificate and other certificates duly attested by a Gazetted Officer are to be enclosed alongwith the Northern Railway Vacancy application form 2011.
5. One additional passport size photographs with the name written at the back should be clipped along with the Northern Railway recruitment application form.
6. Application for Northern Railway Scout and Guide Quota Recruitment 2011 not properly filled in, incomplete or with overwriting or not supported by the attested copies of relevant certificates will be liable to be rejected.
7. Northern Railway 2011 Job Application received by post after the last date will not be entertained. Railway Administration, Northern Railway will not be responsible for any postal delay / wrong delivery whatsoever at any stage of the Northern Railway recruitment process.
8. The candidates admission at all stages of the Northern Railway Scout and Guide Quota Recruitment 2011 will be purely provisional.
Northern Railway Group C Recruitment Procedure for Scouts & Guides quota :
Candidates will be assessed on the following basis.
1. Northern Railway Vacancy Written Examination 2011 : Candidates will have to appear for a Northern Railway written test which will consist of 50 objective type questions related to Scouts & Guides Organization and its activities as per syllabus outlined in Dates for Northern Railway written examination will be separately notified. ( 50 marks ).
2. Scouts and Guides Qualification over and above minimum prescribed as Eligibility Condition ( 35 marks ).
3. Participation in International events ( 7 marks ) – ( One event – 5 marks, two or more event – 7 marks ).
4. Participation in National events ( 7 marks ) – ( No marks of the first event. The same being the minimum eligibility Condition; One event – 5 marks, two or more events – 7 marks ).
5. Participation in Jamboree on the Indian Railway ( 7 marks ), ( One event – 5 marks, two or more events – 7 marks ).
6. Events / Rallies attended at State level ( 7 marks ), ( One event – 5 marks, two or more events – 7 marks ).
7. Specialized Scout / Guide Course ( 7 marks ) Pioneering / Mapping and Standard Judging Course / Vocational Craft Course ( One event – 5 marks, two or more events – 7 marks ).
8. Personality test / Interview ( 15 marks )
Total = 100 marks.
Northern Railway Examination Fees :
1. Examination fee of 40/- ( Rupees forty only ) is payable either in form of Demand Draft ( DD ) / Indian Postal Order ( IPO ) drawn in favour of the following address :
Assistant Personnel Officer,
RRC, Northern Railway Headquarter Office,
Baroda House,
K.G. Marg,
New Delhi – 110 001.
Examination Fee is not refundable / transferable / adjustable under any circumstances. DDs / IPOs issued before the date of publication of this Employment Notice or after the closing date will not be accepted and the Northern Railway Scout and Guide Quota Application Form will be rejected. Cash / Cheque / Money order / Central Recruitment Fee Stamps will not be accepted.
2. Candidate must write their name, full address at the space provided in the IPO / at the back of DD.
3. Fee – exemption for Northern Railway 2011 Jobs : SC / ST candidates, Ex-Servicemen, Persons with Disabilities, Women Candidates, Minority* candidates, Candidate belonging to economically Backward Classes** are exempted for payment of examination fees.
Note :
* Minority will mean Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists and Zoroastrians ( Parsis ).
** Economically Backward Classes will mean the candidates whose family income is less than 50,000/- per annum.
4. Authorities competent to issue income certificate for the purpose of identifying economically backward classes.

1. District Magistrate or any other Revenue Officer up to the level of the Tahsildar.
2. Sitting Member of Parliament of Lok Sabha for persons of their own constituency.
3. Below Poverty Line ( BPL ) Card or any other certificate issued by Central Government under a recognized poverty alleviation programme of izzat MST issued by Railways.
4. Union Minister may recommend any person from any where in the Country.
5. Sitting Member of Parliament of Rajya Sabha for persons of the district in which these MPs Normally reside.

Note : Candidates claiming ‘Fee exemptions’ Shall enclose a copy of the certificate in the prescribed format, ( available on the website www.nr.indianrailways.gov.in of Northern Railway ).
Community Certificate :

1. No posts is reserved for OBC and SC / ST Candidates.
2. Candidates belonging to OBC and SC / ST communities are require to produce community certificates from the competent Authority in the prescribed format and enclose the copy of the same with the Northern Railway 2011 recruitment application.
3. The Caste Certificates produced by the OBC candidates should specially indicate that the candidate does not belong to person / sections  ( Creamy layer ).

Choice of Language for Northern Railway Exam question paper : Candidate may choose the medium of written examination in Hindi or English.
General Instructions for Northern Railway Recruitment 2011 Group C :
1. The decision of the Railway Administration in all matters relating to eligibility, acceptance or rejection of applications etc. will be final and binding on the candidates and no enquiry or correspondence will be entertained in this connection. The Administration does not undertake any responsibility for sending the reply to the candidates not selected or not called for in Written Examination / Northern Railway Interview. No refund of Examination Fee will be made.
2. The Northern Railway group c job application is liable to be rejected if any of the compulsory enclosure is not attached as indicated in the proforma or the application for Northern Railway 2011 Jobs is found defective in any respect.
3. As per extant rules a II^nd Class journey Pass from Home Station to the place of Northern Railway Examination and back will be issued to SC / ST candidates for appearing in Northern Railway written test.
4. No column should be left blank, which also may be the cause of rejection of the Northern Railway Jobs application form 2011. Column / Columns if not related than write ‘N .A’ in that / those Column / Columns.
5. The envelope containing the Northern Railway jobs 2011 application must be super scribed ” Application for Recruitment against Scout – Guide Quota for 2011 – 2012 ” for the Category of the post of Grade Pay 1900/- in PB – 1 of Group “C”.
6. Northern Railway reserve the right to post any candidate anywhere over its jurisdiction.
7. Candidate applying in response to this Northern Railway Recruitment notification shall ensure that he / she fulfill all eligibility conditions at the time of submission of Northern Railway Jobs application.
8. Resent Passport size photographs ( Taken within one month ), it should not be accompanied with colored glass and cap on the on the head and it may be the cause of rejection of the application.
9. Photographs not pasted on the Northern Railway Scout and Guide Quota Application Form, not signed by the candidate may be cause of rejection of the application.
10. Without date & Thumb impression, Undersigned and Signed in Block or Capital letters may be the cause of rejection of the Northern Railway recruitment application 2011.
11. Certificates other than English / Hindi languages should be accompanied by an attested translation in English / Hindi.
12. Candidates seeking age relaxation or Fee Exemption must produce the Caste Certificate certificate of Death of husband. Affidavit that she has not remarried since, copy of Decree of Divorce from the competent Court of Law, Discharge Certificate, No Objection Certificate and Bonafide Certificate from the employer, where applicable.
13. The persons appointed against Scout and Guide quota to the categories of Clerks will be required to possess proficiency in Typing within a period of two years from the date of appointment, and their appointment will be provisional subject to acquisition of the prescribed typing qualification within the stipulated period.
I. Proposed Syllabus for Northern Railway Selection under Scouts & Guides Quota Posts :
History of Scouting – Guiding – Law & Promise – Organization- District & State Level – Training Centre – District & State level – Knowledge of Books – Scouting for Boys – Guiding for Girls in India – Motto, left hand shake – Salute – Prayer – Flag Song – National Anthem – Know the National & Scouting Flags – Social Service at various occasions – Hiking – Proficiency Badges – How these are earned – Stages in Scouting – Guiding ; Thinking Day – Progressive Training of Scouts – Guides – Rovers – Ranger – Pioneering – Handicrafts – Indian Railway Jamborette – National Jamboree – Jamboree on the Air – Organization at National level – National Training Centers – WAGGGS – WOSM – Upa- Rashtrapati Award Competition – Prime Minister’s Shield competition – Community Development Programmes – Aims and Methods of Scouting – How Scouting Is useful in producing better citizens APO – RRC.

Northern Railway Recruitment 2011 for Sports Quota

Northern Railway recruitment notification for October 2011. Written test and Interview will be conducted as a part of the selection process. NR Northern Railway RRB recruits staff almost every year, current vacancies are for Sports Quota posts. All elidigible candidates need to apply for this post before 28/10/2011.

All details about the diffrent posts and how to apply for them are given below.
Northern Railway Recruitment 2011
Name of the post
1. Athletics (men) : 8
2. Volley ball (men): 2
3. Hockey (women): 2
Age limit: Candidates must have an age between 18 to 25years as on 01-01-2012
Educational qualifications: Candidates who passed matriculation / ITI /  graduation from recognized university
Selection procedure: Candidates are selected on the basis of trial & medical fitness test
How to apply: Eligible candidates have to fill the application form in A4 size paper. Send filled application form along with 2passport size photos & relevant documents by ordinary post on or before 28-10-2011 to the following address “Assistant sports officer – I, Northern railway sports association, and room no. 7(g), annexure – II, accounts building baroda office, New delhi-110001”
Last date of receipt of application: 28-10-2011 up to 17:00 hrs
for more details regarding age limit, educational qualifications, pay scale, how to apply, selection procedure, no of posts, application fee & other details of Northern Railway Recruitment is available at below link
Click Here For Northern Railway Sports Quota Advt Details

RRB PREVIUOS EXAMS GENERAL AWARENESS QUESTIONS

1. The Supreme Court of India enjoys—
(A) Original jurisdictions
(B) Advisory jurisdictions
(C) Appellate and advisory jurisdictions
(D) Original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions

2. Who attended the Congress of Oppressed Nationalists at Brussels in 1927, on behalf of the National Congress ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Dr. Ansari
(D) Motilal Nehru

3. Who amongst the following made it possible for the Indians to enter the Indian Civil Service through an open competitive examination ?
(A) William Bentinck
(B) Dalhousie
(C) Mayo
(D) Ripon

4. In which year Lala Lajpat Rai was deported to Mandalay for organising the agrarian movement in Punjab ?
(A) 1905
(B) 1907
(C) 1909
(D) 1911

5. Which Governor General had entertained Ranjit Singh with great honour at Ropar ?
(A) Minto I
(B) William Bentinck
(C) Hastings
(D) Auckland

6. The Khajli Sultans of Delhi were—
(A) Mongols
(B) Afghans
(C) Turks
(D) A Jat tribe

7. The ‘Arya Samaj’ was founded by—
(A) Swami Dayananda Saraswati
(B) Swami Vivekananda
(C) Keshav Chandra Sen
(D) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

8. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad started an Urdu Weekly, The Al-Hilal in 1912, but, on its being banned by the Government, he founded the Al-Balagh in—
(A) 1913
(B) 1914
(C) 1915
(D) 1916

9. High Courts were established in Calcutta, Bombay and Madras in—
(A) 1935
(B) 1919
(C) 1892
(D) 1862

10. Who was the first Woman President of Indian National Congress ?
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Sucheta Kripalani
(C) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
(D) Annie Besant

11. Arabs were defeated in 738 A. D. by—
(A) Pratiharas
(B) Rashtrakutas
(C) Palas
(D) Chalukyas

12. Which of the following reform movements was the first to be started in the 19th century ?
(A) Prarthana Samaj
(B) Brahmo Samaj
(C) Arya Samaj
(D) Rama Krishna Mission

13. The rulers of Vijayanagar promoted—
(A) Hindi, Marathi and Sanskrit
(B) Malayalam, Tamil and Sanskrit
(C) Tamil, Telugu and Sanskrit
(D) Telugu, Urdu and Sanskrit

14. In India, the irrigation of agricultural land is carried out maximum by—
(A) Canals
(B) Wells
(C) Tubewells
(D) Tanks

15. The four largest planets of the Solar System in decreasing sizes are—
(A) Jupiter, Mercury, Saturn and Uranus
(B) Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn and Neptune
(C) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune
(D) Jupiter, Mercury, Saturn and Neptune

16. Which of the following produces maximum crude petroleum in India at present ?
(A) Assam
(B) Gujarat
(C) Off-shore Bombay High
(D) Coastal Tamil Nadu

17. India is one of the largest producers of manganese are in the world along with—
(A) China and Russia
(B) Brazil and Russia
(C) Australia and U.S.A.
(D) South Africa and U.S.A.

18. The ‘Chipko Movement’ is related to—
(A) Wildlife preservation
(B) Forest conservation
(C) Scientific agriculture
(D) Deforestation

19. Which of the following rivers makes an estuary ?
(A) Cauvery
(B) Krishna
(C) Narmada
(D) Ganga

20. Baltora glacier is located in—
(A) Karakoram ranges
(B) Pamir plateau
(C) Shivalik
(D) Alps

21. The largest producer of world’s mica is—
(A) U.S.A.
(B) U.K.
(C) Canada
(D) India

22. The International Date Line is the—
(A) 180° Longitude
(B) 88½° East Longitude
(C) Equator
(D) 0° Longitude

23. Which of the following countries has highest percentage of land under cultivation ?
(A) China
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Canada
(D) India

24. Aryabhata was launched from—
(A) Sriharikota
(B) Mahe
(C) Chandipur
(D) Daman

25. How for does the Exclusive Economic Zone of a country extend from her coast ?
(A) 120 km
(B) 220 km
(C) 320 km
(D) 420 km

26. In which of the following groups, animals bear no teeth ?
(A) Peacock, Ostrich, Tortoise
(B) Owl, Loris, Crow
(C) Alligator, Turtle, Tortoise
(D) Turtle, Kiwi, Cow

27. Jaundice is a symptom of disease of—
(A) Kidney
(B) Liver
(C) Pancreas
(D) Thyroid

28. The vaccination against small pox involves the introduction of—
(A) Killed germs
(B) Weakened germs
(C) Live antibodies
(D) Activated germs

29. Deficiency of Vitamin B6 in man causes—
(A) Rickets
(B) Scurvy
(C) Beri-beri
(D) Anaemia

30. Which is the national flower of India ?
(A) Rose
(B) Lotus
(C) Lily
(D) Sunflower

31. First successful heart transplantation was done by—
(A) D. S. Paintal
(B) C. N. Barnard
(C) D. Shetty
(D) P. K. Sen

32. Yellow Fever is transmitted by—
(A) Aedes
(B) Anopheles
(C) House-fly
(D) Culex

33. Which one of the following is a major green house gas ?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Chloro fluorocarbon
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Freon

34. In atmosphere the lowermost layer is—
(A) Troposphere
(B) Exosphere
(C) Ionosphere
(D) Strato sphere

35. Washing of peeled vegetables removes the vitamin—
(A) A
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E

36. Pasteurisation is the process in which milk is heated to—
(A) 60° C for 10 minutes
(B) 63° C for 20 minutes
(C) 63° C for 30 minutes
(D) 72° C for 10 minutes

37. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer from the code given below :
List-I (Discoverer)
(A) Jenner
(B) Watson
(C) Landsteiner
(D) Flemming
List-II (Discoveries)
1. Blood grouping
2. Penicillin
3. Vaccination
4. Double helix
Codes :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 2 4 1

38. Which of the following is most elastic ?
(A) Rubber
(B) Wet clay
(C) Steel
(D) Plastic

39. The first ever robot spacecraft to probe planet Venus was named—
(A) Galileo
(B) Magellan
(C) Newton
(D) Challenger

40. A man with colour blindness will see red as—
(A) Yellow
(B) Blue
(C) Green
(D) Violet

41. Comets revolve around the—
(A) Earth
(B) Venus
(C) Sun
(D) Jupiter

42. When a person walking in bright Sunlight enters a dark room, he is not able to see clearly for a little while because—
(A) The eye muscles cannot immediately adjust the focal length of the eye lens
(B) The retina retains the bright images for sometime and becomes momentarily insensitive
(C) The iris is, unable to contract the pupil immediately
(D) The iris is unable to dilate the pupil immediately

43. The swing of a spinning cricket ball in air can be explained on the basis of—
(A) Sudden change in wind direction
(B) Buoyancy of air
(C) Turbulance caused by wind
(D) Bernoulli’s theorem

44. The freezer in a refrigerator is fitted near the top—
(A) To keep it away from hot compressor which is nearer to the bottom
(B) Because of convenience
(C) It facilitates convection currents
(D) To minimise power consumption

45. The chemical name of ‘Common salt’ is—
(A) Sodium chloride
(B) Sodium nitrate
(C) Ammonium chloride
(D) Calcium chloride

46. Denatured spirit is ethanol mixed with—
(A) Petrol
(B) Kerosene
(C) Water
(D) Pyridine

47. The metal, which is a constituent of vitamin B12 is—
(A) Iron
(B) Magnesium
(C) Zinc
(D) Cobalt

48. The most abundant inert gas in the atmosphere is—
(A) Helium
(B) Neon
(C) Argon
(D) Krypton

49. Which metal is extracted from sea water ?
(A) Potassium
(B) Magnesium
(C) Aluminium
(D) Beryllium

50. Precentage of lead in lead pencils is—
(A) 0
(B) 31 – 66
(C) 40
(D) 80

ANSWERS:

1. (D) 2. (A)
3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (A)
8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (D) 11. (A) 12. (B)
13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (C) 16. (A) 17. (A)
18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (A) 21. (D) 22. (A)
23. (D) In India cultivated land is nearly 55% while in USA it is only 44%.
24. First Indian satellite Aryabhata was launched on April 19, 1975 by the Soviet rocket, Cosmodrome (Soviet Union).
25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (B)28. (C) 29. (D)
30. (B) 31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (A) 34. (A)
35. (B) 36. (C) 37. (C)38. (C) 39. (B)
40. (C) 41. (C) 42. (B)43. (D)44. (C)
45. (A) 46. (C) 47. (D) 48. (C)49. (B)
50. (A)

RRB PREVIOUS PAPERS GENERAL AWARENESS QUESTIONS

1. RTI stands for ———————
(a) Right to interest
(b) Right to information
(c) Right to interrogate
(d) None
2. Sheela Dixit is a CM of ———–
(a) Delhi
(b) HP
(c) TN
(d) None
3. Who is Prime Ministerial candidate of BJP?
(a) Rajnath
(b) Arun Jaitley
(c) L.K. Advani
(d) None
4. Prof. Prem Kumar Dhumal is a CM of HP belongs to which party ?
(a) RJD
(b) BJP
(c) Congress
(d) None
5. Who is Leader of Bhartia Janshakti Party?
(a) Uma Bharti
(b) Sonia Gandhi
(c) L.K. Advani
(d) None
6. BKU stands for ————————
(a) Bhartia Kisan Union
(b) Bharat King Union
(c) British king Union
(d) None
7. MNS is a regional party belongs to —————
(a) Maharashtra
(b) TN
(c) AP
(d) None
8. IES stands for ———-
(a) Indian Economic Service
(b) Indian Engine Service
(c) Indian Eastern Service
(d) None
9. Headquarter of TCYonline.com is in ——————
(a) Amritsar
(b) Ludhiana
(c) Jalandhar
(d) None
10. UPA alliance is led by ————–
(a) BJP
(b) Congress
(c) CPI
(d) None
11. NDA alliance is led by —————-
(a) BJP
(b) Congress
(c) SAD
(d) None
12. UPA stands for ————-
(a) United Pure Alliance
(b) United Progressive Alliance
(c) Union Pure Action
(d) None
13. ‘The money you can bank upon’ is a business slogan of —————–
(a) PNB
(b) ICICI
(c) HDFC
(d) None
14. NDA stands for ———–
(a) National Democratic Alliance
(b) National Degree Alter
(c) National Decorator Advice
(d) None
15. PRP is party of which actor?
(a) SRK
(b) Chiranjivi
(c) Amir Khan
(d) Salman Khan
16. PRP stands for ————–
(a) Praja Rajyam Party
(b) Priya Rajyam Party
(c) a & b
(d) None
17. Which of the following is a university?
(a) STD
(b) HPL
(c) LPU
(d) None
18. LPU stands for ————-
(a) Lovely Professional University
(b) Lonely Professional University
(c) Laser Plate Unit
(d) None
19. Mulayam Singh Yadav is a Supremo of —————
(a) BJP
(b) SP
(c) Congress
(d) None
20. Who is TDP founder?
(a) N.T. Ramarao
(b) Chadere Babu Naidu
(c) Chianjivi
(d) None
21. KP Singh is a famous personality related to ————
(a) DLF
(b) HCL
(c) ICICI
(d) None
22. Who is AICCC chief ?
(a) Rahul Gandhi
(b) Sonia Gandhi
(c) Prianka Gandhi
(d) None
23. SGPC related to which community —————- ?
(a) Hindu
(b) Sikh
(c) Muslim
(d) None
24. SGPC stands for ————-
(a) Shiromani Gurudwara Prabhandhak Committee
(b) Sardar Gurudwara Prahar Committee
(c) a & b
(d) None
25. President of SGPC is ————-
(a) Arjun Singh
(b) Amrinder Singh
(c) Avtar Singh
(d) None
26. Who is the first Indian to win the Junior Australian Open Title?
(a) Mahesh Bhupati (b) Leander Peas
(c) Yuki Bhambri (d) None
27. Root Canal Treatment Connected with ———–.
(a) Heart (b) Teeth
(c) Brain (d) None
28. which of the following is old term of kilocycle?
(a) Kilowatt (b) Kilohertz
(c) Kilogram (d) Kilometer
29. Which are ordinal numbers?
(a) 2, 5, 8 (b) 1, 3, 5
(c) 9, 5, 8 (d) 9,5, 8
30. Which housing company is supposed to largest housing Finance company in India?
(a) HDFC (b) ICICI
(c) LIC (d) GIC
31. Zoography describes———–.
(a) Animal (b) Man
(c) Woman (d) Bird
32. ———–was the first person to be portrayed on postage stamp.
(a) Queen-II (b) Queen Victoria
(c) Mozaic (d) None
33. Which group is largest tractor manufacture in India?
(a) Ford (b) Mahindra
(c) Escort (d) Zeeter
34. ABN Amro is———-Company?
(a) Dutch (b) India
(c) Pakistan (d) Negro
35. ABN Amro associated with ———.
(a) Industrial Sector (b) Banking Sector
(c) a & b (d) None
36. In Japan war time sexslave are known as—————.
(a) Ordinary woman (b) Comfort woman
(c) old woman (d) None
37. Which is largest Meteor Crater in the World?
(a) Somia Crater (b) Barringer Crater
(c) Nome Crater (d) None
38. Which of the following singer is associated with film Slum dog Millionaire?
(a) Sukhvinder (b) Himesh Reshmia
(c) Sonu Nigam (d) Alka Yagnik
39. What is per Kg cost fixed by ISRO in order to access to space?
(a) 10 Lakh (b) 9 Lakh
(c) 12 Lakh (d) 15 Lakh
40. The term ‘Black hole’ is coined by Scientist of which Country?
(a) India (b) America
(c) Russia (d) Japan
41. Which Scientist is behind the ‘Black Hole’?
(a) Johnny Walker (b) Newton
(c) Johan Wheeler (d) None
42. Which of the following Satellite is dedicated to education?
(a) InSAT (b) Geoset
(c) EduSAT (d) None
43. Which of the following is highest Mountain in USA?
(a) McKinley (b) McDonald
(c) a & b (d) None
44. ‘Billy Budd’ is directed by———-.
(a) Peter Thomas (b) Peter Ustinov
(c) Peter Cole (d) None
45. How many % of Muslim are there in Pakistan?
(a) 92% (b) 97%
(c) 98 (d) 99%
46. The Ionosphere is discovered by—————.
(a) Sir Edward Charles (b) Sir Richard
(c) Sir Edward Appleton (d) None
47. What is common thing is Sushmita Sen & Lara Dutta?
(a) Both are Miss World (b) Both win Miss Universe Title
(c) Both win Miss India Title (d) None
48. Which Country’s P.M. have salary five times the salary of United States President?
(a) India (b) Singapore
(c) Japan (d) Sri Lanka
49. Which of the following Union Minister have PhD in Math?
(a) R. P. Singh (b) D.P. Singh
(c) R. S. Khanna (d) S. K Atwal
50. How many officers are their in Indian Army?
(a) 38000 (b) 34000
(c) 32000 (d) 30000
51. Which was the first university to start Environmental Education?
(a) Vishwa Bharti (b) S.N. Banerjee (c) Mother Teressa (d) Fahien
52. What was the old name of Sri Lanka?
(a) Burma (b) Siam (c) Ceylon (d) Batavia
53. Who was the first Bharat Ratna Award winner?
(a) C. Rajagopalachari (b) R.N. Tagore (c) C.V. Raman (d) Dadabhai Naroji
54. Which is the Major Export of India?
(a) Rice (b) Wheat (c) Tea (d) None of these
55. Which is the language of Kerala?
(a) Malayalam (b) English (c) Hindu (d) Telgu
56. In which year Guru Nanak Dev University established?
(a) 1969 (b) 1995 (c) 1990 (d) 1965
57. Which is the language of Manipur?
(a) Manipuri (b) Hindi (c) Oriya (d) Marathi
58. 5th June is called a
(a) World Diabetes day (b) Sports day (c) World Food day (d) Environment Day
59. In which year Sukumar Sen become the first Chief Commissioner of India?
(a) 1960 (b) 1970 (c) 1950 (d) 1940
60. Which is Kolkata’s leading Newspaper
(a) Telegraph (b) Aaj (c) Times of India (d) None of these
61. Which was the first bank of India?
(a) S.B.I. (b) R.B.I. (c) Bank of Hindustan (d) SEBI
62. Which is the Capital of Assam?
(a) Patna (b) Dispur (c) Chennai (d) Dehradun
63. Which is National bird of India?
(a) Lion (b) Peacock (c) Sparrow (d) Hen
64. Which is the Currency of Congo?
(a) Dinar (b) Franc (c) Dollar (d) Lira
65. H.A. stands for?
(a) Haling Allowance (b) Haryana Academy (c) Hindustan Authority (d) None of these
66. In which year first Postal Service was started?
(a) 1830 (b) 1835 (c) 1837 (d) 1840
67. Which is the capital of Russia?
(a) Moscow (b) Doha (c) Hanoi (d) Rabat
68. C.I.A. stands for?
(a) Central Indian Academy (b) Central Intelligence Agency (c) Central Institute of Agriculture (d) None of these
69. Andhra Patrika Newspapers leading in which city?
(a) Bangalore (b) Vijayawada (c) Mumbai (d) Pune
70. What was the old name of Punjab?
(a) Sapta Sindhu (b) Punjabi (c) Aabs (d) None of these
71. In which year pin code was established?
(a) 1970 (b) 1972 (c) 1975 (d) 1980
72. In which year Guru Arjun Dev was born?
(a) 1581 (b) 1539 (c) 1564 (d) 1664
73. 27th September is called a
(a) World Tourism Day (b) World Health Day (c) Children Day (d) Air Force Day
74. In which year Postal Department was established?
(a) 1850 (b) 1830 (c) 1837 (d) 1854
75. Which is the language of Sikkim?
(a) Hindi (b) Nepali (c) (a) and (b) (d) None of these

ANSWERS:
 

1. (b) Right to information
2. (a) Delhi
3. (c) L.K. Advani
4. (b) BJP
5. (a) Uma Bharti
6. (a) Bhartia Kisan Union
7. (a) Maharashtra
8. (a) Indian Economic Service
9. (b) Ludhiana
10. (b) Congress
11. (a) BJP
12. (b) United Progressive Alliance
13. (a) PNB
14. (a) National Democratic Alliance
15. (b) Chiranjivi
16. (a) Praja Rajyam Party
17. (c) LPU
18. (a) Lovely Professional University
19. (b) SP
20. (a) N.T. Ramarao
21. (a) DLF
22. (b) Sonia Gandhi
23. (b) Sikh
24. (a) Shiromani Gurudwara Prabhandhak Committee
25. (c) Avtar Singh
26. (c) Yuki Bhambri
27. (b) Teeth
28. (b) Kilohertz
29. (b) 1, 3, 5
30. (a) HDFC
31. (a) Animal
32. (b) Queen Victoria
33. (b) Mahindra
34. (a) Dutch
35. (b) Banking Sector
36. (b) Comfort woman
37. (b) Barringer Crater
38. (a) Sukhvinder
39. (b) 9 Lakh
40. (b) America
41. (c) Johan Wheeler
42. (c) EduSAT
43. (a) McKinley
44. (b) Peter Ustinov
45. (b) 97%
46. (b) Sir Richard
47. (b) Both win Miss Universe Title
48. (a) India
49. (a) R. P. Singh
50. (b) 34000
51. a
52. c
53. a
54. c
55. a
56. a
57. a
58. d
59. c
60. a
61. c
62. b
63. b
64. b
65. a
66. c
67. a
68. b
69. b
70. a
71. b
72. a
73.a
74. d
75. c

RRB RECRUITMENT PROCESS FOR VARIOUS EXAMS

o  The selection is made strictly as per merit, on the basis of written  examination. In addition, Aptitude/Skill Test/Interview etc. may also be conducted wherever applicable. Short listed candidates will  be called for verification of the original documents according to  merit, availability of vacancies and reservation rules.

o  There shall be negative marking in written examination and marks  shall be deducted for each wrong answer @1/3 of the allotted  marks for each question.

o  The syllabus for the written examination will be generally in  conformity with the educational standards and/or technical  qualifications prescribed for the posts. The Questions will be of  objective type with multiple answers and likely to  include  questions pertaining to General Knowledge, General  English / General Hindi, General Arithmetic, Analytical and Quantitative Skills and those subjects covered as part of minimum educational/technical qualifications for the post.  The question  paper will be in English, Hindi and Urdu as well as in regional  languages prevails in the jurisdiction of each RRB. The duration of  the examination will be 1½ to 2 hours with approximately 100 to  150 questions.

o  The Railway Recruitment Board, at its discretion may hold  additional written test(s) and/or interview/skill test if considered  necessary for all or for a limited number of candidates as may be  deemed fit by Railway Recruitment Board.

o  The date, time and venue of the written examination and  Aptitude/Skill Test/ Interview will be fixed by the RRB and will be  intimated to the eligible candidates in due course. Request for  postponement of the examination/skill test/interview and  change  of center/venue will not be entertained under any circumstance.

o  Stages of examination are given against each post.  Based on the  performance of candidates in the examination, the candidates equal  to the number of vacancies will be called for document verification  in the main list. In addition 30% extra candidates are also called as  standby candidates and they are considered for empanelment only  if there is shortfall in empanelment from the main  list.  During  document verification, the candidates will have to  produce their original certificates.   No additional time will be given and the candidature of the candidates not producing their original  certificates on the date of verification is liable to be forfeited. 

o  The appointment of selected candidates is subject to his/her passing requisite Medical Fitness Test to be conducted by the  Railway Administration, final verification of educational and  community certificate and verification of antecedent/character of  the candidate.

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD – GUWAHATI Provisional Panel List

Provisional Panel of Cat 1,2,3,4,43,45 & 47 and Result of Written Exam of Cat 24 & 73 of CEN 5-2010 (SEs & JEs)

RRC NORTH EAST FRONTIER RAILWAY GROUP-D EXAM

RAILWAY RECRUITMENT CELL

NORTH EAST FRONTIER RAILWAY

Group ‘D’ Recruitment

Employment Notice No. 1/2008 (Group ‘D’) issued in March’ 2008

   
General Information

Roll Number & Venue Information for Candidates Qualified In The Physical Efficiency Tests 

Roll Number & Venue Information for Candidates  who Applied against Physically Handicapped Quota

SPECIAL INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES APPEARING IN STENOGRAPHY SKILL TEST

1.The candidate should reach the centre of the skill test well in time. Candidates reporting after the commencement of the dictation shall
not be admitted to the test hall.
2.The candidate will not be allowed to enter the test hall without producing the call letter in original. Preserve the call letter carefully as no photocopy or F.I.R. for loss of the same will be allowed as substitute. The call letter is not transferable.
3.  The skill test shall commence after formalities  like checking of attendance, collection of call letters etc.  are completed. Candidates willnot be permitted to leave the test hall until 15 minutes have elapsed after the commencement of transcription time or before the test is over and the Centre Supervisor/Invigilator has given direction to leave. This may take some time after the test is over.
4.  Use of books, papers etc. are not permitted. Use of mobile phones inside the test hall is strictly prohibited.
5.  Indulging  in any malpractice/unfair means in the test hall will disqualify the candidate and he/she will be debarred from all further RRB
examinations and appointment in Railways.
6. The RRB reserves the right to order re‐tests in the case of any candidate or all candidates.
7.Furnishing of any false information to the RRB or deliberate suppression of any material information will, at any stage of its detection will
render  the  candidate  liable  for  being  disqualified  and  debarred  from  appearing  at  any  selection  or examination  for  appointment  to Railways.
8.Before leaving the test hall, candidates must submit the transcription sheet (both the original and the duplicate) and the shorthand note
sheets to the Invigilator.
9. Change of date/reporting time/centre of the test will not be permitted under any circumstances.
10. SC/ST  candidates  are  entitled  to  free  rail  travel  and  should  produce  the  call  letter with  scanned  photograph  at  the  Railway  booking counter for issue of tickets. However, Railway passes will not be issued for collection of duplicate call letters.
11. Candidates must  sign on  the call  letter  (at  the appropriate  space)  in  the  test hall  in presence of  the  Invigilator only. His/her signature should be in same language and same style as in application form.
12. Candidates arranging  impersonation shall be disqualified and debarred  for  life  from all  future RRB examinations. Candidates arranging impersonator and/or  impersonators are  liable for prosecution under  law. Candidates causing disturbances  in the test premises shall be dealt with similarly.
13. Candidate has to affix his/her  left thumb  impression carefully  in  the space provided  in the attendance sheet without smudging on the provided space of the attendance sheet. Candidature of candidates with unclear/smudged left thumb impression will be rejected.
14.  Special instructions, if any, given by Invigilator(s) should be followed rigidly.
15.Name, community, roll numbers etc. are required to be filled up by the candidates compulsorily in foil attached to the Answer Sheets.
16.  Candidates  should bring good quality  typewriter machines with  them. RRB/Guwahati will not provide any  typewriter machine and will not be able to supply any machine if the machine brought by the candidate becomes defective. Electronic typewriter machines will not
be allowed.
17.The test passage will contain 800 words which will need to be typed at 80 w.p.m. Before dictation of test passage, the Dictator shall give
two trial dictations as a “warming up practice” to the candidates.
18. After dictation, candidates are required to do the transcription when signaled.
19.The time allowed for transcription passage would be 65 minutes for English passage and 75 minutes for Hindi passage.
20.The candidates should write their roll number, name and sign at the end of each sheet of transcript and shorthand note sheets.
21. The following will be considered as full mistakes:
  Every omission of a word or figure including omission of a definite or indefinite article
  Every substitution of a wrong word or figure
  Every  addition  of  a word  or  figure  or  a  group  of words/figures  including  addition  of  a  definite  article  not  occurring  in  the passage
  Handwritten additions/corrections/insertions
22. The following will be considered as half mistakes:
  Mis‐spelling, including transposition of letters in a word and also omission of a letter or letters from a word
  Using singular for plural noun and vice versa
  Transposition of words/group of words in a sentence
  Repeating a word/figure or a group of words or group of figures in the transcript
  Wrong use of capital letters at the beginning of the sentence
  Omission or placement of the apostrophe in a word in the possessive case, or in contracted words
  Insertion of a space in the middle of a word
  Lack of space between words
  Wrong syllabification of a word at the end of line
  Ambiguous overtyping
  Complete and ambiguous overlapping
  Omission or wrong placement of the caret sign
  Arbitrary and unfamiliar abbreviations
  More than one error in a single word
23.  Stenography skill test is of qualifying nature and candidates failing in the skill test will not be considered.
24.Please note that in other matters, the terms & conditions etc. laid down in the Employment Notice shall apply mutatis mutandis.

NOTE:  The call  letter for Stenography skill test is provisional and does not give any guarantee for employment.  If  it  is  found  later at any stage
that you do not fulfill any of the conditions of eligibility, your candidature will be cancelled and no appeal against such cancellation will
be entertained. You are therefore advised to check carefully and satisfy yourself that you fulfill all the conditions of eligibility.

NORTH CENTRAL RAILWAY ALLAHABAD GROUP-D WRITTEN EXAM

                                           NORTH CENTRAL RAILWAY
                                               Railway Recruitment Cell
                  Balmiki Chauraha, Nawab Yusuf Road, Civil Lines, Allahabad

                       DATE FOR WRITTEN EXAMINATION – GROUP ‘D’
                       REF: Employment Notice No. 01/2007 dated 22.12.2007

1. Railway Recruitment Cell, North Central Railway will conduct written examination on 16.10.2011 (Sunday) for recruitment of Group ‘D’ posts notified through Employment Notice No. 01/2007dt. 22.12.2007.

2. List of eligible candidates for Written Exam as well as for further updates logon to www.ncr.indianrailways.gov.in.

3. Written Exam:
a) Question Paper shall be based on 8th standard consisting of 150 multiple choice objective questions to assess the General Knowledge/awareness/ mathematics/reasoning etc.

b) Duration of Written Exam shall be 2 hours.

c) 1/3rd of the allotted marks will be deducted for every wrong answer/multiple answer i.e. one mark shall be deducted for three wrong answers.

d) Question Paper shall be printed in Hindi, English and Urdu.

4. CALL LETTERS indicating venue and timing etc. will be sent to the eligible candidates well in advance.

5. DUPLICATE/CORRECTED Call letters would be issued in the following circumstances.
a) If a candidate finds his application status as eligible after checking on the website, but does not receive Call letter by 11.10.2011
OR
b) If a candidate notices any discrepancy in Call Letter regarding Name, Father’s name, Caste, Photogarph or signature etc.

RRB GENERAL KNOWLEDGE PRACTICE MCQs

1. An emulsion is a colloid of a—
(A) Gas in a liquid
(B) Liquid in a liquid
(C) Liquid in a gas
(D) Gas in a solid
2. Percentage of carbon in steel ranges from—
(A) 0.1 to 1.5
(B) 1.5 to 3.0
(C) 3.0 to 4.0
(D) 4.0 to 6.0
3. Which of the following is not present in German-silver ?
(A) Copper
(B) Nickel
(C) Silver
(D) Zinc
4. According to the latest estimates, the literacy rate (% of population) in India is—
(A) 63%
(B) 65%
(C) 67%
(D) 68%
5. Who won the U.S. Open (Lawn Tennis) in September 2007 ?
(A) Novak Djokovic
(B) Roger Federer
(C) Rafael Nadal
(D) None of the above
6. Who propounded the theory of 'Economic Drain of India' during British imperialism ?
(A) W. C. Bannerji
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Gopalkrishna Gokhale
(D) Gandhiji
7. First Indian Commander-in-Chief was—
(A) Gen. K.S. Thimayya
(B) Gen. K. M. Kariappa
(C) S. H. F. J. Manekshaw
(D) None of the above
8. A computer virus is—
(A) A chemical that attacks silicon.
(B) A micro-organism that destroys integrated circuits
(C) Data that the computer fails to handle
(D) A special kind of computer programme
9. India has a coastline of—
(A) 5500 km
(B) 6500 km
(C) 7500 km
(D) 8400 km
10. Jawahar Tunnel, the largest in India is located in the State of—
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Karnataka
(D) Himachal Pradesh
11. The most literate union territory in India is—
(A) Delhi
(B) Lakshadweep
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Puducherry
12. Which of the following is the smallest Parliamentary Constituency in terms of area ?
(A) Chandni Chowk (Delhi)
(B) Sadar (Delhi)
(C) Kolkata North West
(D) Mumbai South
13. Who is the author of the book 'Two Lives' ?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) James Patterson
(C) Ved Mehta
(D) Khushwant Singh
14. Which of the following sets of countries are referred to as 'The Golden Crescent' the largest opium industry in the world ?
(A) Myanmar, Laos and Thailand
(B) Afghanistan, Iran and Iraq
(C) Afghanistan, Pakistan and Iran
(D) Myanmar, Malaysia and Thailand
15. Which is the anti-coagulant substance in blood ?
(A) Fibrinogen
(B) Heparin
(C) Thrombin
(D) Globin
16. Which group of the following countries participated in the 'Malabar 07,' a six days joint naval exercise (September 4-9) involving 25 warships, in the Bay of Bengal ?
(A) India, U. S., Japan, Australia and South Korea
(B) India, U.S., Australia, Singapore and South Korea
(C) India, U.S., Japan, Singapore and Australia
(D) India, U.S., Japan, Singapore and South Korea
17. Who coined the term 'Hindu rate of growth' for Indian economy ?
(A) A. K. Sen
(B) Kirit S. Parikh
(C) Raj Krishna
(D) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
18. Sri ARVIND KEJRIWAL has been selected for the RAMON MAGSAYSAY AWARD for 2006 for his important contribution in the field—
(A) Formation of Pani (water) Panchayats in Rajasthan helping rural people in facing their acute water problem
(B) Effective implementation of the 'National Minimum Employment Guarantee Scheme' in rural areas
(C) 'Right to Information' movement and empowering citizens to fight corruption
(D) Extending education to children of slum dwellers in Delhi
19. The three day VIII World Hindi Conference was held in July, 2007 at—
(A) New Delhi
(B) London
(C) Now York
(D) Kathmandu
20. In which country is the volcano Mount Gamkonora, the highest peak of Halmahera island, which erupted in July, 2007 located ?
(A) Japan
(B) Indonesia
(C) Russia
(D) France
21. Name the Vice-captain of the Indian Cricket Team which toured South Africa in T-20 tournament recently—
(A) Virender Sehwag
(B) Anil Kumble
(C) Irfan Pathan
(D) Yuvraj Singh
22. The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) consists of—
(A) China, Russia, Kazhakistan, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan
(B) China, Russia, Mongolia, Kazhakistan, Uzbekistan and Tajikistan
(C) China, Russia, Mongolia, Iran, Kazhakistan and Uzbekistan
(D) China, Russia, Iran, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan
23. Which one of the following companies announced sometime back the launch of India's first personal computer with one terabyte hard drive capacity ?
(A) Infosys Technologies
(B) Wipro
(C) HCL Infosystems
(D) IBM
24. Which of the following companies has become the highest ranked Indian company in the Fortune Global 500 list (at 135th position) in terms of sales ?
(A) Wipro
(B) Reliance
(C) Indian Oil Corporation
(D) ONGC
25. Which one of the following has not been included in the list of new seven wonders ?
(A) Roman Colosseum (Italy)
(B) Machu Picchu (Peru)
(C) Eiffel Tower in Paris (France)
(D) Christ the Redeemer (Brazil)
26. The Chairman of the Indian Censor Board of Film is—
(A) Shri Anupam Kher
(B) Shri Gulzar
(C) Smt. Sharmila Tagore
(D) Shri Sanjeev Kumar
27. The major harmful gas emitted by automobile vehicles which causes air pollution is—
(A) Carbon Monoxide
(B) Methane
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Ozone gas
28. Who among the following is not a classical economist ?
(A) David Ricardo
(B) John Stuart Mill
(C) Thomas Malthus
(D) John Maynard Keynes
29. According to the Employment Outlook 2007 reports of the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), the number of new jobs created in India every year from 2000 to 2005 is—
(A) 5 million
(B) 8 million
(C) 11 million
(D) 13 million
30. 'World Bank' is also known as—
(A) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(B) International Bank for Rehabilitation and Development
(C) International Bank for Refinance and Development
(D) International Bank for Research and Development
31. By which Bill does the Government propose collection of revenues for a year ?
(A) Economic Bill
(B) Finance Bill
(C) Supplementary Bill
(D) None of the above
32. Which is the oldest trade union organization in India ?
(A) Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC)
(B) Centre of Indian Trade Unions (CITU)
(C) All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC)
(D) Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh (BMS)
33. Prof. Amartya Sen was awarded Nobel Prize for his contribution to the field of—
(A) Food and Famines
(B) Welfare economics
(C) Indian economy
(D) Poverty
34. Which of the following items is a major item of Indian export ?
(A) Computer chips
(B) Potato chips
(C) Textile garments
(D) Car engines
35. Indian agriculture is typically characterised as—
(A) Land surplus, labour scarce economy
(B) Land surplus, labour surplus economy
(C) Land scarce, labour surplus economy
(D) Land scarce, labour scarce economy
36. The process of curing inflation by reducing money supply is called—
(A) Cost-push inflation
(B) Demand-pull inflation
(C) Disinflation
(D) Reflation
37. Which of the following pair of goods are close substitutes ?
(A) Milk and Sugar
(B) Sugar and Tea
(C) Tea and Coffee
(D) Coffee and Biscuits
38. Long-term funds in the capital market can be raised either by borrowing from certain institutions or through—
(A) Issue of note
(B) Taking loan from Government
(C) Issue of securities
(D) Taking loan from foreign institutions
39. As required by the WTO agreement, the Indian Patent Act was amended in 1999. The Act first came into force in the year—
(A) 1965
(B) 1970
(C) 1975
(D) 1980
40. The Indian Parliament is competent to enact law on a State subject if—
(A) Emergency under Article 352 is in operation
(B) All the State Assemblies of the country make such a request
(C) The President sends such a message to Parliament
(D) None of the above
41. The President of India enjoys emergency powers of—
(A) Four types
(B) Two types
(C) Five types
(D) Three types
42. Sarvodaya stands for—
(A) Total revolution
(B) Non-cooperation
(C) Upliftment of all
(D) Non-violence
43. Right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights during the rule of—
(A) Indira Gandhi Government
(B) Morarji Desai Government
(C) Narasimha Rao Government
(D) Vajpayee Government
44. The chapter or Fundamental Duties includes—
(A) Duty to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our freedom movement
(B) Duty to vote in General Election
(C) Duty to promote the sense of fraternity among the people
(D) Duty to stick to the political party on whose ticket one contested election
45. In which city of South Africa was Gandhi beaten up and thrown off the pavement by the white people ?
(A) Cape Town
(B) Durban
(C) Johannesburg
(D) Pretoria
46. A national political party is one which receives 4% of the total votes polled in—
(A) Two or more States
(B) The capital city
(C) Four or more States
(D) In all the States
47. The basic features of the Indian Constitution which are not amendable under Article 368 are—
(A) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system and judicial review
(B) Sovereignty, territorial integrity and parliamentary system of government
(C) Judicial review and the federal system
(D) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system, judicial review and parliamentary system of government
48. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy ?
(A) Part I
(B) Part III
(C) Part IV
(D) Part V
49. How many types of writs can be issued by the Supreme Court ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 6
50. Which of the following countries is not a member of the SAARC ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Bhutan
(C) Maldives
(D) Myanmar
51. The Supreme Court of India enjoys—
(A) Original jurisdictions
(B) Advisory jurisdictions
(C) Appellate and advisory jurisdictions
(D) Original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions
52. Who attended the Congress of Oppressed Nationalists at Brussels in 1927, on behalf of the National Congress ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Dr. Ansari
(D) Motilal Nehru
53. Who amongst the following made it possible for the Indians to enter the Indian Civil Service through an open competitive examination ?
(A) William Bentinck
(B) Dalhousie
(C) Mayo
(D) Ripon
54. In which year Lala Lajpat Rai was deported to Mandalay for organising the agrarian movement in Punjab ?
(A) 1905
(B) 1907
(C) 1909
(D) 1911
55. Which Governor General had entertained Ranjit Singh with great honour at Ropar ?
(A) Minto I
(B) William Bentinck
(C) Hastings
(D) Auckland
56. The Khajli Sultans of Delhi were—
(A) Mongols
(B) Afghans
(C) Turks
(D) A Jat tribe
57. The 'Arya Samaj' was founded by—
(A) Swami Dayananda Saraswati
(B) Swami Vivekananda
(C) Keshav Chandra Sen
(D) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
58. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad started an Urdu Weekly, The Al-Hilal in 1912, but, on its being banned by the Government, he founded the Al-Balagh in—
(A) 1913
(B) 1914
(C) 1915
(D) 1916
59. High Courts were established in Calcutta, Bombay and Madras in—
(A) 1935
(B) 1919
(C) 1892
(D) 1862
60. Who was the first Woman President of Indian National Congress ?
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Sucheta Kripalani
(C) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
(D) Annie Besant
61. Arabs were defeated in 738 A. D. by—
(A) Pratiharas
(B) Rashtrakutas
(C) Palas
(D) Chalukyas
62. Which of the following reform movements was the first to be started in the 19th century ?
(A) Prarthana Samaj
(B) Brahmo Samaj
(C) Arya Samaj
(D) Rama Krishna Mission
63. The rulers of Vijayanagar promoted—
(A) Hindi, Marathi and Sanskrit
(B) Malayalam, Tamil and Sanskrit
(C) Tamil, Telugu and Sanskrit
(D) Telugu, Urdu and Sanskrit
64. In India, the irrigation of agricultural land is carried out maximum by—
(A) Canals
(B) Wells
(C) Tubewells
(D) Tanks
65. The four largest planets of the Solar System in decreasing sizes are—
(A) Jupiter, Mercury, Saturn and Uranus
(B) Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn and Neptune
(C) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune
(D) Jupiter, Mercury, Saturn and Neptune
66. Which of the following produces maximum crude petroleum in India at present ?
(A) Assam
(B) Gujarat
(C) Off-shore Bombay High
(D) Coastal Tamil Nadu
67. India is one of the largest producers of manganese are in the world along with—
(A) China and Russia
(B) Brazil and Russia
(C) Australia and U.S.A.
(D) South Africa and U.S.A.
68. The 'Chipko Movement' is related to—
(A) Wildlife preservation
(B) Forest conservation
(C) Scientific agriculture
(D) Deforestation
69. Which of the following rivers makes an estuary ?
(A) Cauvery
(B) Krishna
(C) Narmada
(D) Ganga
70. Baltora glacier is located in—
(A) Karakoram ranges
(B) Pamir plateau
(C) Shivalik
(D) Alps
71. The largest producer of world's mica is—
(A) U.S.A.
(B) U.K.
(C) Canada
(D) India
72. The International Date Line is the—
(A) 180° Longitude
(B) 88½° East Longitude
(C) Equator
(D) 0° Longitude
73. Which of the following countries has highest percentage of land under cultivation ?
(A) China
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Canada
(D) India
74. Aryabhata was launched from—
(A) Sriharikota
(B) Mahe
(C) Chandipur
(D) Daman
75. How for does the Exclusive Economic Zone of a country extend from her coast ?
(A) 120 km
(B) 220 km
(C) 320 km
(D) 420 km
76. In which of the following groups, animals bear no teeth ?
(A) Peacock, Ostrich, Tortoise
(B) Owl, Loris, Crow
(C) Alligator, Turtle, Tortoise
(D) Turtle, Kiwi, Cow
77. Jaundice is a symptom of disease of—
(A) Kidney
(B) Liver
(C) Pancreas
(D) Thyroid
78. The vaccination against small pox involves the introduction of—
(A) Killed germs
(B) Weakened germs
(C) Live antibodies
(D) Activated germs
79. Deficiency of Vitamin B6 in man causes—
(A) Rickets
(B) Scurvy
(C) Beri-beri
(D) Anaemia
80. Which is the national flower of India ?
(A) Rose
(B) Lotus
(C) Lily
(D) Sunflower
81. First successful heart transplantation was done by—
(A) D. S. Paintal
(B) C. N. Barnard
(C) D. Shetty
(D) P. K. Sen
82. Yellow Fever is transmitted by—
(A) Aedes
(B) Anopheles
(C) House-fly
(D) Culex
83. Which one of the following is a major green house gas ?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Chloro fluorocarbon
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Freon
84. In atmosphere the lowermost layer is—
(A) Troposphere
(B) Exosphere
(C) Ionosphere
(D) Strato sphere
85. Washing of peeled vegetables removes the vitamin—
(A) A
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E
86. Pasteurisation is the process in which milk is heated to—
(A) 60° C for 10 minutes
(B) 63° C for 20 minutes
(C) 63° C for 30 minutes
(D) 72° C for 10 minutes
87. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer from the code given below :
List-I (Discoverer)
(a) Jenner
(b) Watson
(c) Landsteiner
(d) Flemming
List-II (Discoveries)
1. Blood grouping
2. Penicillin
3. Vaccination
4. Double helix
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 2 4 1
88. Which of the following is most elastic ?
(A) Rubber
(B) Wet clay
(C) Steel
(D) Plastic
89. The first ever robot spacecraft to probe planet Venus was named—
(A) Galileo
(B) Magellan
(C) Newton
(D) Challenger
90. A man with colour blindness will see red as—
(A) Yellow
(B) Blue
(C) Green
(D) Violet
91. Comets revolve around the—
(A) Earth
(B) Venus
(C) Sun
(D) Jupiter
92. When a person walking in bright Sunlight enters a dark room, he is not able to see clearly for a little while because—
(A) The eye muscles cannot immediately adjust the focal length of the eye lens
(B) The retina retains the bright images for sometime and becomes momentarily insensitive
(C) The iris is, unable to contract the pupil immediately
(D) The iris is unable to dilate the pupil immediately
93. The swing of a spinning cricket ball in air can be explained on the basis of—
(A) Sudden change in wind direction
(B) Buoyancy of air
(C) Turbulance caused by wind
(D) Bernoulli's theorem
94. The freezer in a refrigerator is fitted near the top—
(A) To keep it away from hot compressor which is nearer to the bottom
(B) Because of convenience
(C) It facilitates convection currents
(D) To minimise power consumption
95. The chemical name of 'Common salt' is—
(A) Sodium chloride
(B) Sodium nitrate
(C) Ammonium chloride
(D) Calcium chloride
96. Denatured spirit is ethanol mixed with—
(A) Petrol
(B) Kerosene
(C) Water
(D) Pyridine
97. The metal, which is a constituent of vitamin B12 is—
(A) Iron
(B) Magnesium
(C) Zinc
(D) Cobalt
98. The most abundant inert gas in the atmosphere is—
(A) Helium
(B) Neon
(C) Argon
(D) Krypton
99. Which metal is extracted from sea water ?
(A) Potassium
(B) Magnesium
(C) Aluminium
(D) Beryllium
100. Precentage of lead in lead pencils is—
(A) 0
(B) 31 – 66
(C) 40
(D) 80
Answers :
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (C)
4. (B) As per population census 2001 the literacy rate in India is 64•8%.
5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (C)
10. (A) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (C)
15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (C)
20. (B) 21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (C)
25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (C)
30. (A) 31. (B)
32. (C) AITUC was established is 1920, which was the first national level trade union organisation in India to organise workers in the country.
33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (C) 36. (C) 37. (C)
38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (A) 41. (D) 42. (C)
43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (B) 46. (C) 47. (D)
48. (C) 49. (C) 50. (D) 51. (D) 52. (A)
53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (B) 56. (C) 57. (A)
58. (C) 59. (D) 60. (D) 61. (A) 62. (B)
63. (C) 64. (A) 65. (C) 66. (A) 67. (A)
68. (B) 69. (D) 70. (A) 71. (D) 72. (A)
73. (D) In India cultivated land is nearly 55% while in USA it is only 44%.
74. First Indian satellite Aryabhata was launched on April 19, 1975 by the Soviet rocket, Cosmodrome (Soviet Union).
75. (C) 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (D)
80. (B) 81. (B) 82. (A) 83. (A) 84. (A)
85. (B) 86. (C) 87. (C) 88. (C) 89. (B)
90. (C) 91. (C) 92. (B) 93. (D) 94. (C)
95. (A) 96. (C) 97. (D) 98. (C) 99. (B)
100. (A)